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Intro-Healthcare final review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Edna an expecting mother who is seeking advisement during pregnancy.  Which facility would offer her the best aid?

a)

Laboratory

b)

Genetic Counseling Center

c)

Long-Term Care Facility

d)

Pediatrician Office

2.

Ariel, a patient with Chrohn's Disease, has to provide a stool sample every 3 months to check the progression of her illness.  Which facility would she go to in order deliver her sample?

a)

Genetic counseling center

b)

Specialty Hospital

c)

Laboratory

d)

Dental Office

3.

Bruno is an 84 year old man with a history of dementia and a recent history of stroke.  Given his declining health and quality of life, his general practice physician estimates his death to be "months, if not weeks away."  His physician recommends palliative care for patient comfort rather than medical intervention.

Which facility would best provide the care Bruno needs?

a)

Hospice

b)

Long-Term Care Facility

c)

Genetic Counseling Center

d)

University Hospital

4.

Carl, a 78 year old former US soldier, fractures his radius at home.  Which medical facility can Carl visit for government-funded health services?

a)

General Hospital

b)

University Hospital

c)

VA Hospital

d)

Orthopedic Trauma Hospital

5.

This nonprofit organization advocates for patients' rights for a high standard of healthcare services, and routinely performs walk-throughs of facilities to ensure standards are upheld.

a)

OSHA

b)

American Red Cross

c)

American Heart Association

d)

The Join Commission

6.

Where does financial funding for government programs come from?

a)

Taxes

b)

Donors

c)

Federal Reserve Bank

d)

Distributed through ACA

7.

Which organization is tasked with regulating all consumable products and medications?

a)

FDA

b)

USDHHS

c)

ONC

d)

AHRQ

8.

Which of these organizations is best embodies the employability skill, discretion?

a)

Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA)

b)

National Institute of Health (NIH)

c)

Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC)

d)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

9.

Which three of each of the following answers describes a private health system.

a)

Medical Facilities are run by independent companies

b)

Growth and prosperity due to competition

c)

Financial burden for health services falls to government

d)

Typically higher taxes

e)

System used in the United States

10.

For-profit companies are accountable to their stockholders; nonprofit agencies are beholden to _______________.

a)

The General Public

b)

The Government

c)

A board of directors

d)

Their donors

11.

Which nonprofit organization educates and certifies the general public in CPR, First-Aid, and BLS?

a)

The American Heart Association

b)

The Joint Commission

c)

OSHA

d)

The Heartpusher's Guild

12.

Leif, a 9 year old with Marfan Syndrome, must spend 2 weeks every year in Children's Healthcare of Atlanta to receive treatment.  What kind of medical facility is CHOA?

a)

University Hospital

b)

Specialty Hospital

c)

General Hospital

d)

VA Hospital

13.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding nonprofits?

a)

They typically focus on one specific cause

b)

They rely volunteers for healthcare providers

c)

The gain money through fundraising and memberships

d)

They are typically staffed with full-time physicians

14.

Niall has not been to the dentist in nearly 3 years.  He is a healthy, mobile 46 year old man who earns a decent income as a sales representative.  He lives in a rural area, where the closest accessible healthcare facilities are over an hour away.

 

Which of the following factors would explain why Niall hasn't been to the dentist in 3 years?

a)

Cost

b)

Location

c)

Physical disability

d)

Cultural Differences

15.

A low-income household looking to access medical care may experience this limitation:

a)

Cost

b)

Location

c)

Physical disability

d)

Lack of Time

16.

Which of these occurs when a patient is harmed because a healthcare provider does not meet the expected standards of care?

a)

Living Will

b)

Contract

c)

Slander

d)

Tort

17.

Defamation that is spoken is known as ___________.

a)

Slander

b)

Libel

c)

Advance Directives

d)

Malpractice

18.

This tort is the result of a physician failing to use a degree of skill commonly expected, causing injury to the patient.

a)

Defamation

b)

Malpractice

c)

Assault and Battery

d)

False Imprisonment

19.

