wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

N6 Operations Full Topic Revision

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Another word for inventory is ...

a)

Stock

b)

Stores

c)

Sales

d)

Shares

2.

Which of the following item(s) could be included in the inventory records?

a)

Raw materials from suppliers

b)

Work-in-progress goods which are partially finished

c)

Finished goods ready to be sold

d)

Goods already sold and delivered to customers

3.

A company runs out of raw materials and production is halted as a result. This is likely to be due to ...

a)

Understocking

b)

Overstocking

c)

Minimum stocking

d)

Maximum stocking

4.

A company suffers the opportunity cost of money being tied up in stock which could have been used elsewhere. This is a disadvantage of ...

a)

Understocking

b)

Overstocking

c)

Minimum stocking

d)

Maximum stocking

5.

An increase in administration costs having to place emergency, rush orders with suppliers is a disadvantage of ...

a)

Understocking

b)

Overstocking

c)

Minimum stocking

d)

Maximum stocking

6.

Identify step A in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Maximum inventory level

b)

Re-order level

c)

Buffer stock

d)

Re-order quantity

7.

Identify step B in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Minimum inventory level

b)

Re-order level

c)

Understocking inventory level

d)

Re-order quantity

8.

Identify step C in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Minimum inventory level

b)

Re-order level

c)

Lead time

d)

Re-order quantity

9.

Identify step D in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Buffer stock

b)

Re-order level

c)

Lead time

d)

Re-order quantity

10.

Identify step E in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Buffer stock

b)

Re-order level

c)

Lead time

d)

Re-order quantity

11.

Identify step F in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

Buffer stock

b)

Re-order level

c)

Minimum inventory level

d)

Re-order quantity

12.

Describe step A in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The level which inventory levels should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance, security

b)

The point at which a new order is placed with the supplier so that it arrives in time to ensure the company does not go below the minimum inventory level

c)

The amount of inventory which a company has for emergencies only as it is below the minimum level recommended

d)

The amount of inventory which is ordered from the supplier to ensure the levels go back up to (and not above) maximum levels when it is delivered

13.

Describe step B in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The lowest level at which inventory should be at to prevent the risk of running out of materials, production being halted and costly emergency orders being placed

b)

The level above which inventory should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance

c)

The point at which a new order should be placed to ensure it arrives in time to avoid running out of stock altogether

d)

The time taken between placing an order for new supplies and it being delivered

14.

Describe step C in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The amount that is ordered from the supplier to ensure that it takes the company up to, and not beyond, maximum inventory levels when it arrives

b)

The level above which inventory should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance

c)

The point at which a new order should be placed to ensure it arrives in time to avoid running out of stock altogether

d)

The least amount of inventory that should be held to avoid the consequences of understocking e.g. delayed production, costly emergency orders which lose out in bulk buying discounts.

15.

Describe step D in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The amount that is ordered from the supplier to ensure that it takes the company up to, and not beyond, maximum inventory levels when it arrives

b)

The level above which inventory should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance

c)

The point at which a new order should be placed to ensure it arrives in time to avoid running out of stock altogether

d)

The time taken between placing an order and its delivery to the company. It can be affected by distance, availability with supplier and weather conditions

16.

Describe step E in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The amount that is ordered from the supplier to ensure that it takes the company up to, and not beyond, maximum inventory levels when it arrives

b)

The level above which inventory should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance

c)

The point at which a new order should be placed to ensure it arrives in time to avoid running out of stock altogether

d)

The time taken between placing an order and its delivery to the company. It can be affected by distance, availability with supplier and weather conditions

17.

Describe step F in the Inventory Management diagram above.

a)

The amount of stock below the minimum level which is available in an emergency e.g. delay to deliveries

b)

The level above which inventory should not go above to avoid the cost of holding stock e.g. theft, obsolescence, insurance

c)

The point at which a new order should be placed to ensure it arrives in time to avoid running out of stock altogether

d)

The time taken between placing an order and its delivery to the company. It can be affected by distance, availability with supplier and weather conditions

18.

What is the correct definition of Just in time inventory management?

a)

a system where materials are ordered to arrive just before they are needed in production

b)

a system where materials delivered before any order is received from a customer

c)

a system where materials are stock piled to avoid any risks of understocking

d)

a system which benefits from bulk buying discounts as large orders are placed irregularly

19.

