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AP Chemistry Fall Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The average atomic mass rhenium, Re, is 186.21 amu. If 37.1% of rhenium has mass# = 185, what is the other stable isotope?
a)
Rhenium-183
b)
Rhenium-181
c)
Rhenium-187
d)
Rhenium-189
2.
What is the empirical formula if you have 36.84% nitrogen and 63.16% oxygen?
a)
NO
b)
N2O3
c)
N2O4
d)
N2O5
3.

A 5.00 g sample of a compound consisting of calcium and chlorine contains 1.82 g of calcium and 3.23 g of chlorine. What is the empirical formula?

a)

CaCl2

b)

Ca2Cl4

c)

Ca2Cl2

d)

Ca4Cl2

4.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6O3 and C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
5.
What is the molecular formula if the empirical formula is C2H5 and the molecular molar mass is 58.14 g/mol?
a)
C2H5
b)
C4H10
c)
C1H2.5
d)
C4H8
6.
Which of the following properties uniquely identifies every element?
a)
Number of valence electrons
b)
Phase at room temperature
c)
Number of protons
d)
Charge of the atom
7.
Which element would have similar properties to Sulfur?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Flourine
d)
Chlorine
8.

When hafnium metal is heated in an atmosphere of chlorine gas, the product of the reaction is found to contain 62.2 percent Hf by mass and 37.4 percent Cl mass. What is the empirical formula for this compound?

a)

HfCl

b)

HfCl2

c)

HfCl3

d)

HfCl4

e)

Hf2Cl3

9.

Which of these elements would have the same number of PES peaks as Fluorine?

a)

Neon

b)

Beryllium

c)

Sodium

d)

Chlorine

10.

The PES spectrum below is for the element _______________.

a)

O

b)

Ne

c)

N

d)

F

11.

Examine the spectrum below. Where would you expect the 2p peak for F be if it were on the same spectrum?

a)

To the left of the peak at 3.04

b)

To the right of the peak at 3.04

c)

To the left of the peak at 1.31

d)

To the right of the peak at 1.31

12.

What does the 4th peak from the left represent?

a)

The 2s electrons

b)

The 3d electrons

c)

The 2p electrons

d)

The 3s electrons

13.

Which peak (or peaks) correspond to the valence electrons?

a)

The peak at 1

b)

The peaks at 1 and 2.05

c)

The peak at 239

d)

The peaks at 239 and 22.7

14.
What are the steps of operation in the mass spectrometer?
a)
Accelerate, Deflect,Ionize, Detect
b)
Deflect,Ionize, Accelerate, Detect
c)
Ionize, Accelerate, Deflect, Detect
d)
Detect, Accelerate, Deflect, Ionize
15.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
16.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
17.
How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?
a)
1
b)
84
c)
86
d)
4
18.
Carbon has three known isotopes. Which is the most abundant?
a)
carbon-12.011
b)
carbon-12
c)
carbon-13
d)
carbon-14
19.
What is the average atomic mass for this element?
a)
10 amu
b)
10.8 amu
c)
19.9 amu
d)
11 amu
20.
Use your periodic table.  There are two isotopes of rubidium: 85Rb and 87 Rb. Which is more abundant?
a)
equally abundant
b)
rubidium-85
c)
rubidium-85.47
d)
rubidium-87
21.

The Lewis structure of the CO32- ion is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
22.

In the nitrite ion (NO2-), __________.

a)

both bonds are single bonds

b)

both bonds are double bonds

c)

both bonds are the same because of resonance

d)

there are 20 valence electrons

e)

there is one single and one double bond

23.

The formal charge on carbon in the molecule shown is _______.

a)

0

b)

+1

c)

+2

d)

+3

e)

-1

24.
The electronegativity of C is 2.5, F is 4.0.  predict the character of a C-F bond.
a)
polar covalent
b)
nonpolar covalent
c)
ionic
d)
metallic
25.

Choose the correct shape for H2S

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Bent

d)

Trigonal planar

26.
The following molecules all contain polar bonds however only one is a polar molecule.  Which one?
a)
CCl4
b)
CO2
c)
NH3
d)
CH4
27.
Determine the electron geometry (eg) and molecular geometry (mg) of XeF4 (Lewis structure is shown) .
a)
eg = tetrahedral, mg = tetrahedral
b)
eg = linear, mg = linear
c)
eg = octahedral, mg = square planar
d)
eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = tetrahedral
28.
What is the VSPER shape of PCl5
a)
See-saw
b)
trigonal planar
c)
octahedral
d)
trigonal bipyramidal
29.
The interaction energy of two hydrogen atoms is shown on the graph above. Which of the answer choices displayed on the graph best represents the bond length of the H2 molecule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
30.
Pi bonds are formed by 
a)
side to side overlap of s orbitals
b)
end to end overlap of s orbitals
c)
side to side overlap of p orbitals
d)
end to end overlap of p orbitals
31.
This structure is called...
a)
tetrahedral
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Seesaw
d)
Bent/Angular
32.

