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SPI Review Part 3

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a characteristic of read magnification in image processing?

a)

Rescans and acquires new data

b)

Reads old data

c)

Increases line density

d)

Improves spatial resolution

2.

Which type of magnification can improve temporal resolution if the region of interest is shallower?

a)

Read magnification

b)

Write magnification

c)

Both read and write magnification

d)

Neither read nor write magnification

3.

In write magnification, what happens if the pixel size is unchanged?

a)

Number of pixels decreases

b)

Number of pixels increases

c)

Spatial resolution decreases

d)

Temporal resolution remains unchanged

4.

What is the appearance of speckle in tissues?

a)

Smooth and uniform

b)

Grainy or granular

c)

Bright and clear

d)

Dark and shadowy

5.

What causes speckle in imaging artifacts?

a)

Reflection of light

b)

Refraction of sound

c)

Interference effects of scattered sound

d)

Absorption of heat

6.

What is the effect of speckle on image quality?

a)

Enhances image contrast

b)

Reduces image contrast and spatial resolution

c)

Improves diagnostic accuracy

d)

Increases image brightness

7.

What is clutter in Doppler artifact?

a)

Strong reflections from blood cells

b)

Weak reflections from anatomic structures

c)

Strong reflections from anatomic structures

d)

Weak reflections from blood cells

8.

What is the purpose of fill-in interpolation in imaging?

a)

To remove noise

b)

To fill in gaps between lines

c)

To enhance color

d)

To increase brightness

9.

What does interpolation improve in images?

a)

Color accuracy

b)

Image detail (spatial resolution)

c)

Image brightness

d)

Image contrast

10.

Diagram showing fill-in interpolation with sector-shaped image and circular structure

a)

Fill-in interpolation with sector-shaped image

b)

Circular structure with fill-in interpolation

c)

Sector-shaped image with circular interpolation

d)

Diagram showing fill-in interpolation with sector-shaped image and circular structure

11.

What is the main benefit of using spatial compounding in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Increases artifacts

b)

Reduces spatial resolution

c)

Improves signal-to-noise ratio

d)

Decreases frame rate

12.

Which type of transducers are used for spatial compounding?

a)

Linear array transducers

b)

Phased array transducers

c)

Convex array transducers

d)

Mechanical transducers

13.

What is another name for temporal compounding?

a)

Spatial averaging

b)

Frequency compounding

c)

Temporal averaging

d)

Dynamic compounding

14.

What effect does temporal compounding have on temporal resolution?

a)

Increases temporal resolution

b)

Decreases temporal resolution

c)

No effect on temporal resolution

d)

Eliminates temporal resolution

15.

What is the primary benefit of frequency compounding in image processing?

a)

Increases the speed of image creation

b)

Reduces the need for manual adjustments

c)

Improves signal-to-noise ratio

d)

Enhances color accuracy

16.

Which artifact is reduced by frequency compounding?

a)

Motion artifact

b)

Speckle artifact

c)

Color artifact

d)

Shadow artifact

17.

In frequency compounding, what remains unchanged?

a)

Spatial resolution

b)

Temporal resolution

c)

Frequency resolution

d)

Color resolution

18.

What is dynamic aperture primarily used for in image processing?

a)

Enhancing color depth

b)

Electronic receive focusing

c)

Increasing image brightness

d)

Reducing image size

19.

How does dynamic aperture optimize lateral resolution?

a)

By increasing the number of sound pulses

b)

By varying the number of elements used to receive the signal

c)

By reducing the frequency range

d)

By enhancing color contrast

20.

What is the primary purpose of edge enhancement in imaging?

a)

To reduce noise in the image

b)

To increase the contrast at a boundary

c)

To add color to grayscale images

d)

To decrease the resolution

21.

What does coded excitation improve in imaging?

a)

Color accuracy

b)

Image brightness

c)

Axial resolution

d)

Image size

22.

What is the main function of elastography?

a)

To measure temperature changes

b)

To identify tissues of different mechanical properties

c)

To enhance color contrast

d)

To reduce image size

23.