Which is NOT a benefit of JIT inventory management?

a)

Deliveries are never late and production is not delayed as a result

b)

There is little need for warehousing so costs are saved

c)

No money is tied up in stock and it therefore helps with cash flow

d)

Supports lean production and avoids wastage

20.

What is NOT a cost of JIT inventory management?

a)

The business is not able to react to changes in external factors rapidly

b)

It takes time to develop excellent relationships with suppliers which is essential if JIT is to work well

c)

Relies on good infrastructure e.g. roads, railways, airports which is outwith the control of the business

d)

Delivery delays can have costly consequences and result in customer dissatisfaction

21.

Inventory is often stored in warehouses which can either be centralised storage or decentralised storage. Which has one, very large purpose built warehouse where the inventory is delivered to a number of smaller locations only when it is needed?

a)

Centralised inventory storage

b)

Decentralised inventory storage

c)

National inventory storage

d)

Storeroom inventory storage

22.

Which of the following is NOT a valid discussion point about Centralised Inventory Storage

a)

Inventory is always close to hand when needed

b)

Large amounts can be ordered therefore helps to create benefits from economies of scale

c)

Specialist staff and equipment needed which can be costly

d)

Standardised procedures for inventory used across the company which increase efficiency

23.

Which of the following is NOT a valid discussion point about Decentralised Inventory Storage

a)

Smaller, more local warehouses are move responsive to local needs

b)

Can lead to less theft of stock as security is better than centralised storage

c)

Smaller orders to do attract the same amount of discounts from suppliers

d)

There is less risk of delays between transporting materials from the centralised location to individual branches/retail outlets/production locations

24.

Which of the following answer(s) are valid in a discussion on the use of a computerised inventory control system?

a)

Inventory balances are automatically up-dated when stock is issued

b)

Orders can be placed automatically with suppliers when the minimum inventory level is reached

c)

Can produce reports which highlight issues for management to investigate e.g. potential theft

d)

Time and money is needed to train stores staff and purchase/maintain IT equipment

25.

What does CAD stand for?

a)

Computer Aided Design

b)

Computer Aided Drawing

c)

Computer Assisted Design

d)

Computer Assisted Drawing

26.

What is a benefit of CAD?

a)

A 3-D model can be created to share with customers

b)

Accuracy of the drawing is increased with human error

c)

The initial expense of equipment and software is cheap

d)

There is little need for staff training

27.

What is a disadvantage of CAD?

a)

It is harder to share ideas with different staff

b)

It is necessary to print paper copies which costs money

c)

Training and software costs can be high

d)

Accuracy of drawings is reduced as there is more human errors

28.

What does CAM stand for?

a)

Computer Aided Manufacture

b)

Computer Assisted Manufacture

c)

Computer Aided Modelling

d)

Computer Assisted Modelling

29.

What are the advantage(s) of CAM? There may be more than one correct answer.

a)

It can help the production line run 24/7

b)

It can do more complex jobs than humans could

c)

It can do more dangerous jobs than humans should

d)

It produces product designs which can be shared with staff in other locations

30.

What pieces of technology does an EPOS system need? There may be more than one correct answer.

a)

Scanner

b)

Software to record inventory levels e.g. database or spreadsheet

c)

Bar codes/QR codes

d)

Email or Internet to send orders to suppliers which are automatically generated

31.

What are being described below - automated and programmable machines which are capable of movement similar to humans as it moves on two or more axes.

a)

Robotics

b)

Automation

c)

Mechanisation

d)

Technology

32.

This is an example of a bar code - true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What are the advantages of using a GPS system in the Operations area of business? More than one answer may be correct.

a)

It can track delivery to customers to provide better ETA information(estimated time of arrival)

b)

It can help delivery drivers take the shortest route to their final destination which reduces fuel consumption

c)

It can track staff movements to ensure personal journeys are not being taken with company vehicles

d)

It can place orders with suppliers when the re-order level has been reached

34.

Which is NOT a valid use of the Internet by the Operations function?

a)

To apply for a bank loan to fund an advertising campaign

b)

To search for new suppliers of inventory items

c)

To research processes used by rival companies to feed into benchmarking

d)

To apply for a quality standard logo on-line with the issuing body e.g. Fairtrade Foundation

35.

The collective name for the technology in the photo is ..

a)

Renewable energy sources

b)

Energy production sources

c)

Unsustainable energy sources

d)

Wind and sunlight power

36.

