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Unit 5 & 6 AP Biology CED Review

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

2.

Which of the following does NOT increase variation in gamete formation?

a)

crossing over

b)

fertilization of gametes

c)

random assortment of chromosomes

d)

condensation of chromatin

3.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

4.

Which of the following does NOT support the concept of common ancestry for all organisms?

a)

DNA/RNA (genetic code) are shared by all living systems

b)

Ribosomes are found in all forms of life

c)

Glycolysis takes place in all organisms

d)

All organisms undergo sexual reproduction

5.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

6.

Which of the following best describes the phenotypic ratio of 6:3:3:2:1:1?

a)

Incomplete dominance & complete dominance on dihybrid cross

b)

Incomplete dominance on dihybrid cross

c)

Complete dominance on dihybrid cross

d)

Epistasis on dihybrid cross

7.

Describe the cause of a cross resulting in greater than 50% parental phenotypes and less then 50% recombinant phenotypes

a)

Genes are linked on the same chromosome

b)

Genes are located on different arms of the same chromosome

c)

Gene are on different chromosomes

d)

Gene are found in different gametes

8.

In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the _______________.

a)

mother

b)

brother

c)

father

d)

sister

9.

Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.

a)

Sex-Linked

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal

d)

Random

10.

Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event.

a)

Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express

b)

Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles

c)

Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer

d)

Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun

11.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

12.

When does the process of independent assortment take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

13.

When does the process of crossing over take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

14.

What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?

a)

telophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

anaphase II

15.

Which of the following is the predicted ratio of a testcross with a dihybrid?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:6:1

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

16.

Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

9:3:4

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1:1:1

17.

Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?

a)

Males have only 1 Y chromosome

b)

Females have only 1 Y chromosome

c)

Males have only 1 X chromosome

d)

Females have only 1 X chromosomes

18.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

19.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

20.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

21.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

22.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

23.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

24.

Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

25.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

26.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

27.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

28.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

intron removal

c)

poly-A tail

d)

TATA box

29.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

c)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

d)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

30.

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus

b)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol

c)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER

d)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol

31.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

32.

How do retroviruses violate the central dogma?

a)

Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA

b)

Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma

c)

Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA

d)

Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA

33.

Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?

a)

alternative RNA splicing

b)

post-transcriptional modification

c)

DNA methylation or histone acetylation

d)

operon inhibition

34.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

35.

Identify the primary source of genetic variation

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

independent assortment

36.

What determines the level of effect of a mutation?

a)

environmental context

b)

codon-anticodon pairing

c)

structure of protein

d)

process of meiosis

37.

Which of the following is NOT a process of horizontal acquisition of genetic information by prokaryotes?

a)

transformation

b)

transposition

c)

transduction

d)

transjugation

e)

Plasmation

38.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

c)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule