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Semester 1 APHG Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 3hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In descriptions of interaction between people and the environment, the term “environmental determinism” implies that

a)

the physical environment exclusively shapes humans and their actions 

b)

humans by their actions and technologies alter the physical environment to suit their needs

c)

determination of environmental limitations is a primary task of geographers

d)

capitalist economies do not contribute to global environmental degradation 

e)

there exists no interacting relationship between people and their surrounding physical environment

2.

Which of the following concepts could best be explained by the theory of possibilism?

a)

Regional differences between the internal structures of cities

b)

Changes in population growth rates over time

c)

Limitations on agricultural crops based on climate

d)

Political patterns seen in election maps

e)

Modification of landscapes by human cultures

3.

Which of the following is most likely to be used by a marketing firm seeking to map patterns of lifestyle characteristics in the United States?

a)

States

b)

Zip codes

c)

Nonmetropolitan areas

d)

Congressional districts

e)

Counties

4.

Every map projection has some degree of distortion because

a)

a curved surface cannot be represented on a flat surface without distortion

b)

parallels and meridians never cross at right angles on a globe

c)

the grid system is two-dimensional, while the real world is three-dimensional

d)

Earth is not a perfect sphere

e)

latitude lines are shorter than meridian lines

5.

Which of the following scales is represented in the map shown?

a)

Local, showing the towns and township areas in a county

b)

Regional, showing the states or provinces in one part of a country

c)

State or province, showing the counties or parishes

d)

Neighborhood, showing the block along street boundaries

e)

Block, showing the property lines and names of owners

6.

Absolute Distance

a)

describing how far a distance is quantitative units of distance

b)

describing the distance between locations using qualitative terms

c)

Describing where something is using the exact site or an objective coordinate system

d)

Describing the position of a place as compared to another landmark

7.

Relative Location

a)

describing the distance between locations using qualitative terms or non-traditional measurements of distance (one hour north of Walmart)

b)

describing how far a distance is quantitative units of distance (miles, kilometers, etc.)

c)

describing where something is using the exact site on an objective coordinate system (Long. & Lat.)

d)

describing the position of a place as compared to (or relative to!) another landmark (near the beach)

8.

Absolute Location

a)

describing how far a distance is quantitative units of distance (miles, kilometers, etc.)

b)

describing the distance between locations using qualitative terms or non-traditional measurements of distance (one hour north of Walmart)

c)

describing where something is using the exact site on an objective coordinate system (Long. & Lat.)

d)

describing the position of a place as compared to (or relative to!) another landmark (near the beach)

9.

Thematic Map

a)

maps that emphasizes the location of places (without data attached)

b)

a map that displays not only locations but maps a topic or theme of information with the location

c)

The arrangement of the natural and artificial physical features of an area.

d)

the belief that a physical environment is THE reason that some societies are strong while others are weaker

10.

Space

a)

process by which a characteristic spreads across space from one place to another over time. Can mean people in different regions can modify ideas at the same time in different ways.

b)

Characteristics that make a location unique... human and physical.

c)

Interaction of goods, people, or information among places, in response to localized supply and demand

d)

implies the extent of a area and can be in a relative and absolute sense

11.

Reference Map

a)

the belief that a physical environment is THE reason that some societies are strong while others are weaker

b)

a map that displays not only locations but maps a topic or theme of information with the location

c)

The arrangement of the natural and artificial physical features of an area.

d)

maps that emphasizes the location of places (without data attached)

12.

Map Projections

a)

detailed observations that provide insight into a group of people in a specific area

b)

arrangement of a phenomenon across the Earth's surface (clustering/dispersal)

c)

a method of taking a 3D object and putting in on a 2D plane

d)

objective data that is fact based, usually measurable and usually expressed in numbers

13.

Qualitative Data

a)

objective data that is fact based, usually measurable and usually expressed in numbers

b)

the belief that a physical environment plays a role in the development of a society, but is NOT the ONLY factor at work

c)

subjective information that is opinion based, is usually descriptive, and often expressed as text

d)

arrangement of a phenomenon across the Earth's surface (clustering/dispersal)

14.

Quantitative Data

a)

subjective information that is opinion based, is usually descriptive, and often expressed as text

b)

software that captures, manages, analyzes, and displays data that is collected geographically

c)

an official count of individuals in a population (in the USA, it happens every 10 years)

d)

objective data that is fact based, usually measurable and usually expressed in numbers

15.

