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Computer Networking Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How does a computer network enhance collaboration and functionality?

a)

By restricting data exchange between devices.

b)

By isolating hardware components within devices.

c)

By providing a user-friendly interface for individual devices.

d)

By allowing devices to exchange data and services.

2.

What is true about the ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) character set?

a)

ASCII uses a 6-bit version that allows for 64 possible combinations.

b)

The 7-bit version of ASCII allows for 128 possible combinations of characters.

c)

The 8-bit version of ASCII uses the eighth bit to always represent a binary 1.

d)

ASCII is not widely used outside of the United States.

3.

In what context does a computer network play a crucial role?

a)

Isolating devices from communication.

b)

Enhancing hardware management.

c)

Facilitating collaboration and functionality.

d)

Limiting resource sharing among connected devices.

4.

In the context of networking, why is the OSI model considered a fundamental framework?

a)

To determine the speed of data transfer.

b)

To establish specific roles for networking devices.

c)

To enable seamless communication and data transfer between devices and systems.

d)

All options are correct.

5.

What is the primary purpose of a computer network?

a)

To provide wireless communication standards.

b)

To facilitate efficient resource sharing and communication among connected devices.

c)

To manage hardware components in isolation.

d)

To execute specific tasks like word processing.

6.

What is the client-server model in computing?

a)

An independent computation model.

b)

An architectural framework for networked systems.

c)

A wireless communication standard.

d)

A data encryption method.

7.

How many layers does the OSI model consist of, and what is their primary purpose?

a)

Three layers, focused on hardware compatibility.

b)

Five layers, each responsible for a specific networking protocol.

c)

Seven layers, with each having a distinct role and purpose.

d)

Nine layers, emphasizing data encryption.

8.

Which of the following statements is true about analog signals and their behavior?

a)

Analog signals are represented by square waves and are defined by their voltage and current.

b)

Attenuation refers to the increase in signal strength as it travels through a medium.

c)

Analog signals are represented by sine waves and are defined by their amplitude, frequency, and phase.

d)

A value decrease of 1 in attenuation represents a twofold decrease in signal strength.

9.

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes data from signals?

a)

Data exists only in digital form, while signals are always analog.

b)

Data conveys meaning, while signals are used to encode and transmit data.

c)

Analog data is composed of a fixed number of values, while digital data is continuous.

d)

Signals and data are identical and can only exist in analog form.

10.

What is a characteristic of twisted pair cables that makes them suitable for certain applications?

a)

High bandwidth.

b)

Cost-effectiveness.

c)

Mobility and flexibility.

d)

Reliability and security.

11.

What does the 7-bit version of the ASCII character set allow for?

a)

64 possible combinations of characters, including only uppercase letters and digits.

b)

128 possible combinations of textual symbols, including uppercase and lowercase letters, digits, special symbols, and control characters.

c)

256 possible combinations of characters using a 7-bit representation.

d)

Only 32 possible combinations for control characters.

12.

In Synchronous Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), what happens if a device has no data to transmit?

a)

The multiplexer skips the device and moves to the next.

b)

The multiplexer stops transmitting until data is available.

c)

The multiplexer inserts alternating 1s and 0s to fill the timeslot.

d)

The multiplexer assigns the empty slot to another device.

13.

What happens to data when using lossy compression?

a)

The data can be perfectly restored to its original form.

b)

The data is compressed without any loss of information.

c)

Some original data is permanently lost during compression.

d)

The data is split into multiple parts for transmission.

14.

In Statistical Time Division Multiplexing (Statistical TDM), how does the multiplexer ensure that the receiver can identify which device sent the data?

a)

By using synchronized timeslots for each device.

b)

By assigning unique codes to each device's data stream.

c)

By adding a timestamp to each data packet.

d)

By including the device's address in the data frame.

15.

What is the primary function of Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) in fiber-optic communication?

a)

To convert analog signals into digital signals.

b)

To allow multiple signals to travel together on one fiber.

c)

To increase the physical length of the fiber-optic cable.

d)

Separating signals based on timeslots.

16.