The carbon atom undergoes what type of hybridization?

a)

sp hybridization

b)

sp2 hybridization

c)

sp3 hybridization

d)

dsp3 hybridization

33.

The nitrogen atom undergoes what type of hybridization?

a)

sp hybridization

b)

sp2 hybridization

c)

sp3 hybridization

d)

dsp3 hybridization

34.

Which best describes the bonding in the cyanide ion (CN-)?

a)

3 (sigma) bonds

b)

2 (sigma) bonds and I (pi) bond

c)

1 (sigma) bond and 2 (pi) bonds

d)

3 (pi) bonds

35.

Which of these alloys is a substitutional alloy?

a)

Bronze

b)

Steel

36.

The melting point of MgO is higher than that of NaF. Which of the following best explains this observation?

a)

O2- is more negatively charged than F-

b)

Mg2+ is more positively charged than Na+

c)

The O2- ion is smaller than the F- ion

d)

Mg2+ is more positively charged than Na+ and O2- is more negatively charged than F-

37.

How would coulombic forces affect physical properties of a molecule such as boiling (BP) and melting point(MP)?

a)

Higher coulombic forces would lead to lower BP and MP

b)

Higher coulombic forces would lead to higher BP and MP

c)

Higher coulombic forces would lead to higher BP ,but a lower MP

d)

Lower coulombic forces would lead to higher BP and MP

38.
What is the measure of a tetrahedral bond angle?
a)
90 Degrees
b)
109.5 Degrees
c)
120 Degrees
d)
180 Degrees
39.

Steel is an alloy containing Fe atoms and C atoms. Which of the following diagrams best represents the particle-level structure of steel?

a)
b)
c)
d)
40.

Which of the following molecules has the shortest bond length?

a)

N2

b)

O2

c)

Cl2

d)

Br2

e)

I2

41.

Which of the following probably has the highest solubility in hexane, C6H14?

a)

Metals

b)

Polar covalent molecules

c)

Ionic compounds

d)

Nonpolar covalent molecules

42.

Of the following molecules, which is the most polar?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

O2

d)

HF

e)

F2

43.

Which of the following has the lowest melting point?

a)

Zn

b)

SiO2

c)

CaCl2

d)

C2H6

44.

Which of the following is most likely to be soluble in water?

a)

NaF

b)

C12H22O

c)

Mn

d)

Cl2

45.
Intermolecular force present in HCl?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
46.
Type of intermolecular force present in I2, Br2, and Cl2.
a)
dipole dipole
b)
H-bond
c)
dispersion
d)
metallic
47.
Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
a)
H2
b)
NH3
c)
N2
d)
O2
48.
What explains the very high melting and boiling point of water
a)
Strong dipole-dipole bonds between water molecules
b)
Strong hydrogen bonds between water molecules
c)
Dispersion forces which are present in all molecules
d)
Asymmetrical shape of the polar bonds.
49.
Which of these typically increases when intermolecular forces increase?
a)
Boiling Point
b)
Melting Point
c)
Viscosity
d)
All of these
50.

The density of an unknown gas is 2.00 grams per Liter at 3.00 atmosphere pressure and 127oC. What is the molar mass of this gas?

a)

(254/3) R

b)

188 R

c)

(800/3) R

d)

600 R

51.

A gaseous mixture containing 7.0 moles of nitrogen, 2.5 moles of oxygen, and 0.5 moles of helium exerts a total pressure of 0.90 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of the nitrogen?

a)

0.13 atm

b)

0.27 atm

c)

0.63 atm

d)

0.90 atm

52.

NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2 H2O(g)


A 0.03 mol sample of NH4NO3(s) is placed in a 1 L evacuated flask, which is then sealed and heated. The NH4NO3(s) decomposes completely according to the balanced equation above. The total pressure in the flask measured at 400 K is closest to which of the following? ( The value of the gas constant, R, is 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)

a)

3 atm

b)

1 atm

c)

0.5 atm

d)

0.1 atm

53.

Which of the following is an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?

a)

Collisions between gas particles are inelastic.

b)

Gases consist of closely spaced particles.

c)

Gas particles move around in an orderly manner.

d)

The temperature of a gas depends on the average kinetic energy of the gas particles.