GIS

a)

relating to data that is specific to one location

b)

software that captures, manages, analyzes, and displays data that is collected geographically

c)

a system that measures distance from a series of satellites to determine location on the planet

d)

the science of making measurements of the earth using sensors on airplanes or satellites

16.

Cultural Landscape

a)

What you see in a specific location- can be physical features or human created features of a place

b)

Is a combination of cultural, economic and physical features of a place (ex. Language, industry, climate)

c)

The geometric or regular arrangement of something in an area. Linear Pattern- Straight pattern such as houses on a street. Centralized Pattern- Clustered or concentrated at a certain place. Or a random pattern

d)

the Location of one place relative to other significant places/resources/activities

17.

GPS

a)

a system that measures distance from a series of satellites to determines exact location on the planet

b)

the science of making measurements of the earth using sensors on airplanes or satellites

c)

software that captures, manages, analyzes, and displays data that is collected geographically

d)

relating to data that is specific to one location

18.

Remote Sensing

a)

a system that measures distance from a series of satellites to determine location on the planet

b)

the science of making measurements of the earth using sensors on airplanes or satellites

c)

software that captures, manages, analyzes, and displays data that is collected geographically

d)

relating to data that is specific to one location

19.

Distance Decay

a)

a metaphor that explains that effort must be used to overcome distance

b)

a physical material constituting part of Earth that people need and value

c)

the idea that the world feels smaller than it used to because of increased technology in transportation and communication

d)

the idea that the interaction between two places declines as the distance between them increases

20.

Time-space Compression

a)

a metaphor that explains that effort must be used to overcome distance

b)

a physical material constituting part of Earth that people need and value

c)

the idea that the world feels smaller than it used to because of increased technology in transportation and communication

d)

the idea that the interaction between two places declines as the distance between them increases

21.

Measures the distance north and south of the Equator

a)

Latitude

b)

Longitude

c)

Tropics

d)

Polar

22.

Measures the distance east and west of the Prime Meridian

a)

Longitude

b)

Tropics

c)

Latitude

d)

Polar

23.

0 degrees longitude

a)

Temperate

b)

Prime Meridian

c)

International Date line

d)

Location

24.

The position of something on the Earth's surface

a)

Location

b)

International Date line

c)

Temperate

d)

Prime Meridian

25.

The physical & human characteristics of any location on Earth

a)

Region

b)

Place

c)

Location

d)

Area

26.

Any area differentiated from surrounding areas by at least one characteristic

a)

Region

b)

Movement

c)

Place

d)

Human Environment interaction

27.

The effect that humans have on their environment and the effect that the environment has on humans

a)

Human environment interaction

b)

Area

c)

Movement

d)

Cartograms

28.

A map which a certain variable (such as population) is replaced by land area or distance, and the space of the map is altered in order accommodate this new variable

a)

Cartograms

b)

Choropleth map

c)

Area

d)

International Date line

29.

A kind of map in which areas are shaded in proportion to the variable being displayed on the map

a)

Cartograms

b)

Choropleth maps

c)

Physical maps

d)

Political maps

30.

A hiker would use

a)

an isoline map

b)

a choropleth map

c)

a graduated symbol map

d)

a small scale map

e)

a political map

31.

The geometric or regular arrangement of something in a study area _______?

a)

Pattern

b)

Distribution

c)

Situation

d)

Relative Distance

32.

The arrangement of something across the Earth's surface.

a)

Distribution

b)

Geographic Information System (GIS)

c)

Distance Decay

d)

Density

33.

The location of a place relative to other places

a)

Situation

b)

Site

c)

Relative Direction

d)

Cartography

34.

The exact location of something, the physical character of a place ______?

a)

Site

b)

Situation

c)

Absolute Distance

d)

Space-Time Compression

35.

An area organized around a node or focal point. (Has a purpose)

a)

Functional/Nodal Region

b)

Formal/Homogenous Region

c)

Vernacular/Perceptional Region

36.

An area within which everyone shares in a common one or more distinctive characteristics.

a)

Formal/Uniform/Homogenous Region

b)

Functional/Nodal Region

c)

Vernacular/Perceptional Region

37.

An area that people believe exists as part of their cultural identity.

a)

Vernacular/Perceptional Region

b)

Functional/Nodal Region

c)

Formal/Uniform/Homogenous Region

38.

The frequency with which something occurs in space.

a)

Density

b)

Arithmetic Density

c)

Space

d)

Ecology

39.

The science of map making

a)

Cartography

b)

Geography

c)

Ecology

d)

Distribution

40.

The relationship between the proportion of the Earth being studied and the earth as a whole.

a)

Scale

b)

Place

c)

Space

d)

Hearth

41.

