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Worksheets

chem final

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The big bang theory is an example of a scientific theory. This means that it is: 

a)

An educated guess on the origin of the universe 

b)

Speculation on the origin of the universe 

c)

A mathematical model or equation that predicts how things behave in the universe

d)

The best available explanation for the origin of the universe, based on experiments, 

observations, and mathematical models

2.

You decide to burn a couch over the weekend in celebration of the local sports team, and reduce an old couch to ashes. Which of the following statements is true? 

a)

The total amount of matter in the universe decreased after you burned the couch 

b)

The total amount of matter in the universe increased after you burned the couch 

c)

The total amount of matter in the universe is the same before and after you burn the couch

d)

You are unable to make a prediction about the total amount of matter in the universe 

without weighing the ashes of the burned couch 

3.

When you roll a ball down a hill, the ball gains kinetic energy. Which of the following statements is true? 

a)

The total amount of energy in the universe decreased after you rolled the ball down the hill

b)

The total amount of energy in the universe increased after you rolled the ball down the hill

c)

The total amount of energy in the universe stays the same after you rolled the ball down the hill 

d)

You are unable to make a prediction about the total amount of energy in the universe 

without measuring the speed of the ball before and after rolling down the hill 

4.

Coulomb's law states that two electrically charged objects will feel an attractive or repulsive force between them proportional to the amount charge they have and the distance between them. Why is this considered a scientific law and not a theory?

a)

This equation describes what will happen in a particular situation, but doesn't explain how 

or why it occurs 

b)

This equation explains why or how a phenomena occurs, but doesn't describe what will 

happen in a particular situation 

c)

This equation has not yet been tested enough to make it a scientific theory

d)

This relationship is just a guess

5.

Two similarly charged objects are placed next to each other so that they are touching. 

What will they tend to do?

a)

repel

b)

attract

c)

no change

6.

Two opposite are placed next to each other so that they are touching. What will they tend to do?

a)

repel

b)

attract

c)

no change

7.

As the distance between two charges increases, the force between them will 

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

8.

Two negatively charged objects approach each other. As the objects approach each other, the kinetic energy of the objects: 

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

9.

As the objects approach each other, the potential energy of the objects:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

10.

As the objects approach each other, the total energy of the objects:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

11.

Which of the following statements are true for all neutral atoms of an element. 

  1. 1. The number of protons in the element is always the same

  2. 2. The number of electrons in the element is always the same

  3. 2. The number of neutrons in the element is always the same  

a)

1, 2, and 3 are true

b)

only 1 and 2 are true

c)

only 2 and 3 are true

d)

only 1 and 3 are true

12.

Which of the following represents a pair of atoms with the same atomic number but a different number of neutrons

a)

Carbon-11 and Carbon-12 

b)

Fluorine-19 and Fluorine-19 

c)

Oxygen-16 and Sulfur-16

d)

Krypton-40 and Argon-40

13.

An element's identity is based on its

a)

Atomic mass

b)

Atomic number

c)

Mass number

d)

number of neutrons

14.

The nucleus is a small dense region of the atom that contains which of the following:

  1. 1. protons

  2. 2. neutrons

  3. 3. electrons

a)

only 1, 2, 3 are true

b)

only 1, 2 are true

c)

only 2, 3 are true

d)

only 1, 3 are true

15.

Which of the following can be considered isotopes of each other?

  1. 1. Aluminum-26 

2. Iron-56 

3. Iron-55

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

16.

student measures 0.5 mL of sodium carbonate solution. What is this volume expressed in microliters (μL)?

a)

0.0050 μL

b)

0.050 μL

c)

0.50 μL

d)

500 μL

17.

which one is high precision, low accuracy?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

18.

How many centimeters are in 351 km? 

a)

35, 100

b)

35, 100, 000

c)

3.51 * 10-7

d)

0.00000351

19.

assuming 1 calorie = 4.184 J, how many joules of energy are in a 185 kilocalorie muffin

a)

1.85*103

b)

4.42*103

c)

4.42*104

d)

7.7404*105

20.

convert the following into scientific notation

56, 190, 000

a)

56.19*10-6

b)

56.19*10-7

c)

56.19*106

d)

5.619*107

21.

convert the following into standard notation

1.97 * 10-4

a)

19,700

b)

0.00197

c)

0.000197

d)

1,970

22.