What is a valid use of remote meetings (video conferencing) for the OPERATIONS department?

a)

To hold a meeting of key global staff about a major quality/production problem which has arisen

b)

To hold a meeting of key global staff about a potential advertising campaign to boost sales

c)

To hold a meeting of key global staff about a new recruitment drive at top universities

d)

To hold a meeting of key global staff about a proposed share issues to provide funds for a takeover

37.

Which are valid uses of spreadsheets in the Operations function? There may be more than one correct answer.

a)

To create charts to show the number of quality faults discovered each day during sample inspections.

b)

To calculate the average lead times taken for inventory deliveries over the last month

c)

To produce an attractive and eye-catching CSR report detailing ethical Operations

d)

To store details of suppliers e.g. address, date last order placed which can generate a report via queries

38.

Which answers below are valid reasons for the Operations staff to use e-mail? There may be more than one correct answer.

a)

To send an emergency order to a local supplier if inventory levels are low

b)

To request information from the company who maintain the robotic machines on the assembly line

c)

To send out information about the date and time of next quality circle meeting to all staff involved

d)

To e-mail customers about the next out-of-the-pipeline sales promotion to boost sales

39.

What is NOT a valid benefit of technology in Operations?

a)

Reduces human errors and wastage

b)

Can increase speed of production

c)

Can remove risk associated with completing dangerous tasks

d)

Can help source cheaper suppliers of higher quality

e)

Can increase public profile

40.
Which is NOT a characteristic of a high quality product?
a)
Reliable product that work well
b)
Meets specification agreed between supplier and customers
c)
Increases the level of customer complaints
d)
Has little wastage and is environmentally sound
41.
A disadvantage of quality measures implemented by a company is that ...
a)
Substandard products are not sold to customers 
b)
More likely to develop a good reputation
c)
More workers will be employed in quality checking
d)
Less wastage
42.
What way of improving quality relies on staff checking raw materials or a final product at the end of production for faults which are then discarded as waste or sent back for reworking?
a)
Quality Assurance
b)
Quality Control
c)
Quality Insurance
d)
Quality Management
43.
What way of improving quality relies on staff checking at various stages of the production process for faults which are then discarded as waste or sent back for reworking?
a)
Quality Assurance
b)
Quality Control
c)
Quality Insurance
d)
Quality Management
44.

What is the best description of benchmarking as a method of ensuring quality?

a)

Checking items at the end of the production pocress for any faults

b)

Copying and/or improving on the techniques used by the best rival company in your industry

c)

Small group of employees meeting regularly to discuss how to improve production process

d)

Creation of a 'quality culture' where everyone else to get things right first time

45.

What is the best description of quality circles as a method of ensuring quality?

a)

Checking items at the end of the production process for any faults

b)

Copying and/or improving on the techniques used by the best rival company in your industry

c)

Small group of employees meeting regularly to discuss how to improve production process

d)

Creation of a 'quality culture' where everyone else to get things right first time

46.
Which is NOT a recognised method of ensuring quality?
a)
Purchasing high quality raw materials
b)
Recruiting and training staff to a high standard
c)
Maintaining equipment and replacing old technology
d)
Implementing a piece rate wage system for staff
47.

Which statement below is NOT correct when distinguishing quality control and quality assurance?

a)

QC - checks are only made at the first input and end of output whereas QA - checks are made at each stage

b)

QC - focuses on prevention of errors and waste whereas QA - assume a certain level of waste is expected

c)

QC is the simplest and cheapest inspection whereas QA is more expensive due to more frequent checks being made

d)

QC creates waste whereas QA investigates and fixes the reason behind waste creation

48.

True of False - Quality Control is more about inspection and Quality Assurance is more about prevention

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the name of this quality standard symbol?

a)

British Kitemark

b)

British Trade Association

c)

British Safety Standard

d)

British Sales Authority

50.

Which answer below is NOT an advantage of having a quality standard logo for your company's product?

a)

It gives your company a competitive edge against rivals

b)

It gives the consumer more confidence in the quality of your product which could mean repeat purchases and can charge a higher price

c)

Likely to have less customer complaints

d)

Annual checks e.g. by the BSI are swift and allow for the occasional drop in standards

51.