The name given to a portion on Earth's surface.

a)

Toponym

b)

Map

c)

Polder

d)

Resource

42.

The use of EaRth's renewable and non-renewable natural resources in ways that don't constrain resource use in the future.

a)

Sustainability

b)

Map

c)

Projection

d)

Map distortion

43.

Two-dimensional, or flat, representation of Earth's surface or a portion of it.

a)

Map

b)

Toponym

c)

Geography

44.

How many CONTINENTS are there in the world?

a)

7

b)

10

c)

3

d)

9

45.

What is the name of this continent?

a)

Asia

b)

Europe

c)

Antarctica

d)

Africa

46.

Name 3 countries in EUROPE:

4 lines
47.

Which OCEAN is to the WEST (the left) of North America and South America?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Indian Ocean

c)

Arctic Ocean

d)

Pacific ocean

48.

Name 3 countries in Asia:

4 lines
49.

The Atlas Mountains are found on which continent?

a)

Europe

b)

Asia

c)

Antarctica

d)

Africa

50.

This South American country has 2 capital cities (La Paz & Sucre)

a)

Argentina

b)

Bolivia

c)

Chile

d)

Colombia

51.

Which of the regions has the highest population concentration?

a)

Southeast Asia

b)

East Asia

c)

Southern Africa

d)

Latin America

52.

What stages of the DTM see the most population growth?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 5

53.

In which DTM stage does industrialization occur?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

What stage is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

55.

What stage is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

56.

ETM Stage 3 is known as...

a)

Infectious and parasitic diseases

b)

Receding Pandemics

c)

Degenerative Diseases

d)

Delayed Degenerative Diseases

57.

If the world CBR is 4.3 where would a CBR of 1.2 be located?

a)

Europe

b)

Sub-Saharan Africa

c)

South Asia

d)

East Asia

58.

Which DTM Stage has the lowest growth?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

59.

Interregional migration in the US is from

a)

Urban to rural

b)

Urban to suburban

c)

South to north

d)

Northeast to west and south

60.

Migration to the US from the early 1900s was from

a)

Britain

b)

Northern and Western Europe

c)

Southern and Eastern Europe

d)

Latin America and Asia

61.

Which characteristic is shared by European countries?

a)

High IMR

b)

Low NIR

c)

High CBR

d)

High CDR

62.

This population density measure can show the economic development of a country.

a)

Arithmetic Density

b)

Physiological Density

c)

Crude Density

d)

Agricultural Density

63.

Which country is known historically for anti-natalist policies?

a)

Japan

b)

Germany

c)

China

d)

United States

64.

According to Ravenstein long distances migrants settle in

a)

Urban areas

b)

Rural areas

c)

United States

d)

Small Towns

65.

What is an internally displaced person?

a)

Someone who has been forced to migrate but has not crossed international boundaries

b)

Someone who has fled to a foreign country and is seeking asylum

c)

Someone who has voluntarily moved to a country in search of a job

d)

Someone who has been forced to migrate fearing for their life

66.

Which of the following is the best example of a migrant?

a)

a child who visits her aunt for the weekend

b)

a family who vacations out of state on holiday

c)

a man who commutes daily from his suburban home to the inner city

d)

a retiree moving from New York to Florida

e)

a woman who makes an annual religious pilgrimage

67.

Which of the following best describes net migration at different scales of analysis?

a)

at a global scale, the world as a whole has positive net migration

b)

at a global scale, the world as a whole has negative net migration

c)

at a regional scale, net migration is negative in North America

d)

at a national scale, net migration is generally positive in developed countries

e)

at a national scale, developing countries generally have a low single-digit positive net migration rate

68.

Who coined the "Laws of Migration" based on European and North American census data?

a)

Ernest Burgess

b)

Norman Borlang

c)

Thomas Malthus

d)

Alfred Weber

e)

Ernst G. Ravenstein

69.

Which of the following best describes one of Ravenstein's Laws of Migration?

a)

most migrants move long distances

b)

long distance migrants are likely to move to a rural area to participate in the agricultural industry

c)

rural dwellers are less migratory than urban people

d)

most migrants are families with children

e)

the volume of migration increases as industries develop

70.

According to the graph, at which ages do migration rates tend to peak?

a)

between ages 5-10

b)

between ages 15-20

c)

between ages 25-30

d)

between ages 40-45

e)

between ages 66-70

71.

Which age bracket is the most mobile in the selected developed countries shown on the graph?

a)

age birth-4

b)

age 5-16

c)

age 18-34

d)

age 40-55

e)

age 60 and older

72.