54.

1. Under which conditions does a real gas behave very much like an ideal gas?

a)

high temperature and low pressure

b)

high temperature and high pressure

c)

low temperature and high pressure

d)

low temperature and low pressure

55.

1. Liquids are more ordered than gases because liquids have ?

a)

Weaker Intermolecular Forces And Lower Mobility Of The Particles

b)

stronger intermolecular forces and lower mobility of the particles.

c)

weaker intermolecular forces and greater mobility of the particles

d)

stronger intermolecular forces and greater mobility of the particles

56.

Chromatography separates mixtures based on what property?

a)

particle size

b)

intermolecular forces

c)

boiling points

d)

state of matter

57.

In paper chromatography, if water is the mobile phase, what kind of substance will move up the farthest?

a)

polar substance

b)

non polar substance

58.

Distillation separates mixtures based on differences in what property?

a)

Solubility

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Particle Size

d)

State of Matter

59.

List the 4 Intermolecular forces from weakest to strongest

a)

hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion, dipole dipole

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole

d)

dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion

60.

“More polarizable” refers to which Intermolecular Force?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

london dispersion

c)

dipole dipole

61.

What is a titration?

a)

when the moles of hydrogen ions is equal to the moles of hydroxide ions

b)

adding a known amount of solution of known concentration to determine the concentration of an unknown

c)

reaction in which an acid and a base react in an aqueous solution to produce a salt and water

d)

the extent of ionization of an acid or base

62.
In the reaction Zn + H2O → ZnO2 + H2 which element is oxidized? 
a)
Zinc
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
None
63.
A hydrogen ion, H+, is the same as a(n):
a)
neutron
b)
electron
c)
proton
d)
hydroxide ion
64.
What are the spectator ions in this reaction?
CuCl2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(s) + NaCl(aq)
 
a)
Cu2+ and OH1-
b)
Na2+ and Cl2-
c)
Na1+ and Cl1-
d)
Na1+ and OH1-
65.
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH+ H2
How many grams of hydrogen are produced if 120 g of Na are available?
a)
5.2 g
b)
2.6 g
c)
690 g
d)
45 g
66.

A Bronsted Lowry acid:

a)

donates H+ to another substance

b)

accepts H+ from another substance

c)

produces H+

d)

produces OH-

67.
Neutralization reactions
a)
formed from joining positive and negative ions 
b)
increases OH ions
c)
froms a salt and water
d)
increases H2O ions
68.
The following is what type of reaction:
PbCl2 + AgNO3 → Pb(NO3)2 + AgCl
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
69.
Is calcium oxidized or reduced in the following reaction? 
2 CaO--> 2 Ca + O2
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
70.
4NH3 + 5O2 --> 4NO + 6H2O
How many grams of NO are formed if 6.30g of ammonia react with 1.80g of oxygen? 
a)
0.37g
b)
0.045g
c)
1.35g
d)
11.1g
71.
2 NaClO3 (s) --> 2NaCl (s) +3 O2 (g)  
12.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2?
a)
256 g of O2
b)
576 g of O2
c)
288 g O2
72.

Which product in the following equation is a conjugate base?

H2O + HCl → H3O+ + Cl-

a)

Water

b)

Hydrogen chloride

c)

Hydronium

d)

Chloride

73.
Theoretical yield = 73g
Actual yield = 62g
Calculate the percent yield.
a)
1.16%
b)
116%
c)
85%
d)
76%
74.
What type of chemical reaction is this?
Al(OH)3 → Al2O3  + H2O
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
75.

In the equation below, what is the Bronsted Lowry base (accepts H+)?

HCl + NH3 → Cl- + NH4+

a)

HCl

b)

NH3

c)

Cl-

d)

NH4+

76.
In the reaction
2Ca(s) + O2(g) → 2CaO(s), calcium is...
a)
Reduced
b)
Synthesized
c)
Oxidized
d)
None of the above
77.

30mL of NaOH is neutralised by 12.3mL of 0.2mol/l HCl. What is the concentration of the NaOH.

a)

82 mol/l

b)

0.82 mol/l

c)

0.49 mol/l

d)

0.082 mol/l

78.
Which of the following half reactions correctly represents a reduction half reaction?
a)
Fe →Fe2+ + 2e-
b)
Pb4+ + 2e- →Pb2+
c)
2O-2 →O2 + 4e-
d)
Fe + 3e- →Fe3+
79.
Cl2 + 2 KBr → Br2 + 2 KCl
How many grams of potassium chloride can be produced from 356 g of chlorine and 356 g of potassium bromide?
a)
749 g
b)
223 g
c)
479 g
d)
814 g
80.
If it takes 50 mL of 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 to neutralize 125 mL of sulfuric acid, what is the concentration of the acid?
a)
0.2 M
b)
5 M
c)
0.5 M
81.
a)
A. is most exothermic
b)
B. is most exothermic
c)
C. is most exothermic
d)
D. is most exothermic
82.