What is a notable feature of Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)?

a)

It uses fixed timeslots for each device.

b)

It requires different frequencies for each signal.

c)

It allows many devices to share the same frequency using unique codes.

d)

It is limited to one device transmitting at a time.

17.

In which type of compression is the original data fully recoverable after decompression?

a)

Lossy compression

b)

Lossless compression

c)

Stream compression

d)

Adaptive compression

18.

What is modulation in the context of signal transmission?

a)

The process of adding two analog waveforms together to create a new data type.

b)

The process of converting digital data to analog data for transmission.

c)

The process of sending data over a signal by varying its amplitude, frequency, or phase.

d)

The process of converting 1s and 0s into square waves for transmission over a wire.

19.

What is the purpose of modulation in the context of data transmission?

a)

To convert digital data into 1s and 0s for transmission over a wire.

b)

To send data by varying the amplitude, frequency, or phase of a signal.

c)

To produce square-wave signals that can transmit analog data.

d)

To encode data using schemes such as NRZ-L and Manchester code.

20.

Which of the following statements is true about the conversion of digital data to analog signals and vice versa?

a)

In modulation, digital signals are converted to analog signals that take on a continuous range of signal levels.

b)

Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) converts digital signals to analog data by tracking steps in the signal.

c)

Digital data can be converted to an analog signal that operates with discrete signal levels.

d)

Delta modulation converts digital signals by taking 'snapshots' of data at fixed intervals.

21.

What is the primary function of a Network Interface Controller (NIC) in computer hardware?

a)

Managing network protocols.

b)

Providing wireless communication standards.

c)

Facilitating a computer's connection to a computer network.

d)

Isolating computations within a computer.

22.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Local Area Network (LAN)?

a)

Equipment and support can be costly.

b)

The LAN is only as strong as its weakest link.

c)

LANs allow for secure transfers at high speeds with low error rates.

d)

Some types of hardware may not interoperate.

23.

In the original network topology, how does a workstation connect to the bus?

a)

Through a router.

b)

Using a switch.

c)

By attaching a network interface card (NIC) to the bus via a tap.

d)

Through a wireless access point.

24.

What is the main difference between a hub and a switch in a network?

a)

A hub forwards frames only to specific devices, while a switch broadcasts frames to all devices.

b)

A switch forwards frames based on NIC addresses, while a hub transmits frames to all its ports.

c)

A hub is more intelligent than a switch because it keeps track of NIC addresses.

d)

A switch can only handle one device at a time, whereas a hub handles multiple devices simultaneously.

25.

What is the primary function of the backplane in a network switch?

a)

To ensure that only one device can transmit data at a time.

b)

To allow for the isolation of traffic patterns and enable multiple data transfers to occur simultaneously.

c)

To broadcast all data to every connected port on the switch.

d)

To randomly assign network bandwidth to connected devices.

26.

Why is a bus network topology considered cost-effective for small-scale networks?

a)

Due to its ability to handle high data traffic.

b)

It requires minimal cabling and hardware.

c)

It can be easily expanded without additional costs.

d)

Because it offers dedicated connections to each node.

27.

What are the two sublayers of the data link layer in the OSI model?

a)

Physical layer and network layer

b)

Logical link control and medium access control

c)

Transport layer and application layer

d)

Session layer and presentation layer

28.

Which layers of the OSI model does a Network Interface Controller (NIC) handle processes for?

a)

Application and Presentation layers.

b)

Data Link and Physical layers.

c)

Network and Transport layers.

d)

Session and Transport layers.

29.

What processes does a Network Interface Controller (NIC) handle?

a)

Application layer processes only.

b)

Managing hardware components.

c)

Data transmission and reception, as well as network protocol handling.

d)

Isolating computations within a network.

30.

What is the primary characteristic of a bus network topology?

a)

Data transmission in multiple directions.

b)

Connection through multiple switches.

c)

Linear arrangement with a shared communication link.

d)

Each node has its individual link to the main server.

31.

What is the primary function of an Ethernet hub in a network?

a)

To segment network traffic.

b)

To filter data packets.

c)

To connect multiple devices into a single network segment.

d)

To establish secure connections between devices.

