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BMM COMPRE 2 FINALS

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is true about an entrepreneur?

a)

They work for themselves

b)

They work for others

2.
The act of assuming the risk of organizing productive resources to produce goods and services.
a)
business
b)
critical thinking
c)
entrepreneurship
d)
risk management
3.
Most entrepreneurs work long hours, but they create their own schedule.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
Which one of these is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a)
risk taker
b)
idea person
c)
generalist
d)
specialist
5.
All of the following are entrepreneurial skills, except
a)
business skills
b)
art skills
c)
mathematical skills
d)
communication skills
6.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?

a)

Risk-taking

b)

Innovative

c)

Confidence

d)

Lazy

7.

Which is a characteristic of a successful entrepreneur? (hint: choose 3 correct answers)

a)

Motivated

b)

Takes very little risk

c)

Passionate

d)

Hard-working

8.
Starting and owning a person's own business
a)
corporation
b)
entrepreneurship
c)
sole proprietorship
d)
partnership
9.
Entrepreneurs want to be their own bosses, set their own working hours, and make their own decisions.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Who created Facebook?
a)
Mark Zuckerberg
b)
Elon Musk
c)
JK Rowling
d)
Walt Disney
11.
The act of assuming the risk of organizing productive resources to produce goods and services.
a)
business
b)
critical thinking
c)
entrepreneurship
d)
risk management
12.
How do many people become millionaires?
a)
They save aggressively.
b)
They avoid debt.
c)
The invest their money.
d)
All of these
13.

Full form of MSME is

a)

a. Mini, small and Micro Enterprises

b)

b. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

c)

c. micro, Small and Macro enterprises

d)

d. Micro, small and Mini Enterprises

14.
Who can own a small business?
a)
Only a college graduate
b)
Anyone
c)
Only someone with a lot of money
d)
Only smart people
15.

This is a type of business that is owned & operated by 1 person.

a)

sole proprietorship

b)

partnership

c)

Corporation

d)

franchise

16.

Many small businesses have an advantage over larger businesses because they are better able to _____

a)

Provide unique services to customers

b)

Market their products

c)

Raise large amounts of financial capital

d)

Mass produce products

17.

Which of the following is not a common reason for the failure of small businesses?

a)

A lack of sufficient start-up money

b)

Shortage of skilled workers

c)

lack of management experience

d)

failure to manage credit offered to customers

18.

A(n) ____ is an invention or creation that is brand new.

a)

Development

b)

Improvement

c)

Innovation

d)

Advancement

19.

Before a business owner completes the business plan, he or she should ask business experts to review the plan.

a)

True

b)

False

20.
An individual who undertakes the risk associated with creating, organizing, and owning a business.
a)
Entrepreneurship
b)
Entrepreneur
c)
Venture
21.
When you go into business for yourself, there's a chance of damage or loss.  This is known as....
a)
opportunity
b)
venture
c)
business
d)
risk
22.

What is entrepreneurship?

a)

To develop, organize and manage a business venture with risks in order to make a profit.

b)

The art of making a deal.

c)

An innovating idea.

d)

Being competitive in the global marketplace.

23.
Business entity that is easy to start and has a single owner.
a)
proprietorship
b)
partnership
c)
limited liability company
d)
corporation
24.

What company did this famous entrepreneur start?

a)

Instagram

b)

Twitter

c)

Facebook

d)

Snapchat

25.

What is the concept of experiential marketing?

a)

Engaging consumers using branded experiences

b)

Conducting market research to understand consumer behavior

c)

Creating online content for social media marketing

d)

Selling products through traditional advertising

26.

Discuss the role of artificial intelligence in personalized marketing strategies.

a)

AI replaces human interaction in marketing strategies.

b)

AI analyzes customer data to create personalized marketing campaigns.

c)

AI has no impact on personalized marketing.

d)

AI only focuses on general marketing trends, not personalized strategies.

27.

The set or the different kinds of products made by a company is called as _____________

a)

product range or product line

b)

product placement

c)

product launch

d)

product lifecycle

28.

How do we get the information about what consumers want or need with regard to a particular brand

a)

market research

b)

market share

c)

market segment

d)

market challenger

29.

Brand Loyalty is defined as ___________

a)

The title given to a product by the company that makes it

b)

Using an existing name on another type of product.

c)

The ideas and beliefs people have about a brand.

d)

The tendency to always buy a particular brand.

30.

