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End of term Economics yr 13 Quiz

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why does no one firm dominate in a perfect competition?
a)
No firm wants to
b)
Each firm sells to different people
c)
Each firm produces so little of the total supply that they cannot influence prices
d)
One firm will eventually dominate and make it a monopoly
2.
Factors that make it difficult for new firms to enter a market are called
a)
Barriers to entry
b)
Factors of production
c)
Limited supply
d)
Monopolistic Outlook
3.

What prevents firms from entering a monopoly?

a)

Barriers to Entry

b)

Technology

c)

Price

d)

Barriers to Travel

4.
Businesses can "Collude" or work together to set prices
a)
Oligopoly
b)
Monopoly
c)
Perfect Competition
5.
Choose the example that goes best with an oligopoly.
a)
apples
b)
cell phone providers
c)
utilities
d)
clothing
6.

Which of the following industries is an example of a monopoly?

a)

utilities/water

b)

department stores

c)

auto industry

d)

commercial airlines

7.
The jeans industry would fall into what type of market structure? ( jeans are similar but there are some differences in the product)
a)
monopoly
b)
oligopoly
c)
perfect competition
d)
monopolistic competition
8.

A market that has a few sellers of basically the same goods.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Pure Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

9.

Public utilities are an example.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Natural Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

10.

Using the pizza store graphic, what market structure best fits the pizza industry?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Monopolistic competition

11.

If a single firm raises its price it will not be able to sell any of its output.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Pure Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

12.

In this market, the producer is the least responsive to buyers' needs and wants.

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Pure Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

13.

When firms agree to charge the same or similar prices for a product, this is known as

a)

price-fixing

b)

independent behavior

c)

natural monopoly

d)

laissez-faire

14.

Which type of market structures has many producers (companies) and sell similar but different products from each other? These companies have a little control over the price and there are relatively low barriers to entry.

a)

perfect competition

b)

monopolistic competition

c)

oligopoly

d)

monopoly

15.
List the four market structures in order from least competitive to most competitive.
a)
Oligopoly, Monopoly, Perfect Competition, Monopolistic Competition
b)
Perfect Competition, Oligopoly, Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition
c)
Monopoly, Oligopoly, Monopolistic Competition, Perfect Competition
d)
Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition, Perfect Competition, Oligopoly
16.

If a firm can change market prices by altering its output, then it

a)

Has market power.

b)

Faces a flat demand curve.

c)

Is a price taker.

d)

Engages in marginal cost pricing

17.

ability of a company to control prices and total market output

a)

market power

b)

price discrimination

c)

license

d)

government monopoly

18.

Which of the following industries is an example of a monopoly?

a)

utilities/water

b)

departments stores

c)

auto industry

d)

commercial airlines

19.

Market failure occurs whenever

a)

free markets fail to distribute resources efficiently.

b)

goods fail to arrive at a market in a timely fashion.

c)

government builds infrastructure.

d)

voluntary exchange in a market fails to result in a sale.

20.

When companies that form on oligopoly cooperate together to set or fix prices at a given level, they are engaging in

a)

Monopoly

b)

Vertical Integration

c)

Collusion

21.

Which one of the following is most likely to discourage the growth of a firm? The existence of

a)

diseconomies of scale at low levels of output.

b)

large economies of scale at low levels of output.

c)

large economies of scale at low levels of output.

d)

competing firms in the same industry

22.

A company wishes to increase labour productivity. All other things being equal, this is most likely to be achieved if the company

a)

employs more workers.

b)

reduces the wages it pays its employees.

c)

reduces current output.

d)

invests in more capital equipment.

23.
a)

remains constant

b)

falls over the whole range

c)

rises at first and then falls.

d)

falls at first and then rises

24.
a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

63

25.

Diseconomies of scale might arise because

a)

firms spend money on new technology which leads to lower average costs.

b)

decision-making by management becomes more difficult in larger firms.

c)

workers are more likely to be productively efficient in larger firms.

d)

larger firms can buy in bulk.