The density of object A is 4.0 g/cm3 and the density of object is B 7.4 g/cm3. Which of the following statements are true about the objects? 

a)

Object A and object B have the same volume

b)

Object A and object B have the same mass

c)

If samples of object A and object B have the same volume, then object b will have more mass

d)

If samples of object A and object B have the same volume, then object a will have more mas

23.

Which of the following statements is true about density?

a)

The density of an object changes as you make it smaller

b)

Density is the ratio of an object's volume to its mass

c)

Density is the ratio of an object's mass to its volume

d)

The density of the object increases as you make it larger

24.

Figure 1 describes the number of protons and neutrons necessary for a nucleus to be stable. Which 

the following statements are the most correct? 

1: Stable elements generally have more protons than neutrons 

2: Stable elements generally have more neutrons than protons

3: As the mass of an atom increases, more neutrons are required per proton to compose a stable nucleus 

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1, 2, and 3

d)

1 and 3

25.

elements heavier than Helium and lighter than carbon can best be described as the immediate 

result of

a)

Formation of elements during the big bang

b)

Formed on earth by scientists using particle colliders

c)

Formed by fusion in stars during the main sequence of their life

d)

Formed by fusion in stars during the red giant phase 

26.

Fission is most likely to occur in elements with mass numbers

a)

less than 10

b)

less than 40

c)

between 40-80

d)

greater than 80

27.

The theoretical endpoint of stellar fusion reactions is which of the following elements? 

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

iron

d)

uranium

28.

The main fuel of main sequence 

stars is mostly which of the following elements?

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

c)

Beryllium

d)

carbon

29.

Why does helium fusion not occur 

in main phase stars?

a)

No helium is present in main phase stars

b)

Hydrogen outcompetes helium in star enzymes, reducing the rate of helium fusion

c)

Temperatures in main phase stars are too low for helium nuclei to overcome the coulomb barrier

d)

The strong nuclear force prevents helium fusion from occurring in the low pressure environment of main phase stars

30.

A supernova is an extremely energetic event that occurs at the end of the life cycles for high mass stars. A supernova results in extremely high temperatures and pressures - where a normal star has normal core temperatures of 4* 106 °C, a supernova can result in temperatures of up to 1 *1011 °C. Which of the following is most likely to occur during a supernova that doesn't normally occur in stars? 

a)

Fission of nuclei lighter than iron

b)

Fission of nuclei lighter than uranium

c)

Fusion of nuclei heavier than hydrogen

d)

Fusion nuclei heavier than silicon 

31.

What is the best explanation for why the Deuterium Helium-3 reaction has twice the required temperature compared to the deuterium tritium reaction? 

a)

The total mass involved in the deuterium-helium reaction is greater than the deuterium tritium reaction, increasing the effect of the strong nuclear force. 

b)

The charge of the helium nucleus is twice that of the tritium nucleus, increasing the repulsive force between the nuclei and making the Coulomb barrier harder to overcome 

c)

The product of the deuterium-helium reaction is helium-4, which is twice as stable as the helium-3 nucleus and requires more energy to make 

d)

The total mass involved in the deuterium-helium reaction is greater than the deuterium tritium reaction, decreasing the effect of the strong nuclear force 

32.

The half life of carbon-14 is about 5.7* 103 years, while the half life of uranium-238 is 4.5 * 109 years. Which element would you describe as having a faster rate of decay? 

a)

Carbon-14 

b)

Uranium-238 

c)

They are the same

d)

Not enough information

33.

If the half-life of uranium-235 is 7.05 x 108 years and 12.5 g of uranium-235 remain after 2.82 x 109 years, how much of the radioactive isotope was in the original sample?

a)

0.78 g

b)

1.57 g

c)

100 g

d)

200 g

34.

Which of the following is the best description of what a half-life is?

a)

The time it takes for half of a sample to become antimatter

b)

Half the time it takes for a sample to undergo radioactive decay

c)

The time it takes for half of a sample to iron or lead 

d)

The time it takes for half of a sample to undergo radioactive decay

35.