What is shear wave elastography used to measure?

a)

Blood flow speed

b)

Tissue temperature

c)

Speed of sideways created sound waves

d)

Image brightness

24.

What is the purpose of rendering in image processing?

a)

To create 2-D images

b)

To enhance audio quality

c)

To add realism to 3-D or 4-D images

d)

To reduce file size

25.

What is the unit of measurement for dynamic range?

a)

Hertz

b)

Decibels (dB)

c)

Lumens

d)

Pixels

26.

Which of the following is a function of PACS in recording and archiving?

a)

Enhancing image resolution

b)

Storing and forwarding teleradiology

c)

Compressing video files

d)

Editing audio tracks

27.

What does DICOM stand for?

a)

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

b)

Data Integration and Communication in Media

c)

Dynamic Imaging and Computation in Medicine

d)

Digital Information and Communication in Media

28.

What does "hyperechoic" refer to in image characteristics?

a)

Portions of an image that are brighter than surrounding tissues

b)

Portions of an image that are not as bright as surrounding tissues

c)

Describes structures with equal echo brightness

d)

Displaying a variety of different echo characteristics

29.

What is the meaning of "anechoic" in the context of image characteristics?

a)

With echoes; echo-rich

b)

Without echoes; echo-free

c)

Equal echo brightness

d)

Varied echo characteristics

30.

Which term describes structures with equal echo brightness?

a)

Hyperechoic

b)

Hypoechoic

c)

Isoechoic

d)

Heterogeneous

31.

What does "heterogeneous" mean in image characteristics?

a)

Equal echo brightness throughout

b)

Displaying a variety of different echo characteristics

c)

Brighter than surrounding tissues

d)

Less bright than surrounding tissues

32.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of artifacts in imaging?

a)

Violation of assumptions

b)

Equipment malfunction

c)

Proper brightness

d)

Operator error

33.

Which of the following is one of the basic assumptions of imaging systems?

a)

Sound travels in a straight line.

b)

Sound travels in a circular path.

c)

Sound travels at varying speeds.

d)

Sound does not reflect back.

34.

What happens to artifacts when corrective measures are taken?

a)

Artifacts vanish.

b)

Artifacts become more prominent.

c)

Artifacts change color.

d)

Artifacts multiply.

35.

Reverberations in imaging systems are created when:

a)

US "ping-pongs" between two reflectors.

b)

Sound travels in a circular path.

c)

The imaging plane is extremely thick.

d)

Reflections arise from random structures.

36.

What is a characteristic of a comet tail artifact in sonography?

a)

Single, solid hyperechoic line

b)

Multiple, scattered hypoechoic lines

c)

Circular, anechoic region

d)

Irregular, hypoechoic pattern

37.

What can create comet tail artifacts in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Large fluid-filled structures

b)

Small metal objects

c)

Dense bone structures

d)

Air pockets

38.

What is a common cause of shadowing in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Excessive reflection from the surface

b)

Too much attenuation in the structure above the shadow

c)

Increased transmission through the structure

d)

Enhanced echo from the region beneath

39.

What does shadowing indicate in an ultrasound scan?

a)

Presence of true anatomy

b)

Absence of true anatomy in the region of the shadow

c)

Increased echo intensity

d)

Uniform tissue density

40.

What is the cause of edge shadowing by refraction in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Hyperechoic foreground color

b)

Refraction and beam spreading

c)

Increased attenuation

d)

High-frequency sound waves

41.

How can edge shadowing by refraction be eliminated in ultrasound imaging?

a)

By increasing the frequency

b)

By using spatial compounding

c)

By reducing the gain

d)

By adjusting the focus

42.

What does hyperechoic enhancement indicate in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Too few reflections on the scan

b)

Brighter echoes on the scan

c)

Absence of true anatomy

d)

Increased attenuation

43.

What results from too little attenuation in the structure above the artifact in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Edge shadowing

b)

Hypoechoic background

c)

Hyperechoic enhancement

d)

Increased refraction

44.

What is the role of a strong reflector, called a mirror, in ultrasound imaging?

a)

It absorbs sound waves completely.

b)

It redirects sound waves along a different path.

c)

It amplifies the sound waves.

d)

It changes the frequency of the sound waves.