26.

Fill in the blank. Economies of scale is when as output _________, unit costs ________ in the long run.

a)

increases; decrease

b)

increases; increase

c)

decreases; increase

d)

decreases; decrease

27.

Internal economies of scale are those that

a)

Result from changes in production techniques

b)

Increase due to the growth of the industry as a whole

c)

Generate lower per unit production costs

d)

Reduce production costs in the short run

28.
Internal diseconomies of scale can be caused by
a)
Being unable to purchase stocks at a discounted price
b)
Management control being weakened with a larger workforce
c)
Traffic congestion causing delays to delivery of important stocks
d)
Advertising costs to a global audience
29.
Which of the following is not a cause of internal diseconomies of scale?
a)
Poor communication between different departments
b)
Lack of staff morale and motivation
c)
Less control, direction and coordination of human resources
d)
Late deliveries due to congestion in busy locations
30.

Larger firms are better able to diversify into a range of product areas or markets and thus lessen their risk. This is an example of

a)

Financial economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

31.

Large firms can afford to advertise and sell in larger quantities to develop brand loyalty. This is an example of

a)

Purchasing economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

32.

Large firms can negotiate better interest rates on loans; this reduces the costs of borrowing for larger companies. This is an example of

a)

Financial economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

33.

Large firms can buy raw materials in bulk at more favourable rates. This is an example of

a)

Purchasing economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

34.

Fill in the blank. __________ economies of scale occur due to an increase in the scale of production within a single firm

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Complex

d)

Simple

35.

Larger firms can hire specialists (e.g. managers, accountants) and are therefore able to increase productivity. This is an example of

a)

Purchasing economies of scale

b)

Technical economies of scale

c)

Managerial economies of scale

d)

Marketing economies of scale

e)

Risk bearing economies of scale

36.

Which of the following EOS refers to improving the production process?

a)

Financial

b)

Managerial

c)

Technical

d)

Purchasing

37.

Machinery is likely to be efficient. what economies does it indicate?

a)
Financial Economies
b)
Buying Economies
c)
Technical Economies
d)
Managerial Economies
38.
Technological economies of scale can only be feasible for a business if
a)
Banks lend money for the purchase of highly expensive technology
b)
Capital equipment is capable of producing mass units of a product in a short time
c)
There is an economic boom
d)
There is sufficient market demand for the product
39.
External economies of scale are cost savings available to the whole ________ as a result of its __________.
a)
Industry, Location
b)
Business, Location
c)
Industry, Size
d)
Business, Size
40.
If a firm increases its use of all factors of production but sees an increase in its average costs, this is a sign of
a)
Internal diseconomies of scale
b)
External returns to scale
c)
Diminishing marginal returns
d)
Decreasing returns to scale
41.
External economies of scale can arise from
a)
Bulk purchases of raw materials, parts and components at favourable prices
b)
The introduction and use of advanced technology
c)
Specialised back-up services available in a particular region
d)
Lower interest rates, thus reducing the cost of borrowing to large companies
42.
If a firm doubles its use of inputs and finds that output increases by 50%, then it has experienced
a)
Growth
b)
Economies of scale
c)
Diseconomies of scale
d)
Evolution
43.

Diseconomies of Scale result in a lower per unit production cost over the long run

a)

True

b)

False

44.

External economies of scale can arise from

a)

Bulk purchases of raw materials, parts and components at favorable prices by a particular business/firm

b)

Purchase and use of physical/human capital by a particular business/firm

c)

Greater availability of skilled laborers for a particular industry in a particular area

d)

A business/firm being able to obtain lower interest rates on loans

45.
Internal diseconomies of scale can be caused by
a)
Being unable to purchase stocks at a discounted price
b)
Management control being weakened with a larger workforce
c)
Traffic congestion causing delays to delivery of important stocks
d)
Advertising costs to a global audience
46.

Which of the following answers are business objectives?

a)

Survival

b)

Profit

c)

Specific

d)

Market share

47.