Which statement best describes how the half-life provides information on nuclei stability?

a)

Nuclei with a shorter half-life are more stable because they undergo radioactive decay sooner

b)

There is no correlation between half-life and nuclei stability 

c)

Nuclei with a longer half-life are more stable than nuclei with shorter half-life

d)

Nuclei stability depends on the half-life for all decay products of a nuclei 

36.

Which of the following statements are true for all neutral atoms of an element. 

I. The number of neutrons in the element is always the same 

II. The number of protons in the element is always the same 

III. The number of electrons in the element is always the same

a)

l, ll, ll are all true

b)

l, ll are true

c)

ll, lll are true

d)

l, lll are true

37.

Assuming that 1 calorie = 4.184 J, how many joules of energy are in a 426 kilocalorie muffin?

a)

1.78 * 105 Joules 

b)

1.78 * 106 Joules 

c)

1.02* 105 Joules 

d)

1.02* 106 Joules 

38.

Properly writing and balancing a nuclear equation requires keeping the mass conserved (balanced) on each side of the equation. Which description best explains why this is required? 

a)

Balancing the mass makes sure all atoms are present 

 

b)

Balancing the mass shows where the new mass was created

c)

The law of conservation of mass states mass is not created or destroyed in a reaction

d)

The law of conservation of mass states mass can only be created in a reaction 

39.

The Bohr model primarily differs from the Rutherford model in that it

a)

places electrons outside the nucleus

b)

places electrons on discrete and specific energy levels

c)

indicates that electrons have negative charge

d)

places protons in the nucleus 

40.

The potential energy of an electron is quantized, meaning that it

a)

Is measurable

b)

Is a gradient

c)

It can be described using a number 

d)

It can only be certain, discrete amounts, instead of being a gradient 

41.

Which of the following statements describing electron energy levels is correct?

a)

Electrons in energy levels further from the nucleus have more potential energy 

b)

Electrons in energy levels closer to the nucleus have more potential energy 

c)

There is no correlation between energy levels and electron potential energy 

d)

Electrons in all energy levels have identical energy

42.

If the first energy level currently contains 2 electrons, how many more could it hold

a)

4

b)

6

c)

0

d)

1

43.

How does an excited state electron configuration differ from the ground state electron configuration?

a)

The excited state contains more electrons 

b)

The ground state has more than two electrons in an orbital 

c)

Excited electrons occupy orbitals with higher energy than the lowest energy orbital available

d)

The spin of excited electrons is always up 

44.

How many valence electrons does fluorine (F) have?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

17

d)

9

45.

How many valence electrons does calcium (Ca) have?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

20

46.

The maximum number of valence electrons for energy levels higher than 1 is

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

2

47.

Hydrogen has four spectral lines in the visible spectrum. The shortest wavelength of these is 410 nm, and the longest wavelength is 656-nm. 

Each line on the emission spectrum is caused by

a)

Radiation from nuclear decay

b)

An energized electron falling to a lower energy level and releasing energy as light 

c)

Atoms reflecting only certain colors of light from outside sources

d)

Fusion reactions releasing radiation

48.

The reason different elements have different emission spectra is because

a)

Different elements have different numbers of neutrons and electrons 

b)

Emission spectra are caused by different numbers of protons in the nucleus 

c)

Light travels at different speeds depending on the color

d)

Different elements have different numbers of protons and electrons

49.

The reason that emission spectra are distinct lines instead of gradients is because

a)

There aren't enough atoms of the element in the tube to see all the lines There aren't enough atoms of the element in the tube to see all the lines 

b)

The rest of the gradient is outside of visual range 

c)

Electron energy is quantized, meaning that it can only be released in certain, discrete 

amounts 

d)

There isn't enough potential energy to create the whole rainbow 

50.

If more lines are observed on an emission spectrum, that means that

a)

Electrons are being totally stripped from the atom 

b)

More energy transitions are present in that element 

c)

Less energy transitions are present in that element 

d)

Enough energy is being applied to the atom to induce beta decay 

51.

A single particle of light is known as a

a)

Photon

b)

Planck 

c)

Quantum

d)

Quark 

52.

The amount of energy in light emitted from an atom is directly related to

a)

The difference in energy levels from the excited state to the ground state

b)

The amount of electrons in the atom 

c)

The mass of the atom 

d)

The number of neutrons in the nucleus 

53.