45.

In ultrasound systems, what assumption is made about the travel of sound?

a)

Sound travels in a circular path.

b)

Sound travels directly to a reflector and back to the transducer.

c)

Sound travels in a zigzag pattern.

d)

Sound travels in a spiral path.

46.

What is an artifact in the context of ultrasound imaging?

a)

A real anatomical structure.

b)

A duplicate of real anatomy appearing on a scan.

c)

A sound wave distortion.

d)

A color change in the image.

47.

What happens if the media through which ultrasound travels does not propagate at 1.54 km/s?

a)

The image will be clearer.

b)

The assumed relationship between time and distance is invalid.

c)

The scan will have fewer reflections.

d)

The depth will be accurate.

48.

What are the two main results of propagation speed errors in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Increased image brightness and reduced noise.

b)

Correct number of reflections and proper depths.

c)

Correct number of reflections and improper depths.

d)

Fewer reflections and accurate depths.

49.

How do speed errors appear on an ultrasound display?

a)

As a blur.

b)

As a step-off, split, or cut.

c)

As a bright spot.

d)

As a shadow.

50.

What happens when the speed of sound is slower than in soft tissue?

a)

Reflector is placed too shallow on the display.

b)

Reflector is placed too deep on the display.

c)

Reflector is not visible on the display.

d)

Reflector is placed at the correct depth.

51.

What is a refraction artifact in sonography?

a)

An artifact that appears as a duplicate image at a different depth

b)

An artifact that appears side-by-side with the true anatomic structure

c)

An artifact that appears as a shadow behind a structure

d)

An artifact that enhances the brightness of a structure

52.

What effect does a refraction artifact have on lateral resolution?

a)

It improves lateral resolution

b)

It has no effect on lateral resolution

c)

It degrades lateral resolution

d)

It enhances lateral resolution

53.

Under what conditions does refraction occur in sonography?

a)

When sound travels through a uniform medium

b)

When sound reflects off a smooth surface

c)

When sound occurs with oblique incidence and different speeds

d)

When sound is absorbed by a dense structure

54.

What is the main cause of side lobes in ultrasound imaging?

a)

Mechanical transducers

b)

Array transducers

c)

Subdicing

d)

Apodization

55.

How can grating lobes be reduced in ultrasound imaging?

a)

By increasing the beam's main axis

b)

By using mechanical transducers

c)

By subdicing

d)

By ignoring the lobe artifact

56.

What is the process called that involves exciting subelements with different voltages to reduce grating lobes?

a)

Subdicing

b)

Apodization

c)

Reflection

d)

Diffraction

57.

What effect do lobe artifacts have on ultrasound imaging?

a)

Improve lateral resolution

b)

Degrade lateral resolution

c)

Enhance image clarity

d)

Increase image size

58.

Diagram showing side lobes and grating lobes in ultrasound imaging

a)

Diagram showing main lobe and side lobes in ultrasound imaging

b)

Diagram showing only main lobe in ultrasound imaging

c)

Diagram showing only grating lobes in ultrasound imaging

d)

Diagram showing side lobes and grating lobes in ultrasound imaging

59.

What is the term used to describe the artifact that occurs when an ultrasound beam has a greater width than the reflector?

a)

Partial volume artifact

b)

Elevational resolution

c)

Speckle

d)

Linear resolution

60.

Which type of transducer is used to cure the slice thickness artifact?

a)

Linear array transducer

b)

Convex array transducer

c)

Annular array transducer

d)

Phased array transducer

61.

What is the appearance of speckle in ultrasound images?

a)

Clear and sharp

b)

Grainy

c)

Blurry

d)

Colorful

62.

What causes the speckle artifact in ultrasound images?

a)

Reflection from a single surface

b)

Refraction of sound waves

c)

Interference effects of scattered sound

d)

Absorption of sound waves

63.

What is a Range Ambiguity Artifact?

a)

Created by reflection from a structure located deeper than the maximum imaging depth

b)

Caused by a shallow reflector in the image

c)

Occurs when the sound beam is smaller than the reflector

d)

Happens when the imaging depth is less than 5 cm

64.