Which of the following is not a business objective?

a)

Corporate social responsibility

b)

Market share

c)

Growth

d)

Employment

48.

What is the first and most important objective of any business organisation?

a)

Profit Maximisation

b)

Growth

c)

Survival

d)

Social Responsibility

49.
What is a business objective?
a)
A statement of what the company has achieved.
b)
A statement of what the company is trying to achieve.
c)
A statement of what the company is currently achieving.
50.

The owner is rewarded for conducting business and bearing the risk. What is the form of reward the owner receives?

a)

Remuneration

b)

Commission

c)

Bonus

d)

Profit

51.

Which objective would this organisation have?

a)

Growth

b)

Customer Satisfaction

c)

Market leader/share

52.

A national sofa business aims to increase the number of sofas it sells in the UK compared to the number sold by all other UK sofa manufacturers.  Which of the following best describes this aim/objective?

a)

Increasing market share

b)

Maximising chances of survival

c)

Increasing profit

d)

Keeping full control over business decision-making

53.

What is a trade union?

a)

It is an organisation

b)

A group of workers

c)

Trade unions are independent organisations that represent workers to their employers.

d)

To register a trade union, you must apply to the Registrar of labour relations.

54.

What are the roles and responsibilities of Trade union?

a)

Is to ensure the welfare of its members such as safeguarding the interests of its members

b)

Protecting the reliability of its trade

c)

achieving higher wages by securing economic benefits

d)

All of the above

55.

Once a TU is recognised in a workplace, the negotiations with the employer are called...

a)

collective bargaining

b)

group bargaining

c)

informed bargaining

d)

bargaining

56.

The main function of trade unions is to obtain improved ___________ and working conditions for their members.

a)

wages

b)

surroundings

c)

dress codes

d)

none

57.

A strike is an example of _____________________________.

a)

an industrial agreement

b)

collective bargaining

c)

industrial action

d)

a lock out

58.

Which type of industrial action is displayed when workers follow the rules and regulations of the company exactly?

a)

Strike

b)

Work to rule

c)

Go slow

d)

Boycott

59.
A worker had to be in a union to be employed – giving a union 100% density
a)
Closed shop agreements
b)
Fully utilised labour involvement
60.
Which is not a potential cost of trade unions?
a)
Increased labour productivity
b)
Trade unions bargaining can cause cost-push inflation
c)
Time lost due to strike action.
d)
TUs go on strike and work unproductively (work to rule),
61.
Which is least likely to be considered a benefit of a trade union?
a)
TUs less relevant in the gig economy
b)
Productivity deals.
c)
Representation of workers in disputes, e.g. health, etc
d)
Trade unions can increase wages
62.

Which of the following can be regarded as a non-monetary factor affecting labour supply to an industry?

a)

The typical weekly working hours, as negotiated by an industry-representative trade union

b)

The amount of National Insurance that must be paid on earnings

c)

The opportunity to take advantage of overtime payments

d)

The wage differentials in the industry

63.

All other things being equal, which one of the following is most likely to cause the marginal revenue product of labour curve in the shoe manufacturing industry to shift to the right?

a)

  A decrease in money wage rates in the shoe industry.

b)

A decrease in the number of workers employed in the shoe industry.

c)

An increase in the market demand for shoes.

d)

An increase in the number of firms competing in the shoe industry.

64.

 The marginal revenue product of labour is the...

a)

addition to total revenue when the firm produces and sells an extra unit of output.

b)

amount produced per worker per time period.

c)

change in total output that is produced when one extra worker is employed.

d)

revenue gained by selling the extra output produced by employing one more worker.

65.

 All other things being equal, the demand for labour is more likely to be wage elastic if...

a)

it is difficult to substitute capital for labour.

b)

the cost of labour is a low percentage of total costs.

c)

the final product has a high price elasticity of demand.

d)

the supply curve for labour is wage elastic.

66.