Coulomb's law describes the force between any two charges, including protons and electrons. Which factor is the most important for determining the size of the force on a valence electron?

a)

Number of electrons

b)

The constant 

c)

Distance between charges (number of energy levels)  

d)

Number of protons

54.

According to Coulomb's law, valence electrons in which of the following atoms will feel the greatest force from the nucleus?

a)

Aluminum 

b)

Silicon 

c)

Gallium 

d)

Indium

55.

Strontium has valence electrons in which energy level?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

56.

Elements on the periodic table with the same number of valence electrons but a different number of energy levels are known as a

a)

Group

b)

Actinide 

c)

Lanthanide 

d)

Period

57.

Elements on the periodic table with the same number of energy levels but a different number of valence electrons are known as a

a)

Group

b)

Actinide 

c)

Lanthanide 

d)

Period

58.

Arrange Carbon, Nitrogen, and Oxygen in order of increasing (lowest to highest) 

electronegativity

a)

Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen 

b)

Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon 

c)

Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen 

d)

Nitrogen, Carbon, Oxygen

59.

Arrange Lithium, Beryllium, and Sodium in order of increasing (lowest to highest) atomic radius

a)

Beryllium, lithium, sodium 

b)

Sodium, Beryllium, lithium 

c)

Lithium, beryllium, sodium

d)

Sodium, lithium, beryllium 

60.

One positively charged and one negatively charged particle approach each other

As the particles get closer, the kinetic energy of the objects: 

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

61.

One positively charged and one negatively charged particle approach each other

As the particles get closer, the potential energy of the objects: 

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

62.

You decide to celebrate after taking a chemistry test by baking brownies for yourself. You decide to weigh your ingredients and discover that while you used 500 grams of ingredients, yo only produced 400 grams of brownies. Which of the following statements best describes the amount of matter in this situation? 

a)

The total amount of matter in the universe decreased after you baked the brownies

b)

The total amount of matter in the universe increased after you baked the brownies

c)

The total amount of matter in the universe is the same before and after you baked the brownies 

d)

You are unable to make a prediction about the total amount of matter in the universe without capturing all of the steam rising off the brownies

63.

n electron is initially excited, but jumps down to a lower energy level and releases light. Which statement about the energy in the universe is most correct? 

a)

The total amount of energy in the universe decreased after the electron released light

b)

The total amount of energy in the universe increased after the electron released light

c)

The total amount of energy in the universe stays the same after the electron released light

d)

You are unable to make a prediction about the total amount of energy in the universe without measuring the wavelength of light released 

64.

ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is a test site in France where scientists and engineers are attempting to harness the power of fusion for our energy needs. Questions 38-39 have to do with current fusion reactors. 

The fusion reaction that scientists are using in ITER is a deuterium (hydrogen-2)-tritium (hydrogen-3) fusion reaction. Which of the following statements best describes this reaction?

a)

This reaction will produce a two hydrogen nuclei and energy 

b)

This reaction will produce a nucleus with lesser atomic number than hydrogen and energy

c)

This reaction will produce a nucleus with greater atomic number than hydrogen and energy

d)

This reaction will produce a nucleus with lesser atomic number than hydrogen

65.

The primary problem that scientists and engineers need to solve to make fusion viable has to do with Coulomb's law. Which of the following best describes this problem? 

a)

Like charges repel each other, so it is difficult to get two nuclei to collide. 

b)

Opposite charges attract, so it is difficult to prevent two nuclei from colliding. 

c)

As two nuclei approach each other, the repulsive force between them increases exponentially. This makes it difficult to get two nuclei to collide. 

d)

As two nuclei approach each other, the attractive force between them increases exponentially. This makes it difficult to prevent two nuclei from colliding. 

66.

Ionic compounds are composed of a 

a)

Metal and Metal 

b)

Metal and Semi-Metal 

c)

Non-metal and Non-Metal 

d)

Metal and Non-Metal

67.

Covalent compounds are composed of 

a)

Metal and Metal 

b)

Metal and Semi-Metal 

c)

Non-metal and Non-Metal 

d)

Metal and Non-Metal

68.

Ionic compounds are typically formed between atoms with 

a)

A small difference in electronegativities

b)

A moderate difference in electronegativites 

c)

A large difference in electronegativites 

d)

Electronegativity is not involved in ionic bonds

69.