32.

Which of the following is true about Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

a)

All signals are transmitted using the same frequency at different times.

b)

FDM transmits multiple signals at the same time using different frequencies.

c)

Digital signaling is primarily used in FDM to ensure accurate transmission.

d)

No guard bands are needed to prevent interference between adjacent signals.

33.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

a)

It can only be used with digital signals.

b)

The use of guard bands leads to wasted capacity.

c)

FDM requires synchronization between transmitter and receiver.

d)

FDM cannot be used in radio and television broadcasting.

34.

In Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM), what is the purpose of a guard band?

a)

To synchronize signals being transmitted simultaneously.

b)

To allocate extra bandwidth for emergency communication.

c)

To prevent interference between adjacent frequency channels.

d)

To allow digital signals to overlap without noise.

35.

If you have 4 channels, each using 120 kHz of bandwidth, and 3 guard bands of 10 kHz each, what is the minimum total bandwidth required for the communication link?

4 lines
36.

What role does a MAC address play in local area networks (LANs)?

a)

Managing hardware components.

b)

Providing wireless communication standards.

c)

Ensuring data reaches the correct destination.

d)

Isolating computations within a network.

37.

What is the primary purpose of a Local Area Network (LAN)?

a)

To connect devices globally.

b)

To link computers across different continents.

c)

To facilitate efficient communication and resource sharing within a localized area.

d)

To establish connections between different LANs.

38.

What distinguishes Wi-Fi from Ethernet as a LAN technology?

a)

Wi-Fi offers slower and less reliable connections.

b)

Ethernet is suitable for mobile devices.

c)

Both technologies offer equally stable connections.

39.

How does the choice between Ethernet and Wi-Fi depend on network needs?

a)

It solely depends on device mobility.

b)

It depends on the speed of the internet connection.

c)

It is based on specific needs and priorities of the network.

d)

It relies on the availability of physical cables.

40.

What is a primary advantage of Ethernet over Wi-Fi?

a)

Higher mobility for devices.

b)

Wireless connectivity.

c)

Slower and less secure connections.

d)

Reliable and high-speed connections.

41.

What is a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)?

a)

A physical division of a LAN based on wiring.

b)

A logical subgroup within a LAN created via switches and software.

c)

A type of wireless network.

d)

A network that operates solely on fiber-optic cable.

42.

Which standard allows multiple devices to intercommunicate and work together to create a VLAN?

a)

IEEE 802.3

b)

IEEE 802.11

c)

IEEE 802.1Q

d)

IEEE 802.2

43.

What is the subnet mask for the network address 192.168.1.0/24?

(a)  

44.

If the IT department allocates a subnet with the network address 192.168.1.128/26, how many usable IP addresses are available in this subnet?

4 lines
45.

What is the broadcast address for the subnet with the network address 192.168.1.64/26?

(a)  

46.

Which of the following IP addresses is NOT valid for the subnet 192.168.1.128/26?

a)

192.168.1.130

b)

192.168.1.160

c)

192.168.1.127

d)

192.168.1.191

47.

If the company decides to create four subnets from the original network address 192.168.1.0/24, what is the subnet address for the second subnet?

a)

192.168.1.0/26

b)

192.168.1.64/26

c)

192.168.1.128/26

d)

192.168.1.192/26

48.

In simple parity checking, what does even parity require?

a)

All bits in the data must be zeros.

b)

An odd number of 1s in the data.

c)

A parity bit that makes the total number of 1s even.

d)

No parity bits to be added.

49.

What would the parity bit be for the binary sequence 1101001 when using even parity?

(a)  

50.

What is the primary function of longitudinal parity in error detection?

4 lines
51.

Which RAID level is the most popular and stores parity information along with the data stripes across multiple disks?

(a)  

52.

In the CRC calculation example with the divisor 10011 (CRC-4), how many bits are added to the data word as zeros before performing the division?

(a)  

53.

In the CRC example with the data word 110011 and generator polynomial 1011, what is the new data word obtained by appending the required zeros to the data word for division?

(a)  

54.