How can a Range Ambiguity Artifact be cured?

a)

By increasing the PRF

b)

By imaging deeper

c)

By using a wider beam

d)

By decreasing the frequency

65.

In the given example, if the maximum imaging depth is 8 cm and the boundary is located 11 cm deep, where will the boundary appear on the image?

a)

At a depth of 11 cm

b)

At a depth of 8 cm

c)

At a depth of 3 cm

d)

At a depth of 5 cm

66.

What happens when the sound beam is larger than the reflector?

a)

Artifacts are minimized

b)

Artifacts are created

c)

Resolution is improved

d)

No effect on the image

67.

Which type of pulse is better to avoid artifacts?

a)

Long pulses

b)

Short pulses

c)

Medium pulses

d)

Pulses with high frequency

68.

What is the purpose of routine periodic evaluation of the US system in a clinical environment?

a)

To increase patient visits

b)

To guarantee optimal image quality

c)

To reduce staff workload

d)

To enhance software features

69.

Which of the following is a requirement for quality assurance in the clinical environment?

a)

Hiring more staff

b)

Multiple evaluations of the system's components

c)

Increasing patient appointments

d)

Reducing equipment costs

70.

What is one of the objectives of quality assurance in the clinical environment?

a)

Increase patient wait time

b)

Detect gradual changes

c)

Decrease equipment usage

d)

Limit staff training

71.

According to the document, who is ultimately responsible for quality assurance in a clinical environment?

a)

The manufacturer’s service engineer

b)

The hospital administrator

c)

The sonographer

d)

The patient

72.

What is a phantom used for in quality assurance?

a)

To provide a personal opinion

b)

To serve as an objective standard

c)

To replace the sonographer

d)

To increase image size

73.

What is the speed of sound in the AIUM 100mm Test Object - Water-Filled Phantom?

a)

1,540 m/s

b)

1,500 m/s

c)

1,600 m/s

d)

1,450 m/s

74.

What does the pin set labeled 'D' evaluate in the AIUM 100mm Test Object?

a)

Dead Zone

b)

Lateral Resolution

c)

Horizontal Registration

d)

Vertical Registration

75.

What is the minimum distance between two pins that are still individually identified in the test object?

a)

1 mm

b)

2 mm

c)

3 mm

d)

4 mm

76.

What is the purpose of a Tissue Equivalent Phantom?

a)

To mimic soft tissue with pins, mock cysts, and masses

b)

To simulate bone density

c)

To replicate muscle tissue

d)

To imitate brain tissue

77.

What is the speed of sound in a Tissue Equivalent Phantom?

a)

1,540 m/s

b)

1,200 m/s

c)

1,800 m/s

d)

1,000 m/s

78.

What is a Doppler Phantom used to assess?

a)

The accuracy of pulsed, continuous wave, and color flow systems

b)

The density of bone structures

c)

The elasticity of muscle tissue

d)

The temperature of body fluids

79.

What type of phantoms may be used to evaluate Doppler systems?

a)

Vibrating string and moving belt phantoms

b)

Static and dynamic phantoms

c)

Gel and liquid phantoms

d)

Solid and hollow phantoms

80.

What determines the minimum sensitivity in a test object?

a)

The gain setting at maximum value

b)

The TGC set to maximum

c)

Increasing the gain from its minimum value

d)

The use of a gel pad

81.

What is the normal sensitivity setting in the AIUM test object?

a)

Lower than minimum sensitivity

b)

The same as minimum sensitivity

c)

Higher than minimum sensitivity

d)

Not related to gain settings

82.

What is the purpose of using an acoustic standoff or gel pad?

a)

To increase the gain

b)

To eliminate the dead zone

c)

To adjust the TGC

d)

To enhance the CRT display

83.

What is the machine's ability to display echoes in the proper depth called?

a)

Horizontal Calibration

b)

Registration Accuracy

c)

Range Accuracy

d)

Minimum Sensitivity

84.

What is the speed of sound in the phantom that may cause an error in range accuracy?

a)

1.54 km/sec

b)

1.54 m/sec

c)

1.54 cm/sec

d)

1.54 mm/sec