Which answer below is NOT a disadvantage of having a quality standard logo for your company's product?

a)

Process and paperwork to get the logo is time consuming

b)

If the award is removed, it can give the business a bad reputation

c)

Rigorous record keeping must be made e.g. of all purchases

d)

It leads to more waste and complaints from customers

52.

Which two statements below are advantages of operating quality circles?

a)

Employees are motivated as they are involved in decision making process

b)

Management benefit from ideas from those at the 'sharp-end' which are, therefore, easier to implement

c)

Training staff to take part is cheap and quick

d)

Productivity is lost as employees attend meetings

53.

Which statement is NOT an advantage of Benchmarking?

a)

It forces companies to improve performance through comparison with top rival

b)

Saves the company time trying to develop own practices and processes

c)

Can be motivational for employees by giving them goals to achieve

d)

Can be motivational for employees by giving them decision making powers

54.

Which statement is NOT a disadvantage of Benchmarking?

a)

It can be difficult to gather information about rival as it is often not published

b)

Can be difficult to find a company suitable to benchmark with

c)

Finances may mean that 'best in industry' techniques cannot be afforded or staff expertise is not available

d)

Employees meet during company time therefore production time is lost

55.

What name is given to someone who poses as a real customer to assess customer service levels and provide feedback to management?

a)

Mystery Shopper

b)

Mystery Customer

c)

Undercover Shopper

d)

Undercover Customer

56.

What is NOT an advantage of the quality method demonstrated in the image above?

a)

Employees are motivated as they have a say in decision making

b)

The researcher is not biased as they are not a permanent employee of the company

c)

Feedback can suggest specific improvements

d)

They will not share experiences with others - giving the company a chance to fix any issues they spot

57.

Which answer is NOT a disadvantage of the quality method demonstrated in the image above?

a)

It is hard to gather information about rivals as it is not necessarily published

b)

Staff may act unnaturally if aware of their presence

c)

Staff may feel resentful if they think they're being snooped on

d)

Feedback is not necessarily representative of the whole company

58.

Which statement below is correct?

a)

Kaizen is a Chinese idea on how to improve quality and ensure ineffiency

b)

Kaizen is a Japanese philosophy on how everyone in the business should focus on continual improvement of quality

c)

Quality circles is another name for Kaizen which looks at having a few selected staff concentrate on quality improvement

d)

Kaizen idea is founded on the principle of finding the one best way to ensure quality, then sticking with it long-term

59.

Continual improvement ethos accepts what level of errors?

a)

Zero

b)

5%

c)

Depends on the skill of staff and quality of materials

60.

What does capital-intensive production primarily use to produce products?

a)

Money

b)

Employees

c)

Machinery

d)

Materials

61.

In capital-intensive production, what does CAM stand for?

a)

Computer Aided Machinery

b)

Computer Automated Machinery

c)

Computer Aided Manufacture

d)

Computer Automated Manufacture

62.

Which capital-intensive production method uses robotics?

a)

Automation

b)

Mechanisation

c)

Job production

d)

Batch production

63.

Which answer below is NOT an advantage of automation?

a)

Replacing staff with robotics will motivate retained employees

b)

Standardised products are produced each time which improves consistency

c)

Robots can do jobs which are dangerous for staff

d)

Robots don't need holidays, breaks and can work 24/7

64.

What name is given to the capital-intensive production process where labour and machines work together to manufacture products?

a)

Mechanisation

b)

Automation

c)

Robotics

d)

CAM

65.

Which answer(s) below are advantages of mechanisation?

a)

Using machinery helps to improve the accuracy of hand made products

b)

Speed of production is improved compared to just using labour

c)

There is likely to be no human errors so waste is zero

d)

Overall costs are less as labour is cheap and there are no machinery/equipment costs

66.

What name is given to the production method which involves humans doing most of the manufacturing work?

a)

Labour-intensive production

b)

People-integral production

c)

Employee-intensive production

d)

Artisan production

67.

Which answer below is NOT an advantage of the production method in this photo?

a)

Recruitment and training costs are low

b)

No need to invest in automation which is expensive

c)

In some countries, the supply of labour is plentiful and cheap

d)

Employees can use their initiative and creativity

68.

Which answer(s) below are a factor to be considered when choosing a production method?

a)

Quantity of products required

b)

Skill of workforce available

c)

Location of the warehouse

d)

Lead time of inventory deliveries

69.

Which answer(s) below are a factor to be considered when choosing a production method?

a)

Finance available within the company

b)

The availability of technology to use

c)

Cost of labour

d)

Cost of inventory

70.