Which of the following best explains the age profile of American migration on the graph?

a)

Americans college students tend to live at home while attending school which results in low migration levels

b)

the rate of American migration increases after age 40 because of desires for more space

c)

American migration is at its lowest around age 60 when people retire and stay in their family homes

d)

a secondary dip for very young American children is the result of their parents' relatively low migration rates

e)

Americans tend to finish college, marry, and enter full-time job markets near the age of peak migration

73.

Which of the following best describes the "+" signs shown in the figure?

a)

factors that cause people to be dissatisfied with their present location

b)

factors that make people want to migrate somewhere else

c)

the attributes that neither appeal nor satisfy potential migrants

d)

the complications that potential migrants will need to overcome to reach their destination

e)

the attributes of other places that make them appealing to potential migrations

74.

Which of the following is considered a push factor?

a)

high wages

b)

a good school system

c)

low property taxes

d)

an extreme climate

e)

high unemployment

75.

The fence located at the U.S.-Mexico border, pictured here, can best be described as an example of a _________

a)

political pull factor

b)

political push factor

c)

intervening opportunity

d)

counterstream

e)

intervening obstacle

76.

Which of the following types of diffusion is migration?

a)

contagious

b)

relocation

c)

hierarchical

d)

reverse hierarchical

e)

stimulus

77.

Employment opportunities are considered which type of migration factor?

a)

environmental pull factor

b)

political push factor

c)

cultural pull factor

d)

demographic push factor

e)

economic pull factor

78.

Suppose your rent just increased by $150 per month and you have decided to look for a less expensive place to live. By what type of factor in the migration process are you being influenced?

a)

push

b)

pull

c)

forced

d)

empowerment

e)

political

79.

What are the positive pulls of Urbanization

a)

Job opportunities

b)

Increased pollution

c)

Living with many family members

d)

Technology

e)

Transportation

80.

All the people of/in a particular area

a)

migration

b)

population

c)

urbanization

d)

people

81.

The movement of people from rural to urban areas

a)

migration

b)

population

c)

country living

d)

urbanization

82.

The movement of people

a)

migration

b)

urbanization

c)

population

d)

moving to the city

83.

What were the negative pushes on urbanizations

a)

Increased mobility

b)

Overcrowding

c)

New communication devices

d)

Increased Population

e)

Poverty

84.

True or False

The most populous country in the world is Russia

a)

True

b)

False

85.

True or False

Birth rate is higher than death rate

a)

True

b)

False

86.

About how many people on are the planet today?

a)

1 Billion

b)

9.1 Billion

c)

6.2 Billion

d)

8.2 Billion

87.

What measures the number of deaths a country has in a year?

a)

Crude Birth Rate

b)

Crude Death Rate

c)

Natural Increase Rate

d)

Doubling Time

88.

England had 12 births for every 1,000 people in a year. This is

a)

Crude Birth Rate

b)

Crude Death Rate

c)

Natural Increase Rate

d)

Doubling Time

89.

In this population pyramid which side are girls on?

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Bottom Half

d)

Top Half

90.

Population pyramids shows the age breakdown of a population every

a)

2 years

b)

4 years

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

91.

The CBR of Togo is 30 and the CDR is 10. What is the NIR?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

2%

d)

6%

92.

What region of the world has the lowest life expectancy?

a)

Europe

b)

North America

c)

Australia

d)

Africa

93.

Which of the following is a proven way to lower birth rates in a country?

a)

lower taxes

b)

lower food prices

c)

Increase education of women

d)

Increase marriage rates

94.

What age is considered too young to work full time according to dependency ratio?

a)

0-12

b)

0-14

c)

2-17

d)

0-10

95.

How would you describe the population of this country?

a)

They are experiencing stable population growth

b)

They are experiencing rapid population growth

c)

They are experiencing negative population growth

96.

How would you describe the population of this country?

a)

They are experiencing stable population growth

b)

They are experiencing negative population growth

c)

They are experiencing rapid population growth

97.

How would you describe the population of this country?

a)

They are experiencing rapid population growth

b)

They are experiencing stable population growth

c)

They are experiencing negative population growth

98.

Describe the healthcare of this country.

a)

Good healthcare available to most

b)

Good healthcare available to some

c)

Poor healthcare for all

d)

Poor healthcare for most

99.

Is this country Developed or Developing?

a)

Developed

b)

Developing

100.

