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AP Psych Review Exam Practice#2

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What structure in the ear is responsible for transducing sound waves into neural impulses?

a)

Auditory canal

b)

Tympanic membrane

c)

Cochlea

d)

Eustachian tube

2.

Which type of hearing loss is caused by damage to the cochlea or auditory nerve?

a)

Conduction deafness

b)

Sensorineural deafness

c)

Central deafness

d)

Mixed deafness

3.

Which of the following is a taste sensation humans can detect?

a)

Spicy

b)

Umami

c)

Metallic

d)

Sour

4.

Which sensory system is unique because it does not relay information through the thalamus?

a)

Vision

b)

Touch

c)

Hearing

d)

Smell

5.

The experience of taste is significantly influenced by which other sensory system?

a)

Auditory system

b)

Visual system

c)

Olfactory system

d)

Vestibular system

6.

The theory that suggests our spinal cord contains a neurological “gate” that either blocks or allows pain signals to pass to the brain is known as:

a)

Gate-control theory

b)

Pain threshold theory

c)

Sensory adaptation theory

d)

Signal detection theory

7.

Which sensory system helps us maintain balance and spatial orientation?

a)

Somatosensory system

b)

Vestibular system

c)

Kinesthetic system

d)

Gustatory system

8.

The sense of body position and movement of individual body parts is referred to as:

a)

Proprioception

b)

Vestibular system

c)

Kinesthetic system

d)

Somatosensory system

9.

The sense of body position and movement of individual body parts is referred to as:

a)

Proprioception

b)

Vestibular system

c)

Kinesthetic system

d)

Somatosensory system

10.

(a)   is a depressant that lowers inhibitions and slows neural processing.

Choose from the below words
Caffeine
Cocaine
Alcohol
LSD
11.

Psychoactive drugs that increase neural activity and speed up body functions are called:

a)

Depressants

b)

Stimulants

c)

Opiates

d)

Hallucinogens

12.

Match the following neurotransmitters with their associated functions.

a)

Acetylcholine

1.

Involved in muscle activation and memory

b)

Dopamine

2.

Associated with the brain’s reward system and the feeling of pleasure

c)

Serotonin

3.

Regulates mood, appetite, and sleep

d)

GABA

4.

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

13.

The brain imaging technique used to show both the structure and function of the brain by detecting where radioactive glucose is consumed is (a)  

Choose from the below words
MRI
PET scan
EEG
CT scan
14.

Match the following terms with their definitions.

a)

Neurogenesis

1.

The process of forming new neurons in the brain.

b)

Lateralization

2.

The specialization of the left and right hemispheres of the brain for different tasks.

c)

Plasticity

3.

The ability of the brain to adapt and reorganize itself, especially after injury.

d)

Localization

4.

The specific areas of the brain responsible for particular functions.

15.

Which hormone is known to regulate sleep-wake cycles?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Melatonin

d)

Cortisol

16.

The phenomenon where we fail to notice changes in our environment because our attention is elsewhere is called:

a)

Change blindness

b)

Inattentional blindness

c)

Divided attention

d)

Selective attention

17.

Which memory system holds information for a few seconds before it either decays or is transferred to short-term memory?

a)

Long-term memory

b)

Working memory

c)

Sensory memory

d)

Procedural memory

18.

The tendency to rely on information that comes to mind quickly when making a decision is known as:

a)

Availability heuristic

b)

Representativeness heuristic

c)

Algorithm

d)

Functional fixedness

19.

What is *proactive interference*?

a)

A) Difficulty remembering new information due to interference from old information.

b)

B) Difficulty recalling old information due to new information.

c)

C) The failure to encode new information into memory.

d)

D) The decay of memories due to lack of rehearsal.

20.

Which type of attention involves focusing on one particular stimulus while ignoring others?

a)

Divided attention

b)

Selective attention

c)

Sustained attention

d)

Inattentional blindness

21.