Awareness (Brand)

a)

The title given to a product by the company that makes it.

b)

Using an existing name on another type of product.

c)

The ideas and beliefs people have about a brand.

d)

The tendency to always buy a particular brand.

e)

How familiar people are with a brand (or its logo and slogan ).

31.

Product Life cycle is defined as

a)

The set of products made by a company.

b)

The use of a well-known person to advertise products.

c)

When products are used in films or TV programs.

d)

The introduction of a product to the market.

e)

The length of time people continue to buy a product. or the time frame from the introduction of product to its declining stage

32.

Creating a positive brand image takes marketing programs that link associations to the brand in memory. What kind of associations ensure a positive image?

a)

complex associations

b)

weak, favorable, and unique

c)

strong, favorable, and unique

d)

unrealistic associations

33.

Which of the following is/are associated with branding?

a)

influencing how people feel about their emotions that they exude when they think about a brand

b)

influencing what people do

c)

are we getting people to click on our on our ads?

34.
Which phase of the Product life cycle is a downward turn in sales leading to the demise of a product.
a)
Introduction
b)
Growth
c)
Maturity
d)
Decline
35.

When a manufacturer uses his own name as brand for his products, it is known as manufacturer’s brand.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The biggest disadvantage of branding is that it involves huge cost because brands are not created overnight and companies have to spend huge sums on advertising and publicity.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which logo is NOT shown in the picture?

a)

Nike

b)

Microsoft

c)

Apple

d)

McDonald's

38.

This is where the Competitive advantage comes from providing__________ to customers that competitors cannot imitate.

a)

Price

b)

Marketing channel

c)

Unique value

d)

Place

39.

This analysis provides insight into your competitors strengths, liabilities, goals, and methods.

a)

Competitive analysis

b)

Product analysis

c)

Product development

d)

Market analysis

40.

Product managers usually improve competitiveness by meeting market needs better than the_______?

a)

Market

b)

Competition

c)

Brand

d)

Price

41.

This refer to market analysis in order to create such data collection, research and interviews.

a)

Market plan

b)

Business analytics

c)

Research

d)

Inventory

42.

The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency of the product performance.

a)

Functional aspect

b)

Operational aspect

c)

Durability aspect

d)

Aesthetic aspect

43.

Large market size, does not always mean that the market has growth potential.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is the term for the process of dividing a total market into subgroups so that each group consists of buyers and users who share similar characteristics, but who are different from those in the other groups?

a)

market subdivision

b)

market targeting

c)

market positioning

d)

market segmentation

45.

In a SWOT analysis, which two elements are part of the internal environment?

a)

strengths and threats

b)

opportunities and threats

c)

strengths and opportunities

d)

weaknesses and strengths

e)

weaknesses and threats

46.

Which component of IMC involves creating and placing paid promotional messages in various media channels such as television, radio, print, outdoor, and digital platforms?

a)

Sales Promotions

b)

Direct Marketing

c)

Public Relations

d)

Advertising

47.

Which component of IMC encompasses activities aimed at managing and enhancing the reputation of an organization or brand?

a)

Public Relations

b)

Digital Marketing

c)

Personal Selling

d)

Sales Promotions

48.

Which component of IMC involves targeting specific individuals or groups with personalized messages and offers?

a)

Sales Promotions

b)

Direct Marketing

c)

Personal Selling

d)

Advertising

49.

What is personal selling particularly effective for?

a)

High-involvement products or services

b)

Low-involvement products or services

c)

Online marketing

d)

Social media marketing

50.

What is the main role of digital marketing in IMC?

a)

Generating leads

b)

Building relationships

c)

Creating a sense of urgency

d)

Engaging with the audience

51.

Restrictions on sources of products and services lays out the franchisee's obligations in a reference table

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

52.

The FDD does not contain information essential to potential franchisees about to make a significant investment.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

53.

The IFA is a method of distributing products or services involving a franchisor, who establishes the brand’s trademark or trade name and a business system, and a franchisee, who pays a royalty and often an initial fee for the right to do business under the franchisor's name and system.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

54.

                  A statement that presents the financial position of an entity at a given period.

a)

CASH FLOW STATEMENT

b)

STATEMENT OF FINANCIAL POSITION

c)

STATEMENT CHANGES IN EQUITY

d)

INCOME STATEMENT

55.

This package serves as a reference and resource so your client can contact you in the future. is unique to your company and highlights the best aspects of your organization. It must also show how you can add value to your potential client.

a)

PROMOTIONAL PACKAGE

b)

SALES PACKAGE

c)

RECRUITMENT PACKAGE

d)

OPERATIONS PACKAGE

56.

           This package meant to assist the franchisee to properly conduct the performance of the franchise.

a)

PROMOTIONAL PACKAGE

b)

SALES PACKAGE

c)

RECRUITMENT PACKAGE

d)

OPERATIONS PACKAGE

57.

                 This package is used as part of the franchisor’s response to initial inquiries by the prospective franchisee.

a)

PROMOTIONAL PACKAGE

b)

SALES PACKAGE

c)

RECRUITMENT PACKAGE

d)

OPERATIONS PACKAGE

58.

                Present the details of movement in owner’s equity over a period.

a)

CASH FLOW STATEMENT

b)

STATEMENT OF FINANCIAL POSITION

c)

STATEMENT CHANGES IN EQUITY

d)

INCOME STATEMENT

59.

                 Financial Report that reflects the company’s financial performance.

a)

CASH FLOW STATEMENT

b)

STATEMENT OF FINANCIAL POSITION

c)

STATEMENT CHANGES EQUITY

d)

INCOME STATEMENT

60.

  Are written records that convey the business activities and the financial performance of a company

a)

FINANCIAL RATIO

b)

FINANCIAL SYSTEM

c)

FINANCIAL STATEMENT

d)

MARKET VALUE RATIO

61.

1.                  A franchisee may pay initial development fees to retain the geographic for the reserved geographic area.

a)

MASTER FRANCHISEE

b)

AREA REPRESENTATIVE

c)

FRANCHISE BROKER

d)

AREA DEVELOPER

62.

The dividend yield ratio measures the amount of dividends attributed to shareholders relative to the market value per share.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.

The figures on a company's financial statements – the balance sheet, income statement, and cash flow statement – are used to conduct qualitative analysis and evaluate the company's liquidity, debt, productivity, margins, profitability, rates of return, and valuation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

Financial System are written records that convey the business activities and the financial performance of a company.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

A Marketing Plan is a detail strategy that a company will use to market its product to its customers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

What are some of the legal issues that may arise in an international franchising contract?

a)

Intellectual property rights, compliance with local laws and regulations, and dispute resolution.

b)

Copyright infringement, trademark protection, and product liability.

c)

Customer privacy, data protection, and taxation.

67.

What are some of the strategies that can help an international franchise succeed?

a)

Enhancing brand awareness, leveraging technology, and expanding into new markets.

b)

Standardizing products and services, avoiding cultural misunderstanding, and avoiding political conflicts.

c)

Adapting to local customs, offering unique products or services, and hiring local talent.

68.

What are some of the challenges that may be faced by an international franchisor and franchisee?

a)

Quality control, intellectual property rights, and market access barriers.

b)

Training and support, marketing, and technological advancements.

c)

Cultural differences, language barriers, legal and financial requirements, and brand recognition.

69.

What are some of the factors that should be considered when selecting and evaluating a potential international franchise partner?

a)

Market share, geographic location, currency exchange rates, and government policies.

b)

Experience, reputation, financial stability, cultural fit, and operational efficiency.

c)

Customer preferences, intellectual property rights, and the size of the franchise system.

70.

What are the typical steps involved in an international franchising contract?

a)

Strategic planning, financial analysis, fundraising, legal compliance, and compliance with regulations.

b)

Research, negotiation, contract drafting and signing, training, inspection, and monitoring.

c)

Startup, hiring, product development, marketing, and expansion.

71.

Who are the parties involved in an international franchising contract?

a)

Franchisor, franchisee, and the government.

b)

Franchisor, franchisee and shareholders.

c)

Suppliers, customers, and employees.

72.

What is an international franchising contract?

a)

A contract between two countries for franchising businesses in both countries.

b)

A contract between two companies for franchising business in one or multiple countries

c)

A contract between two individuals for franchising their businesses in different regions of the same country.

73.

Which of the following best describes a franchise?

a)

A cheap turnkey operation where the owner has a little responsibility

b)

A licensing arrangement between a company and another party licensing the use of the company name, products and processes

c)

A family owned business where the family agrees to pass its management down through the next generation

d)

A small business that has a special agreement with the government to use any of the country's resources.

74.

What can be a disadvantage associated with the use of a franchise?

a)

Proven business and system for franchisor

b)

Lack of flexible decision-making for franchisee

c)

Brand recognition for franchisor

d)

Turnkey operation for franchisee

75.