This country has ample access to healthcare and birth control.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

This country has ample access to healthcare and birth control.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

This country has a low birth rate

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Describe the likely death rate of this country.

a)

This country has a low death rate

b)

This country has a high death rate

c)

This country has many old people

d)

Very few people die in this country

104.

Describe the life expectancy of this country

a)

People live a long time

b)

People die early

c)

Men live longer than women

105.

Natural (a)   is when the death rate is higher than the birthrate

106.

What does the term industrialisation mean?

a)

people work on farms

b)

people move to cities

c)

People work in factories

d)

the growth of factories in towns and cities for mass manufacturing

107.

What is the name of the model that shows the stage of a country's development?

a)

burgess model

b)

demographic transition model

c)

demographic transportation model

d)

development transition model

108.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 2 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

109.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 3 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

110.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 4 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

Both the death and birth rate are low and fluctuating

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

111.
What is NOT one of the push factors that have caused migration?
a)
Arable Land
b)
Conflict
c)
Agricultural decline
d)
Lack of Job opportunities
112.

What are the main ideas of Malthus Theory?

a)

Population growth is exponential while food production is linear, leading to overpopulation and resource scarcity.

b)

Population growth is linear while food production is exponential, leading to underpopulation and resource abundance.

c)

Population growth and food production are both exponential, leading to overpopulation and resource abundance.

d)

Population growth and food production are both linear, leading to underpopulation and resource scarcity.

113.

the number of people in a defined area such as a square kilometre

a)

population density

b)

birth rate

c)

death rate

d)

population

114.

the number of people per unit of arable land area

a)

distribution

b)

arithmetic density

c)

physiological density

d)

agricultural density

115.

Arithmetic Density what is it?

a)

Calculating by dividing a region's population by its total area.

b)

Calculating by multiplying a region's population by its total area.

c)

Calculating by dividing a certain amount of people in distance.

d)

Calculating by dividing the population by sectors.

116.

Reasons for leaving one area and going to another are called...

a)

good-bad effects

b)

propel and draw-in effects

c)

bring-in and force effects

d)

push-pull effects

117.

Which continent is expected to have the highest population growth by 2050?

a)

Europe

b)

Asia

c)

Africa

d)

North America

118.

Stage 1 of the ETM is known as-

a)

Reemergence of Infectious Disease

b)

Degenerative and Human Created Disease

c)

Famine

d)

Receding Pandemic Disease

119.

Stage 2 of the ETM is known as-

a)

Receding Pandemic Disease

b)

Degenerative and Human Created Diseases

c)

Reemergence of Infectious Disease

d)

Delayed Degenerative Diseases

120.

Stage 3 of the ETM is known as-

a)

Famine

b)

Reemergence of Infectious Disease

c)

Degenerative and Human Created Diseases

d)

Delayed Degenerative Diseases

121.

An example of a degenerative disease is-

a)

Ebola

b)

Sports Injuries

c)

Diabetes

d)

Malaria

122.

Folk Culture is

a)

Homogenous

b)

Rural

c)

Slowly Changing

d)

All of the above

123.

An example of Hierarchical diffusion

a)

Migrant bringing their food culture to the US

b)

McDonald's building restaurants in India but not serving beef

c)

A celebrity adopting a new hairstyle and starting a trend

d)

Finding out about a new song from your cousin

124.

Dominant language family in the regions above

a)

Niger - Congo

b)

Indo - European

c)

Latin Americano

d)

Sino - Tibetan

125.

Dominant language family in the regions above

a)

Sino -Tibetan

b)

Afro - Asiatic

c)

Niger - Congo

d)

Afrikaans

126.

When two people who speak different languages use English to conduct business, we can consider English a(n)

a)

Assimilated language

b)

Lingua Franca

c)

Pidgin Language

d)

Creole Language

127.

This region of the world is most likely the hearth of what language family?

a)

Austro - Asiatic

b)

Indo - European

c)

Altaic

d)

Sino - Tibetan

128.

Italian, French, Spanish and Portuguese are all

a)

Sino - Tibetan languages

b)

Germanic languages

c)

Altaic languages

d)

Romance languages

129.

The dominant language in the region highlighted is

a)

Spanish

b)

English

c)

French

d)

German

130.

The largest universalizing religion is

a)

Hinduism

b)

Islam

c)

Buddhism

d)

Christianity

131.

World's first monotheistic religion

a)

Jainism

b)

Hinduism

c)

Judaism

d)

Shintoism

132.

If a Muslim is physically and financially able, they are expected to travel to

a)

Mecca

b)

Palestine

c)

Madrid

d)

Israel

133.

The ethnicity highlighted in the map above is

a)

Asian Americans

b)

African Americans

c)

Hispanic Americans

d)

Native Americans

134.

Millions of Hindus and Muslims were displaced or killed when

a)

Yugoslavia dissolved into separate states in the 1990s

b)

Hindus attacked minority Muslim populations in Sri Lanka

c)

Britain left India and created the Muslim state of Pakistan

d)

Israel defeated Egypt in 1967

135.

3rd largest religion; DID NOT originate in Pakistan; given name by Aryans; no founder; consider the Ganges a sacred river; their main god is Brahman. Other gods are expressions of Brahman. Vedas are its 4 sacred texts. Defined as an ethnic religion to SE Asia.

a)

Hinduism

b)

Sikhism

c)

Taoism

d)

Buddhism

e)

Shintoism

136.

Founded by Muhammad, Qu'ran, Allah; monotheistic; includes 5 pillars; pilgrimage to Mecca/hajj. EX) Most Muslims are in Indonesia

a)

Confucianism

b)

Judaism

c)

Christianity

d)

Islam

e)

Sunni

137.

Has a single founder (Jesus); split from Judaism; monotheistic; first split: between Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox. Emperor Diocletian split empire eventually leading to separate denominations. The last branch, Protestant, came from the Catholics.

a)

Confucianism

b)

Judaism

c)

Christianity

d)

Islam

e)

Sunni

138.

Grew from the beliefs of Jews; a nomadic Semitic tribe in SW Asia. Based off the teachings of Abraham. In Middle East, N Africa, Russia, Ukraine, Europe, and N and S America; Monotheistic.

a)

Confucianism

b)

Judaism

c)

Christianity

d)

Islam

e)

Sunni

139.

When a soul is reborn...in Hinduism you are moved up and down in the caste system based on your behavior. The goal is to escape this through union with Brahman. EX) Hinduism

a)

Reincarnation

b)

monotheistic religion

c)

religion

d)

polytheistic religion

e)

universalizing religions

140.

The worship of a single deity, God or Allah EX) Islam grew in Northern Africa from 11 to 234 million in 1900 to 2010

a)

Reincarnation

b)

monotheistic religion

c)

religion

d)

polytheistic religion

e)

universalizing religions

141.
worship more than one deity, even 1000s EX) Hinduism, Vodum/Voodoo
a)
Reincarnation
b)
monotheistic religion
c)
religion
d)
polytheistic religion
e)
universalizing religions
142.

To actively seek converts because they view themselves as offering belief systems, universal appropriateness, and appeal. Few in number and of recent origin. EX) Christianity, Buddhism, and Islam

a)

Reincarnation

b)

monotheistic religion

c)

religion

d)

polytheistic religion

e)

universalizing religions

143.

Adherents are born into the faith and converts are not actively sought. Spatially concentrated, except for Judaism. EX) traditional religions in Africa and SA. Judaism, Hinduism, Confucianism, Shintoism

a)

animistic religion

b)

ethnic religion

c)

Feng-Shui/geomancy

d)

Zoroastrianism

e)

Confucianism

144.

A focused geographic area where important innovations are born and from which they are spread

a)

Cultural Hearth

b)

Minority Religion

c)

An Ethnic Group

d)

Universalizing Religion

145.

The Phenomenon whereby the introduction of new transportation technologies progressively reduce the time it takes to travel between places

a)

Time space continuum

b)

Difusion

c)

Time- Space Convergence

d)

Distance Decay

146.

A language of communication and commerce spoken across a wide area where it is not a mother tongue

a)

imperialism

b)

Colonialism

c)

Lingua Franca

d)

Bilingualism

147.

Hierarchical contagious, and stimulus diffusion are all examples of what type of diffusion ?

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

148.

This type of diffusion involves a wavelike spread of ideas in the manner of a contagious disease, equally moving throughout space.

a)

Hierarchical Diffusion

b)

Stimulus diffusion

c)

Contagious Diffusion

d)

Relocation Diffusion

149.

This type of Diffusion occurs when individuals or groups with a particular idea or practice migrate from one location to another, thereby bringing the idea or practice to their new homeland

a)

Relocation Diffusion

b)

Expansion Diffusion

150.

If a Spanish speaker and a French speaker come together to conduct trade and revert the authentic form of English they both learned in their schools, English is known to them as a(n)

a)

creolized language

b)

language branch

c)

isogloss

d)

pidgin language

e)

lingua franca

151.