Which of the following describes *test reliability*?

a)

A) The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure.

b)

B) The consistency of test results over time.

c)

C) The ability of a test to predict future performance.

22.

Which of the following is a *binocular* cue for depth perception?

a)

Interposition

b)

Retinal disparity

c)

Linear perspective

d)

Relative size

23.

Which type of thinking is associated with generating novel and varied ideas for a problem?

a)

Convergent thinking

b)

Divergent thinking

c)

Functional fixedness

d)

Heuristic thinking

24.

Which type of memory is responsible for recalling how to perform a task like riding a bike?

a)

Episodic memory

b)

Semantic memory

c)

Procedural memory

d)

Working memory

25.

Which of the following is a *monocular* depth cue?

a)

Retinal disparity

b)

Convergence

c)

Interposition

d)

Binocular disparity

26.

A mental framework for organizing and interpreting information is known as:

a)

Heuristic

b)

Prototype

c)

Schema

d)

Algorithm

27.

In the multi-store model of memory, the first stage where information is held briefly is called:

a)

Long-term memory

b)

Short-term memory

c)

Sensory memory

d)

Episodic memory

28.

The inability to form new memories following brain trauma is called:

a)

Retrograde amnesia

b)

Anterograde amnesia

c)

Implicit memory loss

d)

Procedural memory loss

29.

Which term refers to our ability to perceive objects as unchanging despite changes in sensory input?

a)

Apparent motion

b)

Depth perception

c)

Perceptual constancy

d)

Bottom-up processing

30.

Which of the following is an example of the *representativeness heuristic*?

a)

Judging a book by its cover

b)

Using a rule of thumb

c)

Making a decision based on past experiences

d)

Choosing the most statistically probable outcome

31.

Vygotsky’s concept of scaffolding involves:

a)

Independent problem-solving

b)

Gradual assistance to support learning

c)

Instinctive cognitive growth

d)

Social conformity

32.

The zone of proximal development describes:

a)

Tasks that require assistance to be learned

b)

A child’s capacity for language acquisition

c)

A critical period in motor skills

d)

Unassisted learning zones

33.

Phonemes are:

a)

The smallest units of sound in a language

b)

The rules for combining words into sentences

c)

The meaning of words and sentences

d)

The social use of language

34.

Overgeneralization occurs when children:

a)

Use correct grammar consistently

b)

Overapply grammar rules, such as “runned” instead of “ran”

c)

Avoid using irregular forms

d)

Repeat a single word over and over

35.

Syntax in language refers to:

a)

Word meanings

b)

Sentence structure and grammar

c)

Basic sounds of language

d)

Non-verbal communication

36.

Which stage in language development involves understanding complex sentences?

a)

Babbling

b)

Telegraphic speech

c)

Two-word stage

d)

Complex sentence stage

37.

Authoritative parenting is characterized by:

a)

High responsiveness and high demands

b)

High demands and low responsiveness

c)

Permissive boundaries and few rules

d)

Minimal involvement in the child’s life

38.

A “secure” attachment in children is marked by:

a)

Anxiety in relationships

b)

Trust and a sense of security with caregivers

c)

Avoidance of close relationships

d)

Distrust in others

39.

According to Erikson, the primary conflict in adolescence is:

a)

Trust vs. Mistrust

b)

Initiative vs. Guilt

c)

Identity vs. Role Confusion

40.

In adulthood, Erikson’s stage of “Generativity vs. Stagnation” involves:

a)

Finding personal identity

b)

Forming close relationships

c)

Contributing to future generations

d)

Achieving personal accomplishments

41.

The “social clock” refers to:

a)

The biological timing of puberty

b)

Cultural expectations for major life milestones

c)

Developmental stages based on age

d)

Fixed intervals of personality development

42.

In classical conditioning, the unconditioned response is:

a)

The learned response

b)

An automatic reaction to a stimulus

c)

A neutral reaction

d)

Triggered by a conditioned stimulus

43.