What is the best description of ethical practices?

a)

Doing what is morally right in business and avoiding what is morally wrong

b)

Being 'green' and taking care of the environment

c)

Treating customers and staff of all nationalities and races equally

d)

Upholding all legislation requirements

71.

What ethical practice is being shown in the image above?

a)

No animal testing

b)

Using ethical suppliers

c)

Using local suppliers

d)

Paying above minimum wage levels

72.

Ethics and environmental issues may feature in a company's CSR strategy. What does CSR stand for?

a)

Company Social Responsibility

b)

Corporate Social Responsibility

c)

Complete Staff Responsibility

d)

Company Standards and Responsibilities

73.

Which example below is an ethical rather than environmental issue?

a)

Waste disposal

b)

Food labelling

c)

Packaging

d)

Carbon footprint/energy use

74.

Which example below is an environmental rather than ethical issue?

a)

Food labelling

b)

Recycling

c)

Fairtrade

d)

Supporting local suppliers

75.

In the 3 'R' statement on environmental best practice, which word is missing?


Reduce, ________ , recycle

a)

Retain

b)

Reuse

c)

Remove

d)

Resource

76.

Which example below would NOT directly reduce carbon emissions?

a)

Encouraging staff to cycle to work rather than drive

b)

Reducing size of packaging to reduce number of deliveries needed

c)

Hold video conferencing meetings rather than send staff overseas using flights

d)

Apply for accreditation with the Fairtrade Foundation

e)

Using renewable energy sources such as solar panels and wind turbines

77.

Find the missing word.

Velvet's promise to replace three trees for each one it uses to produce toilet roll is an example of _________________ raw materials?

a)

Sustainable

b)

Recycled

c)

Environmental

d)

Ethical

78.

What name is given to the place where waste is often taken - shown in this picture?

a)

Landfill

b)

Quarry

c)

Refuse disposal site

d)

Beach

79.

What name is given to packaging of products which will break down and decompose more easily?

a)

Biodegradable

b)

Recyclable

c)

Reusable

d)

Sustainable

80.

Which example below is an ethical rather than environmental issue?

a)

Waste disposal

b)

Food labelling

c)

Packaging

d)

Carbon footprint/energy use

81.

Which is NOT an advantage for a company who tries to be environmentally responsible?

a)

It can help sustain their activities in the future

b)

It can gain a positive reputation for caring for the environment

c)

It can save money by using renewable energy

d)

It can access unlimited natural resources when needed e.g. wind, sun

82.

Which is a major disadvantage of being environmentally responsible?

a)

It does not help the Government meet its targets

b)

It can put off attracting high quality candidates

c)

It cannot be used for promotional purposes

d)

It requires a large investment which is expensive in the short-term

83.

Fairtrade happens when suppliers of raw materials receive what for their goods?

a)

Guaranteed and fair price

b)

Regular orders

c)

Less complaints

d)

Extra publicity

84.

Which are the benefits of using/selling Fairtrade products? There may be more than one correct answer!

a)

The logo can make the product seem more appealing to customers who share Fairtrade values

b)

It demonstrates commitment to CSR statement

c)

It avoids sustainability of the supply chain

d)

It helps reduce business costs as Fairtrade products are often cheaper

85.

Which are the disadvantages of using/selling Fairtrade products? There may be more than one correct answer!

a)

Losing the Fairtrade logo after gaining one might attract bad press

b)

It can limit the choice of supplier that a business has

c)

It can cause sustainability of supply chain in the future

d)

Fairtrade products push prices down and affects profits

86.

Which product is NOT currently part of the Fairtrade Foundation range?

a)

Fizzy drinks

b)

Drinking chocolate

c)

Bananas

d)

Coffee beans

87.

Which company first introduced reusable coffee cups for customers to reduce waste?

a)

Starbucks

b)

Costa Coffee

c)

McDonalds

d)

Café Nero

88.

Companies are encouraged to disclose more information about the contents of their food on labels. Is this an environmental or ethical issue?

a)

Environmental

b)

Ethical

89.

What are costs of proper recycling for a business? There may be more than one correct answer!

a)

Time spent having to wash and sort out items

b)

Cost of setting up an area to have the recycling bins

c)

Training costs to instruct staff on how to recycle properly

d)

The fines to be paid for failing to meet recycle targets