In the CRC calculation process with the data word 110011 and the generator polynomial 1011, after performing the division, what is the final code word obtained by appending the remainder to the original data word?

(a)  

55.

What kind of attack targets a server’s OS?

a)

Keylogger

b)

Phishing

c)

Social engineering

d)

Rootkit

56.

In a DDoS attack, the flood of messages to the target website come from ___________ servers.

a)

infected

b)

uninfected

c)

spoofed

d)

the hacker’s

57.

Which of the following does NOT provide physical security?

a)

Access badge

b)

Firewall

c)

Video camera

d)

Tamper detection

58.

Which of these devices does NOT prevent access to a protected area?

a)

IPS

b)

Firewall

c)

Keypad

d)

IDS

59.

Which of the following is the most secure password?

a)

p@$$w0rd

b)

$t@rw@r$

c)

07041776

d)

yellowMonthMagneficant

60.

Which of these encryption techniques does NOT rely on a key?

a)

Polyalphabetic substitution-based cipher

b)

Data Encryption Standard

c)

Monoalphabetic substitution-based cipher

d)

Transposition-based cipher

61.

Which principle, if adequately followed, ensures a person cannot write their own employee evaluation report?

a)

Shared responsibility model

b)

Separation of duties

c)

Defense in depth

d)

Principle of least privilege

62.

A digital signature supports which component of the CIA triad?

a)

Accountability

b)

Availability

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Integrity

63.

After a digital signature is created, what information is needed to access the hash stored in the digital signature?

a)

The signer’s private key

b)

The signer’s public key

c)

The document’s hash

d)

The lawyer’s private key

64.

Which protocol is used to secure HTTP?

a)

TLS

b)

SSH

c)

RDP

d)

IPsec

65.

You have forgotten your password, so you call the helpdesk and ask the representative to retrieve your password. After a few moments, the helpdesk representative tells you your forgotten password. What do you now know about the company’s password storage method?

a)

Passwords are encrypted.

b)

Passwords aren't hashed.

c)

Passwords are hashed.

d)

Passwords aren't encrypted.

66.

Which of the following characteristics can a firewall NOT use to filter network traffic?

a)

Port number

b)

IP address

c)

Protocol

d)

Username

67.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable risk response strategy?

a)

Avoid

b)

Evaluate

c)

Accept

d)

Transfer

68.

Which AWS resource filters traffic to an EC2 instance?

a)

Firewall

b)

Security group

c)

NACL

d)

Proxy server

69.

What data classification should be applied to your company’s bank statements?

a)

Sensitive

b)

Public

c)

Protected

d)

Private

70.

You receive an email from a business associate that has been encrypted with your public key. What information is needed to decrypt the message?

a)

Your associate’s public key

b)

Your associate’s private key

c)

Your private key

d)

Your public key

71.

You receive a document from a business associate that has been encrypted with their private key. Where will your browser look to retrieve the required key to decrypt the message?

a)

The browser’s digital certificate

b)

CA

c)

The DNS server

d)

ACRL

72.

What security is provided by FHSS?

a)

Obscurity

b)

Encryption

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Hashing

73.

Which authentication technique allows a student to use their Microsoft account to access their LMS (learning management system) for schoolwork?

a)

MFA

b)

SSO

c)

RWX

d)

FIM

74.

What component stored in a block ensures the integrity of data recorded in the blockchain?

a)

The transactional data

b)

The previous block’s hash

c)

The next block’s hash

d)

The block’s owner

75.

What is the least-cost path on a network?

a)

Lempel-Ziv

b)

DWDM

c)

Dijkstra

d)

MU-MIMO

76.

Which routing protocol requires that routers transmit their routing tables every 30 seconds?

a)

EIGRP

b)

OSPF

c)

IS-IS

d)

RIP

77.

Which routing protocol has the fastest convergence time?

a)

EIGRP

b)

OSPF

c)

RIPv2

d)

IS-IS

78.

How does OSPF advertise its routing information?

a)

It listens for update requests from each of its neighbors.

b)

It floods other routers with link state packets when something changes.

c)

It measures the delay or cost to each neighboring router.

d)

It floods other routers with its entire routing table every 30 seconds.