When a conditioned response fades after the conditioned stimulus is no longer presented, this is called:

a)

Acquisition

b)

Extinction

c)

Spontaneous recovery

d)

Generalization

44.

Which of the following is an explanation of stimulus generalization?

a)

Only responding to the exact same stimulus

b)

Responding to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus

c)

Failing to respond after the stimulus is changed

d)

Associating the response with a new stimulus

45.

Higher-order conditioning involves:

a)

Repeating the unconditioned stimulus without the conditioned stimulus

b)

Creating a new conditioned response by associating it with a new stimulus

c)

Losing the conditioned response over time

d)

Reducing responses through repeated exposure

46.

Which of the following is the best example of the just-world phenomenon?

a)

A) Believing that bad things happen to people because they deserve them

b)

B) Assuming that a homeless person is lazy without considering external factors

c)

C) Believing that the world is a chaotic place without any reason behind events

d)

D) Assuming that everyone in a disadvantaged group is responsible for their situation

47.

What is the role of the amygdala in emotional responses?

a)

It processes and regulates long-term memory

b)

It is involved in regulating the autonomic nervous system

c)

It evaluates the emotional significance of stimuli and triggers emotional responses

d)

It helps with the regulation of stress hormones

48.

What is deindividuation?

a)

The loss of self-awareness and personal responsibility in group settings

b)

The process of evaluating one’s behavior against group norms

c)

The tendency to conform to the behaviors of others in a group

d)

The ability to recognize the influence of others on one’s actions

49.

Which of the following best defines "group polarization"?

a)

The tendency for group discussions to strengthen members' initial views

b)

The tendency for people to avoid making decisions in groups

c)

The process by which group members become less cohesive

d)

The tendency for groups to make better decisions than individuals

50.

Which of the following describes "social norms"?

a)

Guidelines for acceptable behavior in a group or society

b)

Universal laws that apply to all cultures

c)

Ways of thinking that people naturally adopt over time

d)

The values associated with higher status in society

51.

Which of the following is an example of "obedience"?

a)

Following a teacher’s instructions to complete an assignment

b)

Agreeing with a group opinion to avoid being left out

c)

Acting in a way that reflects your personal values and beliefs

d)

Refusing to follow a rule because it seems unfair

52.

According to the Schachter-Singer theory, which of the following is necessary for emotional experience?

a)

A) A cognitive label for the physiological state

b)

B) Just a physiological reaction to the stimulus

c)

C) Awareness of the situation in which the emotion occurs

d)

D) An automatic bodily response without interpretation

53.

What is the difference between prejudice and discrimination?

a)

Prejudice is an attitude, while discrimination is a behavior based on that attitude

b)

Prejudice is a behavior, while discrimination is a conscious thought process

c)

Prejudice and discrimination are the same and can be used interchangeably

d)

Prejudice is based on facts, while discrimination is based on emotional responses

54.

Which of the following best describes the concept of "conformity"?

a)

A) Changing one’s behavior to match the expectations of others

b)

B) Making decisions based on individual thoughts and values

c)

C) The willingness to argue with the majority opinion

d)

D) Avoiding group interaction to make personal decisions

55.

What does "self-fulfilling prophecy" mean?

a)

A) When an individual’s belief about another person leads them to act in ways that cause the person to behave in a way that confirms the belief

b)

B) When people act according to their beliefs but refuse to change their actions

c)

C) When people's behavior does not affect others' perceptions of them

d)

D) When a person's negative traits prevent them from achieving goals

56.

Which of the following is a common reason for people to conform in social settings?

a)

The desire to stand out from the group

b)

A need for approval and acceptance from others

c)

The need to assert their independence

d)

The desire to think independently

57.

What is deindividuation?

a)

A) The loss of self-awareness and personal responsibility in group settings

b)

B) The process of evaluating one’s behavior against group norms

c)

C) The tendency to conform to the behaviors of others in a group

d)

D) The ability to recognize the influence of others on one’s actions

58.

