Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsFirst Half - Fall 2024 Final - Business Management
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 47mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
True or False. Active learning involves doing and participating, which leads to better retention.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
True or False. Active learning helps students develop creativity, which is a key skill needed for the future workplace.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
What is one of the key skills needed for the workplace of the future that active learning helps to foster?
a)
A) Passive consumption
b)
B) Essay writing
c)
C) Creativity
d)
D) Memorization
4.
True or False. Having students prepare questions can be a valuable strategy to encourage them to engage with the course material.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
True or False. Student-generated questions can help identify misunderstandings that students may have.
a)
True
b)
False
6.
True or False. Note taking is only helpful during lectures, not during reading, or videos or group projects.
a)
True
b)
False
7.
True or False. Note-taking has been shown to improve student learning
a)
True
b)
False
8.
According to a study by Marzano, creating summaries _____.
a)
increases understanding by almost 20%.
b)
decreases understanding by almost 20%
c)
increases understanding by almost 2%
d)
decreases understanding by almost 2%
9.
Underlining and highlighting words while you read, without doing anything else _____
a)
is very successful at helping students retain information.
b)
is a very popular method for learning.
c)
Both of these.
d)
Neither of these.
10.
True or False. Writing by hand relays feedback to the brain that assists with information recall.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
True or False. Simply reading and re-reading texts or notes is actively engaging in the material.
a)
True
b)
False
12.
True or False. To memorize material for a class, it is best to use one long memorization session than to review periodically throughout the week.
a)
True
b)
False
13.
True or False. Silence is golden - meaning that everyone should always find a quiet place to study.
a)
True
b)
False
14.
True or False. A significant amount of research indicates that multi-tasking improves efficiency.
a)
True
b)
False
15.
Research is clear that multi-tasking (e.g., responding to texts, while studying):
a)
increases the amount of time needed to learn material
b)
decreases the quality of the learning
c)
Both of these.
d)
Neither of these.
16.
True or False. If you make your plan for the next day before going to bed each night, you will wake up with a plan and be more productive.
a)
True
b)
False
17.
True or False. You should plan to work on every class every week even if you don’t have anything due.
a)
True
b)
False
18.
What purpose(s) does note-taking during lectures achieve?
a)
Encoding
b)
External storage
c)
Both of these
d)
Neither of these
19.
Good note-takers are
a)
born
b)
made
20.
In law school, how much reading per night is considered common?
a)
A) 10–20 pages
b)
B) 30–50 pages
c)
C) 50–100 pages
d)
D) 100–150 pages
21.
True or False. Efficiency is the ability to produce a desired result.
a)
True
b)
False
22.
True or False: Contingency planning deals with usual and predictable situations.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
True or False. Leadership involves guiding and motivating others.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
True or False: Empowerment involves giving employees increased autonomy and control over resources.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
True or False. To be effective leaders, managers must be able to influence others’ behaviors.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
True or False. Opportunity cost is the cost to produce something, for example what it costs to pick bananas.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
The ability of a manager to influence employees' behavior is called ______.
a)
power
b)
corruption
c)
greed
d)
wealth
28.
Which type of planning involves creating long-range, broad goals for the organization?
a)
a) Tactical planning
b)
b) Operational planning
c)
c) Strategic planning
d)
d) Contingency planning
29.
What leadership style encourages discussion of issues and alternatives with group members?
a)
a) Autocratic
b)
b) Participative
c)
c) Free-rein
d)
d) Directive
30.
Which level of management typically uses conceptual skills the most?
a)
a) Top-level management
b)
b) Middle management
c)
c) Supervisory management
d)
d) All levels equally
31.
What skill set is necessary for managers at the top of the management pyramid?
a)
a) Technical skills
b)
b) Human relations skills
c)
c) Conceptual skills
d)
d) Technical and human relations skills
32.
What type of power is derived from an individual's personal charisma and the respect and admiration they inspire?
a)
a) Legitimate power
b)
b) Reward power
c)
c) Coercive power
d)
d) Referent power
33.
If division of labor makes one employee more productive, that will benefit:
a)
That employee.
b)
The business.
c)
The economy as a whole
d)
All of these.
e)
None of these.
34.