Assuming a perfectly competitive labour market, a firm’s demand curve for labour would be derived from its marginal

a)

Cost curve

b)

Revenue curve

c)

Utility curve

d)

Revenue product curve

67.

The graph shows the market demand for labour (DL = MRPL), the market supply of labour (SL = ACL), and the marginal cost of labour (MCL), in a particular industry. The employer in this industry is a monopsonist. From the graph above, it can be concluded that, in the absence of a trade union or a minimum wage, the firm will employ...

a)

 OQ1 workers at a wage of OW1.

b)

OQ2 workers at a wage of OW1.

c)

OQ2 workers at a wage of OW2

d)

OQ2 workers at a wage of OW3.

68.

 

In a labour market dominated by a monopsonist, wages and employment are usually lower than in a competitive labour market. This is because a monopsonist...

a)

employs workers up to the point where the marginal revenue product of labour is equal to the wage rate.

b)

is a monopoly supplier of labour.

c)

restricts output to raise the price of the product sold.

d)

equates the marginal revenue product of labour with its marginal cost not the wage rate.

69.

The diagram below shows the marginal cost (MCL), average cost (ACL) and marginal revenue product (MRPL) curves for labour in a specialised computer programming industry. Following a series of mergers between firms in this industry, a single large firm remains as a monopsony employer. Which one of the following is the most likely to result from a competitive labour market being replaced by a monopsony employer?

a)

 

The total amount paid in wages will fall from

(W2 × Q2) to (W3 × Q1).

 

b)

The total amount paid in wages will increase from

(W3 × Q1) to (W1 × Q1).

c)

The wage rate will fall from W1 to W2.

d)

The wage rate will increase from W3 to W2.

70.

What is the average salary in the UK?

a)

£56, 497

b)

33,402

c)

24, 876

d)

43,567

71.

What's the largest generation group in the UK?

a)

Boomer (1946-1964)

b)

Gen X 1965 – 1980

c)

Millennials (1981-1996)

d)

Gen Z 1997 – 2012

72.

A rise in income increases the demand for leisure time and causes the supply of labour curve to shift

a)

left

b)

right

73.

More students are staying in education and completing a Masters, this would cause the supply of labour curve to shift...

a)

left

b)

right

74.

The upward sloping supply curve for labour reflects...

a)

The substitution effect

b)

The income effect

75.

A rise in income increases the demand for leisure time and causes the supply of labour curve to shift

a)

left

b)

right

76.

A rise in the population causes the supply of labour curve to shift to the...

a)

left

b)

right

77.

Market is any means through which ________

a)

buyers and sellers can exchange goods and services

b)

goods and services can be produced

c)

sellers can exchange goods with each other

d)

buyers can exchange goods with one another

78.

The major difference between wages and salary is ______

a)

salary is paid hourly while wages is paid monthly

b)

wages is paid weekly while salary is paid monthly

c)

salary is paid weekly while wages is paid monthly

d)

there are no differences between wages and salary

79.

Individual's choice of occupation can be influenced by _____ and _____

a)

wage factor and non-wage factor

b)

salary and wage factor

c)

time and money factor

d)

All of the above

80.

The demand for labour curve slopes______

a)

downward

b)

upward

c)

backward

d)

frontward

81.

The supply of labour curve slopes _______

a)

downward

b)

upward

c)

backward

d)

frontward

82.

Equilibrium wage rate is when_______

a)

quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

b)

demand does not equal to supply

c)

demand for labour is not the same as supply of labour

d)

demand for labour equals supply of labour

83.

What is the price of labour?

a)

Value

b)

Wages

c)

Labour productivity

d)

Human capital

84.

The demand for labour is said be

a)

Derived

b)

Infinite

c)

Direct

d)

Elastic

85.

Which of the following will cause wage rates to rise in a labour market?

a)

An increase in the supply of labour

b)

An increase in supply and a fall in the demand for labour

c)

An increase in the demand for labour

d)

A fall in demand for labour