In Freud's psychodynamic theory, which part of the psyche is responsible for seeking immediate gratification?

a)

A) The superego

b)

B) The ego

c)

C) The id

d)

D) The unconscious

59.

What is the actor-observer bias?

a)

The tendency to attribute other people's behaviors to internal factors but our own behavior to external factors

b)

The tendency to attribute our own behavior to personal traits and others' behavior to the situation

c)

The tendency to attribute all behaviors to external situations

d)

The tendency to make assumptions about people based on their appearance

60.

What is "in-group bias"?

a)

The tendency to favor members of an out-group over members of one's in-group

b)

The tendency to assume that people in other groups share similar traits

c)

The tendency to favor one's own group and treat outsiders unfairly

d)

The tendency to overlook group differences when interacting with others

61.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?

a)

Excessive worry and fear of rejection

b)

Repeated violation of the rights of others and lack of remorse

c)

Strong need for attention and validation from others

d)

Intense fear of being judged by others in social situations

62.

What is one major advantage of using a biopsychosocial approach to diagnose psychological disorders?

a)

It focuses exclusively on biological factors

b)

It considers the interplay of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors

c)

It avoids using any psychological theories

d)

It applies a one-size-fits-all diagnostic tool

63.

Which psychological perspective focuses on unconscious thoughts and childhood experiences as causes of mental disorders?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Cognitive

c)

Psychodynamic

d)

Sociocultural

64.

What is the main characteristic of a dissociative disorder?

a)

An intense fear of social situations

b)

Disruptions in consciousness, memory, or identity

c)

Compulsive hand-washing

d)

Sudden emotional outbursts

65.

What is one common symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Decreased need for sleep

b)

Delusions or false beliefs

c)

Increased energy and motivation

d)

Avoidance of all social situations

66.

Which of the following is most commonly associated with depression?

a)

Hyperactivity

b)

Persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness

c)

Excessive spending

d)

Rapid speech and thoughts

67.

Which disorder is characterized by alternating periods of mania and depression?

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Major depressive disorder

d)

Panic disorder

68.

What is the main difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorders?

a)

Bipolar I includes manic episodes, while bipolar II only includes hypomanic episodes

b)

Bipolar I includes depressive episodes, while bipolar II does not

c)

Bipolar I involves mild mood swings, while bipolar II is characterized by extreme mood swings

d)

Bipolar I is more common than bipolar II

69.

Which of the following is a key symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

a)

Repeatedly washing hands or performing other rituals

b)

Intense fear of social interactions

c)

Sudden mood swings

d)

Hallucinations

70.

Which personality disorder is characterized by a lack of empathy and disregard for the rights of others?

a)

Antisocial personality disorder

b)

Narcissistic personality disorder

c)

Schizotypal personality disorder

d)

Borderline personality disorder

71.

What is the term used to describe the tendency of some individuals to develop mental disorders after experiencing extreme stress?

a)

Diathesis-stress model

b)

Conditioning model

c)

Cognitive-behavioral model

d)

Humanistic model

72.

Which of the following is considered a culture-bound syndrome?

a)

Taijin kyofusho

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Major depressive disorder

d)

Bipolar disorder

73.

Which of the following is a common symptom of PTSD?

a)

Sudden changes in appetite

b)

Flashbacks to the traumatic event

c)

Excessive sleeping

d)

Reduced emotional sensitivity

74.

Which therapy technique is most associated with treating phobias?

4 lines
75.

Which of the following is a common symptom of PTSD?

a)

Sudden changes in appetite

b)

Flashbacks to the traumatic event

c)

Excessive sleeping

d)

Reduced emotional sensitivity

76.

What does the cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) aim to do?

a)

Modify irrational beliefs and change maladaptive behaviors

b)

Explore repressed memories from childhood

c)

Focus exclusively on resolving unconscious conflicts

d)

Provide unconditional positive regard