Which of the following lists religions that all started in Southwest Asia?

a)

Buddhism, Hinduism, Islam

b)

Islam, Judaism, Christianity

c)

Shintoism, Sikhism, Judaism

d)

Taoism, Christianity, Hinduism

e)

Judaism, Animism, Buddhism

152.

The simplest component of a culture is a

a)

culture trait

b)

culture complex

c)

culture system

d)

cultural diffusion

e)

cultural identity

153.

Which language has become the world's primary lingua franca?

a)

Mandarin Chinese

b)

Hindi

c)

German

d)

Spanish

e)

English

154.

Where is the hearth of country music?

a)

Galveston, Texas

b)

Montgomery, Alabama

c)

Atlanta, Georgia

d)

Nashville, Tennessee

e)

Charlotte, North Carolina

155.

The two primary Eastern religions of Hinduism and Buddhism each have their hearths located where?

a)

Jerusalem, Israel

b)

Western Saudi Arabia

c)

Eastern China

d)

Southeast Asia

e)

Northern India

156.

The modern game of soccer (football) spread to many parts of the world because of British colonization. This is an example of ____________ diffusion.

a)

expansion

b)

hierarchical

c)

relocation

d)

stimulus

e)

contagious

157.

This type of Diffusion happens when a specific trait is not adopted in its original form, but the underlying idea is accepted and the cultural trait is still adopted

a)

Hierarchical Diffusion

b)

Stimulus Diffusion

c)

Relocation diffusion

d)

contagious diffusion

158.
Assimilation takes place when
a)
a smaller culture shares traits with a larger culture
b)
a smaller culture is totally absorbed by a larger, more dominant culture
c)
cultures give and take
d)
culture moves with people in relocation diffusion
159.

Which locations and religions are correctly paired in terms of place or origin/hearth?

a)

Islam: Egypt

b)

Buddhism: India

c)

Hinduism: South America

d)

Judaism: Saudi Arabia

160.

Roman Catholicism predominates in

a)

Northern Europe

b)

East Asia

c)

Canada

d)

South America

161.
A Centripetal force is 
a)
The process by which a state breaks down as a result of ethnic conflict. (Reference to Balkan Peninsula/Yugoslavia
b)
A real-estate tactic used during the end of segregation in America. Real-estate agents convinced Whites to sell them their houses for cheap in fear of Blacks moving in. They then resold them to Blacks at a far higher price.
c)
The system formerly in effect in South Africa that segregated people based on their race.
(Abolished in the 90s)
d)
A force that helps to unify and bring together the people of a state.
(e.g. Nationalism/Patriotism, Equality, Tolerance)
162.
Cultural identity through shared traits such as language or religion
a)
Race
b)
Ethnicity
c)
Habit
d)
Culture
163.
Which of the following would best fit the description of a State?
a)
Alabama
b)
Hawaii
c)
The South
d)
Japan
164.
This group of people live in Pennsylvania and Ohio.  They don't use electricity and use horse and buggy.  They are
a)
Quakers
b)
Shakers
c)
Mennonites
d)
Amish
165.
The following is part of the cultural landscape EXCEPT
a)
Sewer System
b)
Office Complex System
c)
Water Well
d)
River System
166.
Cultural globalization is illustrated by 
a)
world wide use of the internet
b)
the Amish communities in the US
c)
eating local food prepared in a small restaurant
d)
a folk dance in China
167.
Ethnic cleansing can be described as 
a)
using military zones to separate people
b)
forced expulsion and resettlement of ethnic groups
c)
chain migration of ethnic groups
d)
insurgency and war of ethnic groups
168.
Homes around the world are made of out different building materials because 
a)
of the availability of building materials
b)
People like wooden homes better
c)
Brick and mortar are easier to work with
d)
Adobe homes are not as hot
169.

Spanish, Russian, Nepali, Kunama, Arabic, and Swahili are all ______________________.

a)

languages

b)

cultures

c)

songs

170.

All of the following are traits common to Muslim religions of the world EXCEPT ___________.

a)

fasting

b)

pilgimage

c)

Sharia law

d)

polytheism

e)

daily ritual prayers

171.

Organize the world’s languages from biggest classification, to smallest.

a)

language group, language, language family, dialect

b)

language branch, language group, language, language family, dialect

c)

language family, language branch, language group, language, dialect

d)

language

e)

language family, language branch, language group, dialect, language

172.

Which are the two language FAMILIES with the largest amount of speakers?

a)

Sino - Tibetan + Dravidian

b)

Austroasiatic + Austronesian

c)

Japanese + Indo - European

d)

Altaic + Uralic

e)

Indo - European + Sino - Tibetan

173.