Any care that results in physical harm, pain, or mental anguish can lead to which type of charge?

a)

Defamation

b)

False Imprisionmet

c)

Abuse

d)

Invasion of Privacy

20.

Which of the following is a legal document that allows an individual to state what

measures should or should not be taken to prolong life when a condition is terminal?

a)

Patient Self-Determination Act

b)

Durable Power of Will

c)

Living Will

d)

HIPAA

21.

A false written statement that causes a person to be ridiculed or damages the person’s

reputation is known as which of the following terms?

a)

False Imprisonment

b)

Invasion of Privacy

c)

Slander

d)

Libel

22.

7

Which of the following is the process by which patients are given important information,

including benefits and risks, about a medical treatment?

a)

Legal Permission

b)

Verbal Permission

c)

Informed Consent

d)

Confidential Authorization

23.

If a patient is physically restrained without proper authorization, this can lead to which of

the following charges?

a)

False Imprisonment

b)

Malpractice

c)

Defamation

d)

Invasion of Privacy

24.

Which of the following is NOT an example of information that can be released without a patient's written consent?

a)

Births and Deaths

b)

Foodborne Illnesses

c)

Injuries that require police involvement

d)

Auditing Financial Records

25.

Hector was admitted to the hospital for liver failure. He has been in the hospital for

eight days and is ready to go home, but his condition is not getting any better. He

expressed to the staff that he wanted to leave against medical advice, but the staff

refused to discharge him.

This is an example of which of the following torts?

a)

Battery

b)

False Imprisonment

c)

Invasion of Privacy

d)

Verbal Abuse

26.

Gerald is a registered nurse that works in a busy dermatology clinic.  On a particularly busy day, the dermatologic surgeon asks Gerald to step in and perform a MOHS surgery for which Gerald does not have any training.  Gerald decides to go through with performing the surgery anyway.

Which tort is Gerald guilty of?

a)

Negligence

b)

Malpractice

c)

Invasion of Privacy

d)

Abuse

27.

While on shift, Dr. Song finds herself overbooked and realizes that she has forgotten to consent and consult her patient about the benefits and risks of their upcoming procedure.  As she is very busy, Dr. Song decides to forego the consent process and operates on her patient a few days later.

Which tort is Dr. Song guilty of?

a)

Malpractice

b)

Invasion of Privacy

c)

Assault and Battery

d)

False Imprisonment

28.

As his patient is leaving clinic, Brennan, a medical assistant, realizes that he has forgotten to instruct her on how to take her prescription.  He catches up to her in the waiting room, where he takes her to a corner of the room to give out his instructions.

Which tort is Brennan guilty of?

a)

Invasion of Privacy

b)

False Imprisonment

c)

Malpractice

d)

Negligence

29.

Tia, an 84 year old patient with dementia, is always accompanied by her son when she visits her general practice physician.  Her son typically tries to relay the doctor's messages to her, but ultimately signs off on any decisions made for her healthcare.

In this example, Tia's son is acting as her ______________.

a)

Living Will

b)

HIPAA Representative

c)

Power of Attorney

d)

Peace Keeper

30.

Which of these is NOT a reason a physician can deny treatment to a patient?

a)

The physician does not know the patient

b)

Patient has refused a blood transfusion for elective surgery

c)

The physician does not like patient

d)

The physician sees no health benefits in the procedure

31.

What is the name of the act that guarantees a patient's right to healthcare coverage, including preexisting conditions and coverage up to age 26?

a)

HIPAA

b)

PSAT

c)

PPACA

d)

PDEA

32.

What does DNR stand for?

a)

Denial- No Reason

b)

Done - NO Reserves

c)

Do Not Revitalize

d)

Do Not Resuscitate

33.

Which of the following is a reason that patients can refuse treatment from a healthcare provider?

a)

The do not want deal with the healing process

b)

It goes against their religious beliefs

c)

They do not want it to interfere with an upcoming vacation

d)

All of these are valid reasons

34.

Gossypiboma (leaving surgical equipment inside a patient) is an example of what tort?

a)

Malpractice

b)

Negiligence

c)

Invasion of Privacy

d)

Defamation

35.