The more different businesses are from each other, the ___ they benefit from trading with each other.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
Differences between businesses don't impact the benefits of trading.
35.
Based on the concept of comparative advantage, management should use division of labor to try to:
a)
Always assign each employee to work on tasks that they do better than other employees.
b)
Assign each employee to work on tasks that have the lowest opportunity cost for that employee.
c)
Assign each employee to work on tasks based on their seniority.
d)
Let each employee pick the tasks that they want to work on.
36.
Developed economies grew rich because of _____.
a)
High inflation
b)
High interest rates
c)
Specialization
d)
Taxation
37.
True or False: Human resource planning aims to ensure the right people with the right training are in the right jobs.
a)
True
b)
False
38.
True or False: Job descriptions list the skills, knowledge, and abilities required for a job.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
True or False: Succession planning is the process of waiting until a job vacancy occurs to look for potential employees.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
True or False. Contingent workers are usually only hired to work until their specific job is done.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
True or False: Contingent workers are typically eligible for employee benefits.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
True or False. Large firms that receive thousands of online applications per month carefully read each application.
a)
True
b)
False
43.
True or False. Under the successive hurdles approach, applicants who pass all steps are likely to receive a job offer.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
True or False: The new trend for performance appraisals is to do them once a year.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
True or False. The union needs to get a majority of employees to sign authorization cards before it can force a certification election.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
True or False. Certification elections are ran by the union.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
True or False. Certification elections are ran by the company.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
True or False. An agency shop does not require employees to join the union, but to remain employees, workers must pay the union a fee.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
True or False. In an open shop, workers don’t have to join the union or pay dues or fees to the union.
a)
True
b)
False
50.
For most companies that have collective bargaining agreements, the employees who are paid the most are the ones _____ .
a)
with the most seniority
b)
with the least seniority
c)
Neither of these - seniority only impacts who gets laid off, not how much they get paid.
51.
True or False: Paid family leave is guaranteed to all workers in the United States.
a)
True
b)
False
52.
What is the term for a worker who is hired on a project-by-project basis?
a)
Permanent worker
b)
Contingent worker
c)
Full-time employee
d)
W2 worker
53.
Which of the following is an advantage of contingent workers?
a)
Greater control over their work
b)
Long-term commitment to the organization
c)
Cost savings on employee benefits
d)
In-house skill development
54.
What is these is a primary disadvantage of hiring contingent workers?
a)
No Respondeat superior
b)
Limited flexibility
c)
Increased costs
d)
Less control over their activities
55.
What is motivation?
a)
A workplace requirement
b)
The set of forces that prompt a person to release energy in a certain direction
c)
The result of economic incentives
d)
An extrinsic reward
56.
True or False. Motivated and hardworking employees can become a crucial competitive advantage for a business.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
True or False. Employees are motivated by satisfying wants, not needs.
a)
True
b)
False
58.
What are the two main categories of rewards?
a)
None of these
b)
Monetary and non-monetary
c)
Immediate and delayed
d)
Personal and professional
e)
All of these
59.
Which era of management used a scientific approach to analyze employee productivity?
a)
None of these
b)
Human relations era
c)
Behavioral era
d)
Contemporary era
e)
All of these
60.
What was the classical era of management based on?
a)
Equity theory
b)
None of these
c)
Expectancy theory
d)
Goal-setting theory
e)
All of these
61.
What did the initial Hawthorne studies focus on?
a)
The link between effort and performance
b)
Equity in the workplace
c)
None of these
d)
Goal-setting in organizations
e)
All of these
62.
What is the Hawthorne effect?
a)
Increased output due to varying light levels
b)
Improved performance when employees feel singled out for special attention
c)
Improved performance when employees believe that management is concerned about their welfare
d)
The link between effort and performance
e)
The effects of social needs on productivity
63.
What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
a)
Safety needs
b)
Social needs
c)
None of these
d)
Physiological needs
e)
All of these
64.
What does Theory X assume about the average employee?
a)
The average person dislikes work and avoids it if possible.
b)
The average person is self-directed and ambitious.
c)
The average person seeks responsibility willingly.
d)
The average person is primarily motivated by social needs.
65.