Which of the following fees are NOT associated with a franchise?

a)

Royalty

b)

Advertising Fee

c)

Franchise Fee

d)

Facility Fee

76.

Forecasting methods should be tailored to the specific needs of the organization rather than using a one-size-fits-all approach. Agree or Disagree?

a)

Agree

b)

Disagree

77.

Refers to the method of managing the resources necessary to deliver a company's products and services.

a)

Operational Control

b)

Operations Management

c)

Operational Management

78.

Which department of an organization is responsible for creating interest or driving the sales of a product or service?

a)

Human Resources

b)

Marketing

c)

Research and Development

79.

Which department of an organization is responsible for managing the financial transactions, including the tracking of income and expenses?

a)

Human Resources

b)

Finance/Accounting

c)

Public Relations

80.

Defined as the total output produced by a single input (resources i.e labor, capital, management)

a)

Production

b)

Productivity

c)

Single Factor Productivity

d)

Multi-Factor Productivity

81.

Refers to the total output produced per unit of an input (single factor).

a)

Productivity

b)

Single-factor Productivity

c)

Multifactor Productivity

82.

What is the term for the process of creating goods and services?

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Production

c)

Operations

83.

What is the term for the long-term goals that an organization aims to achieve?

a)

Strategy

b)

Vision

c)

Objectives

d)

Goals

84.

Which competitive advantage approach involves making an organization's offerings stand out in a way that adds value in the eyes of the customer?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Cost Leadership

c)

Quick Response

85.

Identifies the process of evaluating a company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

a)

PEST Analysis

b)

SWOT Analysis

c)

Porter's Five Forces

d)

Value Chain Analysis

86.

Which Strategic OM Decision focuses on the physical and intellectual capabilities of employees?

a)

Location Strategy

b)

Layout Strategy

c)

Human Resources and Job Design

d)

Supply Chain Management

87.

What defines the long-term goals and direction of an organization?

a)

Objectives

b)

Vision

c)

Plan

d)

Strategy

88.

What is the term for the main elements that contribute to the success of a business in a competitive environment?

a)

Key Performance Indicators

b)

Key Success Factors

c)

Business Analysis

d)

Market Segmentation

89.

What is the term for the unique strengths and abilities of a company that set it apart from competitors?

a)

Competitive Edge

b)

Core Competencies

c)

Key Success Factors

90.

What does QFD stand for in Quality Management?

a)

Quality Function Deployment

b)

Quality Function Development

c)

Quality Functionality Deployment

d)

Quality Functionality Development

91.

Which technology enables the creation of a virtual prototype before the actual physical model is built?

a)

Modular Design

b)

Computer Aided Design

c)

Computer Aided Manufacturing

d)

Virtual Reality Technology

92.

Refers to the approach that involves producing large quantities of a standardized item

a)

Mass Customization

b)

Product Focus

c)

Process Focus

d)

Repetitive Focus

93.

What is the term for the complete overhaul of a business's processes to achieve significant enhancements in its performance?

a)

Business Process Reengineering

b)

Process Redesign

c)

Computer Aided-Integrated Manufacturing(CIM)

d)

Flexible Manufacturing Systems (FMSs)

94.

The 'lead time' or duration required to complete a process from start to finish.

a)

Process Time

b)

Inventory

c)

Capacity

d)

Layout Decisions

95.

What is the term for the maximum potential output of a system under perfect conditions?

a)

Design Capacity

b)

System Potential

c)

Maximum Output

d)

Optimal Capacity

96.

Identifies the weakest link in a system or process

a)

Delay

b)

Design Capacity

c)

Bottleneck

d)

Theory of Constraints (TOC)

97.

Refers to a concept that identifies the weakest link in a chain of processes within an organization.

a)

Process Mapping

b)

Theory of Constraints

c)

Lean Management

d)

Operational Efficiency

98.

What is the method called that determines the point at which total cost and total revenue are equal?

a)

Cost-Benefit Analysis

b)

Break-Even Analysis

c)

Financial Analysis

d)

Profit Analysis

99.

What is the process of estimating the maximum amount of work that an organization is capable of completing in a given period?

a)

Production Estimation

b)

Capacity Analysis

c)

Workload Forecasting

d)

Capacity Planning

100.

This type of layout is commonly seen in shipyards, construction sites, and large aircrafts

a)

Product Oriented Layout

b)

Fixed Position Layout

c)

Process Oriented Layout

d)

Work Cell Layout