Ignoring D, which has the largest Ea?

a)

A. has largest Ea

b)

B. has largest Ea

c)

C. has largest Ea

d)

E. has largest Ea

83.
step 1: O3 → O2 + O
step 2: O3 + O → 2 O2

The oxygen atom (O) is considered to be a(n)...
a)
reactant
b)
catalyst
c)
reaction intermediate
d)
activated complex
84.
In any first order reaction, as the reaction proceeds at constant temperature, which describes the corresponding effects on k (the rate constant) and rate?
a)
k remains the same; rate decreases
b)
k and rate both remain the same
c)
k remains the same; rate increases
d)
k decreases; rate remains the same
85.
A compound has a half-life of 14 min. How much time will it take a 12 mol sample to decay to 1.5 mol?
a)
14 min
b)
28 min
c)
42 min
d)
56 min
86.
a)
IO-, because it was used as a reactant in an earlier step and reproduced in a subsequent step
b)
I-, because it was used as a reactant in an earlier step and reproduced in a subsequent step
c)
IO-, because it was produced in an earlier step and used up in a subsequent step
d)
I-, because it was produced in an earlier step and used up in a subsequent step
87.
a)

rate = k[CO]2[O2]2

b)

rate = k[CO]2[O2]

c)

rate = k[CO][O2]2

d)

rate = k[CO][O2]1/2

88.
Increasing temperature of a chemical reaction:
a)
increases the number of collisions per second of chemical reactants
b)
increases the speed of reaction
c)
can increase the pressure of reactants
d)
all of the above
89.
Multi-step (Consecutive) Reactions:
Mechanisms in which one elementary step is followed by another are very common.
step 1:              A + B → Q
step 2:              B + Q → C
net reaction:    A + 2B → C
Which of the following is false?
a)
The net reaction is just the sum of its elementary steps.
b)
The species Q is an intermediate, usually an unstable or highly reactive species. 
c)
Intermediates such as Q can appear in the rate law of a net reaction.
d)
If both steps proceed at similar rates, rate law experiments on the net reaction would not reveal that two separate steps are involved here.The rate law for the reaction would berate=k[A][B]2
90.
The rate law for a reaction is rate = k [A][B]2 Which one of the following statements is false? 
a)
A) If [B] is doubled, the reaction rate will increase by a factor of 4. 
b)
B) The reaction is second order in B.
c)
C) The reaction is first order in A.
d)
D) The reaction is second order overall.
91.

The graph shown depicts the relationship between concentration and time. What is the slope of this line?

a)

-k

b)

-1/k

c)

k

d)

ln[A]o

92.

What is the rate law for this reaction?

a)

rate = k[X]0

b)

rate = k[X]

c)

rate = k[X]2

d)

rate = -k[X]2

93.

If the reaction rate increases by a factor of 4 when the concentration of reactant A is increased by a factor of 2 (assuming any other reactants remain constant), the order of the reaction with respect to reactant A must be

a)

zero order

b)

first order

c)

second order

d)

fourth order

94.

If a graph of concentration versus time is linear, the order of the reaction must be

a)

zero order

b)

first order

c)

second order

95.

If a graph of ln(concentration) versus time is linear, the order of the reaction must be

a)

zero order

b)

first order

c)

second order

96.

If a graph of 1/concentration (reciprocal concentration) versus time is linear, the order of the reaction must be

a)

zero order

b)

first order

c)

second order

97.

Given

Step 1: AB + C2 → ABC + C (slow)

Step 2: C + AB → ABC (fast)

What would be the overall reaction?

a)

2AB + C3 → 2ABC + C

b)

2AB + C2 + C → 2ABC + C

c)

2AB + C2 → 2ABC

98.

Given

Step 1: AB + C2 → ABC + C (slow)

Step 2: C + AB → ABC (fast)

What would be the rate law

a)

Rate = k[AB]2[C2]

b)

Rate = k[AB][C2]

c)

Rate = k[AB]2[C2][ABC]

d)

Rate = k[AB]2[C2][ABC]2

99.

Which curve represents the most particles in this Maxwell-Boltzmann curve (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

They all have the same number of particles

100.

Which curve in this Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution represents the highest proportion of particles moving the fastest (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

All particles are moving at the same speed

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