79.

As you’re redesigning your network across multiple, private WAN connections, you realize you need to choose a secure routing protocol for your AS. Which of the following would NOT be a reasonable choice to consider?

a)

BGP

b)

IS-IS

c)

EIGRP

d)

RIPv2

80.

What type of protocol is BGP?

a)

Distance vector

b)

Hybrid

c)

Link state

d)

Path vector

81.

Which routing protocol is limited to 15 hops?

a)

RIPv2

b)

EIGRP

c)

OSPF

d)

BGP

82.

Which of the following is NOT an example of some variation of FDM?

a)

5G

b)

MIMO

c)

CWDM

d)

Cable television

83.

Which multiplexing technique uses a round-robin pattern?

a)

SM

b)

CWDM

c)

Stat TDM

d)

Sync TDM

84.

Which multiplexing technique requires addressing to identify each data stream?

a)

CDM

b)

Stat TDM

c)

Sync TDM

d)

FDM

85.

What type of medium is required to support WDM?

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Cable TV

c)

Fiber

d)

Cellular

86.

If data has a large number of one type of symbol, which type of compression would be the most effective?

a)

Lempel-Ziv technique

b)

MP3

c)

Quantization

d)

Run-length encoding

87.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of JPEG compression?

a)

Run-length encoding

b)

Lempel-Ziv technique

c)

Quantization

d)

Discrete cosine transformation

88.

Given the following bit string, what run-length encoding would result? 00000001000001100000000000

a)

0111010100001011

b)

75011

c)

43411442

d)

0106000

89.

MP3, JPEG, and MPEG all rely on what characteristic in the data in order to perform compression?

a)

The original data consists predominantly of one symbol.

b)

The percentage of reduction is not significant.

c)

Most users have limited available bandwidth.

d)

Some loss of data will not be noticed by the end user.

90.

Which ALM phase is the most active?

a)

Development

b)

Upgrade

c)

Maintenance

d)

Deployment

91.

With which connectivity map is distance most relevant as a connection characteristic?

a)

Local area overview connectivity map

b)

Wide area connectivity map

c)

Local area detailed connectivity map

d)

Metropolitan area connectivity map

92.

Which feasibility study will most likely discover any discrepancies between vendor claims and actual functionality?

a)

Financial feasibility

b)

Time feasibility

c)

Operational feasibility

d)

Technical feasibility

93.

Which capacity planning approach will compare a network’s actual performance with expected statistics?

a)

Analytical modeling

b)

Computer simulation

c)

Benchmarking

d)

Linear projection

94.

When you arrive at work one morning, you find several new trouble tickets complaining of slow network performance. You take a few moments to capture some network traffic using Wireshark. What information will help you identify variances between this network capture and previous network traffic?

a)

Connectivity map

b)

Baseline

c)

Sandbox

d)

Syslog

95.

What kind of professional training can help a manager develop better time management skills for their team?

a)

Change management

b)

Network modeling

c)

Capacity planning

d)

Project management

96.

What software allows a managed device to communicate information about itself via SNMP?

a)

Agent

b)

Manager

c)

MIB

d)

CVE

97.

Which SNMP message type is issued by a managed element?

a)

Write

b)

Save

c)

Read

d)

Trap

98.

During which change management phase are users retrained?

a)

Understand and follow the approval process.

b)

Follow project management procedures.

c)

Submit a change request document.

d)

Provide additional documentation.

99.

You are performing a baseline study for your company, which is located on the East Coast with many remote workers on the West Coast. You note that a peak network utilization occurs at approximately noon, when most of your East Coast employees are on lunch break. What could be causing this peak activity?

a)

Security breach

b)

Employees working during lunch

c)

Time zone differences

d)

Malfunctioning workstations

100.

Which network tool would be the easiest to use to determine if a cable has been severed by rodents?

a)

Continuity tester

b)

Network tester

c)

Cable tester

d)

Network monitor

101.

Which standard creates static records used for retroactive analysis?

a)

NetFlow

b)

Syslog

c)

SNMP

d)

Sandbox

102.