A general practice physician states that their patient needs a flu shot today, to which the patient smiles and gives a thumbs up.  The patient's reaction is an example of ______________.

a)

Implied Consent

b)

Informed Consent

c)

Written Consent

d)

Abuse

36.

A nursing assistant knows that Ms. Rogers doesn't understand instructions well due to mild dementia, so she assumes that all the other elderly residents in the unit should be talked to like children.

a)

Bias

b)

Prejudice

c)

Stereotyping

d)

Discrimination

37.

Without realizing it, a doctor spends more time in rooms with patients who speak English due to it feeling "easier" to communicate with them.

a)

Bias

b)

Prejudice

c)

Stereotyping

d)

Discrimination

38.

A receptionist hears a patient's foreign accent and refuses to schedule an appointment because she believes foreigners "never pay their bills."

a)

Bias

b)

Stereotyping

c)

Prejudice

d)

Discrimination

39.

A healthcare student perpetuates the myth that men are naturally more capable of handling pain than women despite the fact that there is no real evidence or reason to back this up.

a)

Bias

b)

Prejudice

c)

Stereotyping

d)

Discrimination

40.

Which of the following would be considered a breach of confidentiality?

a)

Discussing a patients treatment options with a physician friend over lunch

b)

Discussing a patients records with approved family members

c)

Discussing a minors lab results with his/her parents

d)

Discussing a patients biopsy results with his/her attending nurse

41.

What is the main difference between the terms "prejudice" and "discrimination?"

a)

Prejudice is an action that prevents rights of others; discrimination is an emotion/ attitude

b)

Prejudice is an emotion/attitude; discrimination is an action that prevents rights of others

c)

Prejudice is not related to bias

d)

Discrimination is not related to bias

42.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the term "bias?"

a)

Bias is subconscious

b)

Some people naturally lack biases

c)

Bias is based on personal experience

d)

Bias allows healthcare providers to practice more effectively

43.

Which act added a legal standing for provider-to-patient confidentiality?

a)

OBRA

b)

HIPAA

c)

IPA

d)

HMNISFFTEAITMSFASD

44.

Who provided the world with the first "immortal" cells, despite his/her family not knowing?

a)

Dr. Henry Shaw

b)

Tsai Fan-Yu

c)

Terri Schiavo

d)

Henrietta Lacks

45.

What is the definition of the term "Ethics?"

a)

A set of beliefs about what is right or wrong

b)

Rules that govern a society

c)

A set of rules each healthcare provider must observe in order to retain their licenses

d)

Ethics (stylized to ETH/X) is the antagonist group from the upcoming "KPOP Demon Hunters 2".

46.

Which adolescent developmental theory refers to the belief that one's thoughts are unique, and that no one has previously experienced these thoughts?

a)

Theory of invincibility

b)

Personal Fable

c)

Self- Individualism

d)

Narcissism

47.

A protein consists of ____ amino acids.

a)

22

b)

12

c)

28

d)

30

48.

Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

K

49.

Which of the following items is considered a micronutrient?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fats

c)

Vitamins

d)

Proteins

50.

Which of these macronutrients are used as the building blocks for muscle and other structures, such as the brain, liver, and skin?

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Vitamins

51.

Which of these is not one of the main factors that contribute to good health?

a)

Sufficient sleep

b)

Setting goals

c)

Posture

d)

Healthy diet

52.

Which of the following is a built-in defense mechanism that causes our body to

experience physiological changes, including increased heart rate, that enables us to

rapidly defend ourselves from perceived danger?

a)

React or retreat

b)

Survival or death

c)

Fleeing or evading

d)

Fight or Flight

53.

Which of these physical symptoms DO NOT occur due to lack of sleep?

a)

Cancer

b)

Hypertension

c)

Poor Memory

d)

Depression

54.

What is the name of the hormone that initiates the fight or flight response?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Serotonin

d)

Oxytocin

55.

Which of the following is an example of an external stressor?

a)

Loss of a job

b)

Negative thoughts

c)

Heart attack

d)

Fear of public speaking

56.