What country could you find most of the Sino - Tibetan family?

a)

Vietnam

b)

Afghanistan

c)

Russia

d)

China

e)

United States

174.

In which region are ethnic religions most widely practiced?

a)

Asia

b)

South America

c)

North America

d)

North Africa

175.

Which three religions have holy places in Jerusalem?

a)

Sikhism, Islam, Judaism

b)

Islam, Christianity, Hinduism

c)

Hinduism, Sikhism, Buddhism

d)

Islam, Christianity, Judaism

176.

Balkanization refers to

a)

a small geographic area that cannot successfully be organized into states

b)

religions splintering into opposing groups

c)

The breakdown of a state due to conflicts among Ethnicities

d)

ethnic cleansing

177.

After World War II ended, millions of people were forced to migrate because

a)

Counterattacks by the Allies

b)

Soviet repatriation of Gypsies and Jews

c)

changes in the boundaries of states

d)

German Expansion

178.
A simplified and modified form of a language.
a)
Lingua Franca
b)
Pidgin
c)
Toponym
d)
Official Language
179.

A good example of a monolingual country would be

a)

Japan

b)

Canada

c)

Switzerland

d)

South Africa

e)

Turkey

180.
For most of the past 2,000 years, most Jews have been
a)
highly clustered in present-day Israel.
b)
Dispersed around the world.
c)
concentrated in the United States
d)
forced in live in ghettos
181.
Palestinians include all but which of the following groups?
a)
Residents of Refugee camps
b)
residents of territories occupied by Israel
c)
citizens of other states calling themselves Palestinians
d)
Jewish citizens of Israel.
182.
State that has freedom over its own affairs has 
a)
centrifugal forces
b)
nationalism
c)
sovereignty
d)
pluralism
183.
Japan would be an example of a ______.
a)
Compact State
b)
Nation-State
c)
Multinational State
d)
Perforated States
184.
A group of people who share a common culture and identity as a cohesive group is a called a ___.
a)
Nation State
b)
Nation
c)
Country
d)
Sovereign State
185.

A state is a synonym for a

a)

territory

b)

country

c)

unit

d)

member

186.
Something pushes people apart is referred to as a ____.
a)
Centripetal Force
b)
Centrifugal Force
c)
Nationalism
d)
Ethnic conflict
187.
September 11th, was an example of a____ force which brought the United States together.
a)
Centrifugal
b)
Nationalistic
c)
Centripetal
d)
Ethnic
188.

The attempt by one country to force its political control over another territory is

a)

constitutionality.

b)

colonialism

c)

self-determination

d)

sovereignty.

189.
The world's largest state is
a)
China
b)
Canada
c)
United States
d)
Russia
190.
An area organized into a independent political unit is a 
a)
colony
b)
territory
c)
satellite
d)
State
191.
What country controls Greenland?
a)
Netherlands
b)
United Kingdom
c)
Denmark
d)
United States
192.
The European Union is an example of an ____ alliance.
a)
Military
b)
Nationalistic
c)
Political
d)
Economic
193.
What does NATO stand for?
a)
North Atlantic Trade Organization
b)
North American Trade Organization
c)
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
d)
North Alaskan Trade Organization
194.
A country with two or more ethnic groups living within in it is referred to as a ___.
a)
Nation State
b)
Balkan State
c)
National State
d)
Multinational State
195.
Process by which a state breaks down through conflicts among its ethnicities.
a)
Balkanization
b)
Apartheid
Apartheid
c)
Nationalism
d)
Ethnic Cleansing
196.
Process by which a more powerful ethnic group tries to remove a less powerful one in order to create a more homogenous region.
a)
Genocide
b)
Ethnic Cleansing
c)
Jim Crow Laws
d)
Nationalism
197.
The Holocaust was an example of a ___.
a)
Apartheid
b)
Balkanization
c)
Centripetal Force
d)
Genocide
198.
American, Canadian, French, and Norwegian are all considered a ___.
a)
Ethnicity
b)
Nationality
c)
Language
d)
Race
199.

A _________________________ is a state whose territory corresponds to that occupied by one particular ethnicity which has been transformed into a nationality.

a)

nation-state

b)

state

c)

multinational state

d)

trinational state

200.

U.N.

a)

international organization formed in 1945 to increase political and economic cooperation among 193 member countries.

b)

An internal organization of a state that allocates most powers to units of local government.

c)

an association of European nations formed in 1993 for the purpose of achieving political and economic integration.

d)

the parts of the ocean in which no government has sovereignty

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