As you migrate your application’s resources to the cloud, you want to create a cloud-based environment that mimics your on-prem data center as closely as possible so you can run the application in the cloud alongside its counterpart on-prem. What kind of deployment is this?

a)

Production

b)

Sandbox

c)

Benchmark

d)

Blue-green

103.

Ansible can be used to create ___________ cloud resources that can be reconfigured after deployment.

a)

imperative

b)

idempotent

c)

declarative

d)

immutable

104.

What kind of file is needed to deploy a cloud-based network using IaC?

a)

Snapshot

b)

Multimedia

c)

Text

d)

Image

105.

Your web server needs to increase resources to handle increased traffic after a successful email campaign. Your server is configured to clone itself to create a larger cluster of servers. What kind of scaling is your auto-scaling group using?

a)

Directional

b)

Diagonal

c)

Vertical

d)

Horizontal

106.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automation?

a)

Better control

b)

More secure

c)

Slower deployment

d)

Lower costs

107.

Which cloud migration strategy aims to best take advantage of cloud technologies?

a)

Repurchase

b)

Rehost

c)

Retain

d)

Replatform

108.

Which development model follows a linear path?

a)

Agile

b)

Waterfall

c)

DevOps

d)

CI/CD

109.

You’ve just deployed an update to an HR application that is widely used throughout your company. Which type of testing should you conduct to ensure your scheduling and shift planning software has not been adversely affected by the HR application update?

a)

Load testing

b)

Progressive testing

c)

Benchmark testing

d)

Regression testing

110.

What is the primary role of a character encoding scheme in relation to Unicode?

a)

To define how each code point is represented in a physical medium.

b)

To translate Unicode code points into a specific bit representation for computer networks or files.

c)

To convert bits into Unicode code points for network transmission.

d)

To replace UTF-8 and UTF-16 with a newer encoding standard

111.

What would the parity bit be for the binary sequence 1001001 when using even parity?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

112.

In the CRC example with the data word 110001 and generator polynomial 10001, what is the new data word obtained by appending the required zeros to the data word for division?

a)

11000110001

b)

1100010000

c)

110001000

d)

11000100

113.

How many groups of hexadecimal digits make up a MAC address?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

114.

What is the broadcast address for the subnet with the network address 192.168.1.128/26?

a)

192.168.1.6

b)

192.168.1.127

c)

192.168.1.191

d)

192.168.1.255

115.

In a contention-based protocol like CSMA/CD, what happens when two workstations transmit data at the same time?

a)

Both workstations continue transmitting until one completes.

b)

One workstation's transmission takes priority, and the other one stops.

c)

Both workstations stop transmitting and back off for a random amount of time.

d)

Both workstations wait for a network administrator to resolve the collision.

116.

How many pairs of wires are necessary to support a full-duplex connection to a switch?

a)

One pair

b)

Two pairs

c)

Three pairs

d)

Four pairs

117.

Which RAID technique splits data into pieces and stores each piece on different disk drives?

a)

RAID-0

b)

RAID-1

c)

RAID-3

d)

RAID-S

118.

From the network graph below, if we flood the packet from Node 2, and there is a network hop limit of 2, how many packets will be created?

a)

6 packets

b)

7 packets

c)

8 packets

d)

9 packets

119.

Which of the following routing algorithms uses with the Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?

a)

Link State Routing

b)

Flooding

c)

Path Vector Routing

d)

Distance Vector Routing

120.

Which routing method is more commonly used in present networks, and what is a key difference between centralized and distributed routing?

a)

Centralized routing; it relies on a single central controller to make routing decisions.

b)

Centralized routing; it is more efficient in handling dynamic changes in the network.

c)

Distributed routing; it requires more processing power and memory on individual routers.

d)

Distributed routing; it allows routers to make independent decisions based on local information.

121.

What is the data unit used in Transport layer of TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Data

b)

Segment

c)

Packet

d)

Frame

122.

Which protocol is used for testing the reachability of a host on an IP network?

a)

ARP

b)

ICMP

c)

DHCP

d)

NAT