Polar covalent and nonpolar covalent bonds differ because 

a)

Polar bonds involve the sharing of electrons while nonpolar bonds involve the transfer of electrons

b)

Nonpolar bonds involve the sharing of electrons while polar bonds involve the transfer of electrons 

c)

Nonpolar bonds are stronger than covalent bonds 

d)

Polar bonds cause a partial separation of charges while nonpolar bonds do not

70.

Magnesium bromide is an ionic compound with the chemical formula MgBr2. What does the "2" tell you?

a)

Bromide has a 2- charge

b)

There are two magnesium ions to every bromide ion 

c)

There are two bromide ions for every magnesium ion

d)

Bromide has a 2+ charge

71.

determine if the molecule is polar, nonpolar, ionic, or metallic

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

72.

determine if the molecule is polar, nonpolar, ionic, or metallic

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

73.

determine the correct charge for the identified atom

H in ethanol

a)

 Full negative charge 

b)

Full positive charge 

c)

Partial negative charge 

d)

Partial positive charge 

74.

determine the correct molecular geometry for the given compound

PH3

a)

bent

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

linear

d)

trigonal planar

75.

determine the correct molecular geometry for the given compound

SiCL4

a)

bent

b)

square pyramidal

c)

tetrahedral

d)

trigonal planar

76.

determine the correct molecular geometry for the given compound

SCl2

a)

bent

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

linear

d)

trigonal planar

77.

determine the correct molecular geometry for the given compound

N2

a)

linear

b)

bent

c)

trigonal pyramidal

d)

trigonal planar

78.

determine the correct molecular geometry for the given compound

BF3

a)

tetrahedral

b)

bent

c)

trigonal pyramidal

d)

trigonal planar

79.

Atoms that lose their electrons to form an octet are known as 

a)

anions

b)

cations

c)

isotopes

d)

noble gases

80.

Atoms that gain their electrons to form an octet are known as 

a)

anions

b)

cations

c)

isotopes

d)

noble gases

81.

Ionic compounds are normally

a)

Good conductors of electricity in the solid state 

b)

Gases at room temperature 

c)

Formed when a metal transfers its valence electrons to a nonmetal

d)

Electrically charged

82.

How many pairs of shared and unshared electrons does the Lewis dot structure for Ammonia, NH3, have? 

a)

4, 0

b)

3, 1

c)

2, 2

d)

4, 4

83.

In a double bond between two atoms, the number of shared electrons is

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

84.

In the compound ammonia, NH3,

a)

Each hydrogen has a partial negative charge

b)

The nitrogen has a full positive charge 

c)

The NH bond is an ionic bond 

d)

The Lewis structure will have one pair of unshared electrons

85.

Which of the following bonds would be considered completely nonpolar?

a)

H-N

b)

O-O

c)

O-C

d)

F-Cl

86.

Which of the following is the correct lewis dot structure for nitride ion? 

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

87.

what bond will form between carbon and hydrogen

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

intermolecular covalent

88.

what bond will form between sodium and fluorine

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

intermolecular covalent

89.

select the name or formula for the given compound

SO4

a)

sulfur oxide

b)

sulfur (II) oxide

c)

sulfur tetraoxide

d)

sulfate

90.

select the name or formula for the given compound

N2O5

a)

nitrogen oxide

b)

nitrogen (II) oxide

c)

nitrogen heptaoxide

d)

dinitrogen pentaoxide

91.

select the name or formula for the given compound

tricarbon hexahydride

a)

C3H7

b)

CH3

c)

C3H6

d)

CH6

92.

select the name or formula for the given compound

Li3PO4

a)

lithium (III) phosphide

b)

lithium phosphate

c)

trilithium phosphide

d)

lithium phosphide

93.

select the name or formula for the given compound

Li3P

a)

lithium (III) phosphide

b)

lithium phosphate

c)

trilithium phosphide

d)

lithium phosphide

94.

select the name or formula for the given compound

Fe(O2)2

a)

iron (II) oxide

b)

iron (IV) peroxide

c)

iron (IV) oxide

d)

iron (II) hydroxide

95.

The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in lead-208

a)

P=82, N=208, E=82

b)

P=82, N=82, E=208

c)

P=82, N=82, E=1126

d)

P=82, N=126, E=82

96.

How many valence electrons does sulfur have? 

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

16