Which of the following is a physical change that occurs when a stressor causes the body to go into a state of alarm or warning mode?

a)

Increased saliva production in the mouth

b)

Movement in the digestive track increasing to speed up digestion of food

c)

Pupils in the eyes dilating to improve vision

d)

Blood vessels constriction and decreasing circulation to the heart and brain

57.

Which of these is NOT a physical symptom of continual stress?

a)

Depression

b)

Cancer

c)

Migraines

d)

Hypertension

58.

Which of the following is a step in the 4-Step Plan?

a)

Stop

b)

Collaborate

c)

Listen

d)

Repeat

59.

Which of these stress management strategies should be used if you are in control of your emotions?

a)

RICE method

b)

Fight or Flight

c)

4-Step plan

d)

Problem Solving

60.

________ always initiates stress.

a)

School

b)

Change

c)

Exercise

d)

Life

61.

Jennifer is a 16 year old who comes into clinic complaining of memory loss.  She is a the captain of her soccer team and typically makes great grades, though she does have to stay up late studying due to her schedule.  She keeps a clean, nutritious diet and makes sure to wake up at 5:00AM every day before school to get a run in.

Which of the following is the most probable cause of Jennifer's memory loss?

a)

Lack a protein a diet

b)

Lack of carbohydrates in the morning

c)

Lack of sleep

d)

Over exertion due to exercise

62.

Jennifer is a 16 year old who comes into clinic complaining of memory loss.  She is a the captain of her soccer team and typically makes great grades, though she does have to stay up late studying due to her schedule.  She keeps a clean, nutritious diet and makes sure to wake up at 5:00AM every day before school to get a run in.

After giving Jennifer advice in the previous question, Jennifer says she'll be fine and that "nothing bad is going to happen."  Jennifer is demonstrating _________.

a)

Invincibility Theory

b)

Personal Fable Theory

c)

Narcissism

d)

Fight or Flight response

63.


Darius comes into clinic complaining of chest pains. He states that he has a diet rich in proteins, however upon further questioning, he states this mostly comes from burgers/red meat.  He states he walks once per week as his job has many time demands and this is "the only time he gets to himself to clear his head."

Which of these is a likely cause for Darius' chest pains?

a)

High cholesterol diet

b)

Continual stress

c)

Lack of exercise

d)

All of the above

64.

Darius comes into clinic complaining of chest pains. He states that he has a diet rich in proteins, however upon further questioning, he states this mostly comes from burgers/red meat.  He states he walks once per week as his job has many time demands and this is "the only time he gets to himself to clear his head."

How much exercise should Darius be getting weekly?

a)

20 minutes per day, 5 days a week

b)

20 minutes per day, 3 times a week

c)

30 minutes per day, 5 days a week

d)

30 minutes per day, 3 times a week

65.

Darius comes into clinic complaining of chest pains. He states that he has a diet rich in proteins, however upon further questioning, he states this mostly comes from burgers/red meat.  He states he walks once per week as his job has many time demands and this is "the only time he gets to himself to clear his head."

You've determined that Darius is a very stressed individual.  Which one of his current stressors is an external stressor?

a)

His poor nutrition

b)

His demanding job

c)

His lack of motivation to exercise

d)

His chest pains

66.

Which class of fire extinguisher is associated with fires caused by liquids?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

67.

While walking through the clinic, Physician Assistant Cindy notices a small fire has started in a patient's room. She immediately runs to the pull station to activate the fire alarm.  Has Cindy reacted properly?

a)

Yes, she must immediately pull the fire alarm as it takes time for the firefighters to respond

b)

Yes, this will activate the sprinkler system to put out the fire

c)

No, she must manually dial the emergency services to get a response

d)

No, Cindy must remove the patient from the room before doing anything else

68.

What three things are needed to start a fire?

a)

Fuel, heat, and oxygen

b)

Oxygen, hydrogen, fuel

c)

Spark, oxygen, matches

d)

Flammable material, oxygen, wood

69.