What is Theory Y based on?
a)
A pessimistic view of human nature
b)
The assumption that workers can be self-directed and self-controlled
c)
The need for constant supervision and control
d)
A focus on economic incentives
66.
What does equity theory focus on?
a)
The link between effort and performance
b)
None of these
c)
The role of goals in motivation
d)
The effects of reinforcement on behavior
e)
All of these
67.
How does reinforcement theory explain behavior?
a)
Behavior is unrelated to consequences.
b)
Behavior is influenced by external factors only.
c)
Behavior is a function of its consequences.
d)
Behavior is determined solely by individual needs.
68.
Most employees get more motivation from ____ consequences.
a)
positive
b)
negative
69.
What should managers do to improve worker motivation, according to equity theory?
a)
Give all employees more economic incentives
b)
Give all employees more positive consequences
c)
Give all employees more negative consequences
d)
Explain why perceived inequities are really fair
e)
Reduce or eliminate real inequities
70.
True or False. Goal-setting theory states that easier goals are better motivators than difficult goals.
a)
True
b)
False
71.
A "reward" is ______.
a)
anything that increases a specific behavior.
b)
anything that decreases a specific behavior.
c)
anything that either increases or decreases a specific behavior.
72.
A "punishment is ______.
a)
anything that increases a specific behavior.
b)
anything that decreases a specific behavior.
c)
anything that either increases or decreases a specific behavior.
73.
What does Theory X assume about the average employee’s view of work?
a)
The average person dislikes work and avoids it if possible.
b)
Work is as natural as play or rest.
c)
The average person is self-directed and ambitious.
d)
Workers can be motivated using positive incentives.
74.
What is the primary assumption of Theory Y?
a)
Workers must be controlled and directed.
b)
Work is as natural as play or rest, and workers can be self-directed.
c)
The average person dislikes work.
d)
Workers avoid responsibility and prefer security.
75.
How many 10K reports does a publicly-traded company file each year?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
e)
4
76.
What does GAAP stand for?
a)
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
b)
Generally Available Access Protection
c)
Generally Accepted Attorney-Client Privilege
d)
None of these
77.
Sole proprietorships are the most popular form of business ownership, accounting for almost 3/4 of all businesses.
a)
True
b)
False
78.
True or False. Sole proprietorships are the most profitable form of business ownership, accounting for about 3/4 of all business revenue.
a)
True
b)
False
79.
True or False. In a sole proprietorship, the owner has limited liability.
a)
True
b)
False
80.
True or False: Partnerships are usually more complex to form than corporations.
a)
True
b)
False
81.
True or False: Corporations have unlimited liability for their owners.
a)
True
b)
False
82.
True or False. The most a shareholder can lose is the price they paid for the stock they bought. This is called "limited liability."
a)
True
b)
False
83.
True or False. Corporations live on after owners die or retire, because the shares in the corporation are inherited by other people.
a)
True
b)
False
84.
True or False. Limited partners in a limited partnership can become personally liable if they take an active role in the business.
a)
True
b)
False
85.
True or False. Corporations are subject to income taxes on their profits, and shareholders may also be taxed on dividends.
a)
True
b)
False
86.
True or False. Partnerships pay income taxes as separate entities.
a)
True
b)
False
87.
True or False. Franchisees operate under a recognized brand and product, which can reduce risk and increase the chances of success.
a)
True
b)
False
88.
True or False. Franchisees are responsible for developing their own business concepts.
a)
True
b)
False
89.
True or False. Partnerships are commonly used by professional service firms like law and accounting firms.
a)
True
b)
False
90.
True or False. Sole proprietors have the advantage of limited liability protection.
a)
True
b)
False
91.
What form of business organization is often compared to a marriage?
a)
a) Corporation
b)
b) Partnership
c)
c) Sole proprietorship
d)
d) Franchising
92.
What form of business is most common?
a)
Sole proprietorship
b)
General partnership
c)
Limited partnership
d)
Corporations
93.
What form of business accounts for about 80% of total business revenue?
a)
Sole proprietorship
b)
General partnership
c)
Limited partnership
d)
Corporations
94.
Which form of business ownership has the fewest legal requirements and is least expensive to form?
a)
a) Sole proprietorship
b)
b) General Partnership
c)
c) Corporation
d)
d) Limited lPartnership
Reset