What does the first "S" stand for in the acronym PASS?

a)

Sweep side to side

b)

Squeeze handle

c)

Secure patient

d)

Slay queen

70.

Which of these parts of a fire extinguisher would one check to see whether it is full or empty?

a)

Inspection Tag

b)

Tank

c)

Gauge/Indicator

d)

Pin

71.

Where should you be positioned when fighting a fire?

a)

As close to the fire as possible to ensure extinguishing

b)

With your back to the exit

c)

Outside the room, spraying fire extinguisher from the hallway

d)

Facing the exit with your back to the fire

72.

Which of the following statements is true about fighting fires?

a)

If fire is quickly extinguished, there is no need to call the fire department

b)

Prop open fire doors in order to allow for quick exit

c)

you are not obligated to fight a fire

d)

In event of emergency, patients can help douse flames if needed

73.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the fire extinguishing process?

a)

Pull the pin

b)

Activate the alarm

c)

Squeeze the handle

d)

Sweep side to side

74.

In the acronym RACE, which letter stands for 2 different actions depending on the situation?

a)

R- Rescue or Run

b)

R- Rescue or Remain

c)

E- Escape or Evacuate

d)

E- Evacuate or Extinguish

75.

Javier performs a monthly check of the clinic's fire extinguisher and finds that it is in working order.  How should he document this?

a)

Document this in a fire log

b)

Inform his supervisor

c)

Mark this on the inspection tag

d)

Mark this on the label

76.

Why is it important to aim a fire extinguisher at the base of a fire?

a)

The fire is hottest at the base

b)

The fuel source is at the base

c)

To prevent the fire from spreading

d)

You don't aim at the base- aim at the middle of the fire instead

77.

Dr. Hogan notices that a wire to her X-Ray machine has been frayed and exposed.  What is the FIRST thing Dr. Hogan should do?

a)

Put it away in storage

b)

Read the instruction manual for the machine

c)

Attempt to repair it herself

d)

Report it immediately

78.

In healthcare, when should one be wearing safety glasses?

a)

At all times when in a patients's room

b)

When using electrical equipment

c)

When handling food or nutrition

d)

During procedures involving splashing bodily fluids

79.

Which PPE is most appropriate for a MRSA patient under contact precautions?

a)

Safety Glasses

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

Gloves

80.

Hermione is entering a room with an influenza patient under droplet precautions.  Which set of PPE should she wear?

a)

Hair net, safety glasses, mask, gown, and gloves

b)

Safety glasses, mask, and show covers

c)

Mask, safety glasses, gown, and gloves

d)

Gloves only

81.

Which of the following is a CORRECT body mechanic for lifting objects?

a)

Never push or pull an object in case of damage

b)

Use the body's strongest muscles

c)

Lift in a twisting motion

d)

Bend at the waist properly

82.

Franklin is tasked with moving a 150lb crate of empty oxygen tanks to a storage room.  Which of these tips would BEST help protect him from injury?

a)

Try to push or pull the crate before attempting to lift it

b)

Utilize the back muscles in lifting

c)

Stand with a narrow base when sliding the crate

d)

Use a gait belt to get a better grip on the crate

83.

In inches, how far apart should a worker’s feet be to maintain a broad base of support?

a)

3-5 Inches

b)

5-7 Inches

c)

8-10 Inches

d)

12 Inches

84.

Your patient needs to be taken to radiology for an X-Ray.  Unfortunately, that patient is 400lbs and cannot put any weight on his feet.  Additionally, all coworkers are occupied with their own patients.  What is the BEST course of action to transport this patient?

a)

Transfer the patient using a mechanical lift

b)

Use a gait belt to transfer the patient

c)

Lift the patient by bending hips and knees

d)

Nothing - this patient is unmovable until help arrives

85.

Which of the following is NOT a rule of proper body mechanics when lifting?

a)

Maintain a broad base of support

b)

Bend at the waist when picking up objects

c)

Utilize your strongest muscles- shoulders, arms, hips, and thighs

d)

Avoid bending for extended periods of time