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DARPA TEST

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many branches are there in the military?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

2.

Which of the following is a benefit of joining a branch of the military?

a)

No educational opportunities

b)

No physical fitness requirements

c)

Unlimited vacation days

d)

Free healthcare

3.

Which branch of the military is responsible for protecting the country's airspace?

a)

Coast Guard

b)

Air Force

c)

Navy

d)

Army

4.

Which branch of the military primarily focuses on maritime operations?

[Maritime = connected with the sea, especially in relation to seafaring commercial or military activity]

a)

Army

b)

Navy

c)

Air Force

d)

Marines

5.

True or False: All military occupations are combat-oriented.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What is the primary role of the Coast Guard?

a)

Conducting search and rescue operations

b)

Managing military satellites

c)

Overseeing military parades

d)

Training new recruits

7.

Which branch of the military is known for its amphibious warfare capabilities?

a)

Army

b)

Navy

c)

Air Force

d)

Marines

8.

What is the primary mission of the Army National Guard?

a)

International peacekeeping

b)

Domestic emergency response

c)

Space exploration

d)

Maritime law enforcement

9.

What is the highest rank in the Military?

a)

Chief

b)

Five-star General

c)

Major General

d)

Private

10.

What is the lowest rank in the Military?

a)

General

b)

Captain

c)

Private

d)

Specialist

11.

Which of the following is true regarding the US Department of Defense?

a)

It is America's largest employer

b)

America's second largest employer

c)

It is America's fifth largest employer

12.

How old do you need to be to join the military?

a)

16

b)

18, or 17 with parent consent

c)

21

d)

Age doesn't matter as long as your parent or guardian consents

13.

Which of the following is the name of the newest military branch?

a)

Space Force

b)

Guardians of the Galaxy

c)

The Federation

d)

Space Armada

14.

True or False: The military provides housing for its members.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

In what year did World War II end?

a)

1942

b)

1943

c)

1944

d)

1945

16.

What is the largest military installation in the US?

a)

Fort Bragg

b)

Fort Hood

c)

Fort Benning

d)

Fort Bliss

17.

What does the military nickname "G.I." stand for?

a)

Government Identity

b)

Gentleman Inducted

c)

Government Issue

d)

Gallant Individual

18.

What does ASVAB stand for?

a)

American Service Vocational Aptitude Battery

b)

Armed Services Volunteer American Battery

c)

Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery

d)

Armed Services Vocation Assessment Battery

19.

In the Enlistment Oath, Who Do Military Enlisted Personnel Swear to Obey the Orders of?

a)

The Secretary of Defense & Officers

b)

The President & the Secretary of Defense

c)

The President, Secretary of Defense, & Officers

d)

The President & Officers

20.

Which U.S. Military Service has the most 4-Star Generals?

a)

Army

b)

Navy

c)

Air Force

d)

Marines

21.

What does the Acronym "M.A.S.H." Stand For?

a)

Doesn't Actually Stand for Anything

b)

Military Army Surgical Hospital

c)

Military Assistance Support HeadquartersMASHMASH

d)

Mobile Army Surgical Hospital

22.

Approximately how many veterans and their eligible dependents are buried at Arlington National Cemetery?

a)

200,000

b)

400,000

c)

800,000

d)

1,000,000

23.

“Semper Paratus” is the official song of the:

a)

Army

b)

Navy

c)

Marines

d)

Coast Guard

24.

This branch of the military adopted "Semper Fidelis" as its official motto in 1883. It is Latin for Always Faithful.

a)

Army

b)

Navy

c)

Air Force

d)

Marines

25.

What is the only branch of the US military to share a name with a best selling line of Nike sneakers?

a)

Marines

b)

Navy

c)

Army

d)

Air Force

26.

Choose the correct A.M. time.

a)

0539

b)

0440

c)

1639

d)

0439

27.

Choose the correct P.M. time.

a)

0830

b)

0800

c)

1600

d)

2000

28.

Choose the correct A.M. time.

a)

1200

b)

2359

c)

1159

d)

2300

29.

Choose the correct P.M. time.

a)

0157

b)

1457

c)

0257

d)

1357

30.

Choose the correct P.M. time.

a)

2033

b)

2233

c)

1033

d)

1233

31.

What does DARPA stand for?

a)

Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency

b)

Department of Advanced Research and Projects Agency

c)

Development and Research Projects Agency

d)

Defense and Research Projects Agency

32.

In which year was DARPA founded?

a)

1955

b)

1958

c)

1962

d)

1970

33.

Which of the following is a notable accomplishment of DARPA?

a)

Development of the World Wide Web

b)

Creation of the Internet

c)

Invention of the smartphone

d)

Launch of the first satellite

34.

DARPA played a significant role in the development of which of the following technologies?

a)

GPS

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Fiber optics

d)

Nuclear power

35.

Which of the following is a project initiated by DARPA?

a)

Project Apollo

b)

Manhattan Project

c)

ARPANET

d)

Human Genome Project

36.

DARPA is an agency of which government department?

a)

Department of Energy

b)

Department of Defense

c)

Department of Homeland Security

d)

Department of Commerce

37.

Which of the following is NOT a focus area of DARPA?

a)

Artificial Intelligence

b)

Space Exploration

c)

Biotechnology

d)

Fashion Design

38.

DARPA's research has contributed to advancements in which field?

a)

Quantum Computing

b)

Culinary Arts

c)

Classical Music

d)

Ancient History

39.

Which of the following is a DARPA program aimed at developing autonomous vehicles?

a)

Urban Challenge

b)

Space Race

c)

Genome Project

d)

Clean Energy Initiative

40.

DARPA's work in the field of robotics led to the development of which of the following?

a)

Roomba

b)

ASIMO

c)

BigDog

d)

Watson

41.

Which of the following is a DARPA initiative focused on cybersecurity?

a)

Cyber Grand Challenge

b)

Cyber Security Act

c)

Cyber Defense League

d)

Cyber Protection Program

42.

DARPA's research in materials science has led to the development of which of the following?

a)

Graphene

b)

Kevlar

c)

Carbon Nanotubes

d)

Teflon

43.

Which of the following is a DARPA project related to brain-machine interfaces?

a)

BrainGate

b)

Neuralink

c)

Brain Initiative

d)

Brainstorm

44.

DARPA's work in the field of prosthetics has resulted in the development of which of the following?

a)

Bionic Arm

b)

Artificial Heart

c)

Cochlear Implant

d)

Retinal Implant

45.

Which of the following is a DARPA project aimed at enhancing human performance?

a)

Super Soldier Program

b)

Human Performance Augmentation

c)

Enhanced Human Initiative

d)

Human Optimization Program

46.

Two 6 Star General or Generals of the Armies

a)

General John J. Pershing USA

b)

Gen Charles Q. Brown Jr

c)

General George Washington USA

d)

The Honorable Mrs. Christine Wormuth

47.

Seniority of Services

a)

Army

b)

Marine Corps

c)

Navy

d)

Air Force

e)

Space Force

48.

First US Medal of Honor Recipient

a)

Gen Charles Q. Brown Jr

b)

Gen James C. McConville USA

c)

The Honorable Mr. Carlos Del Toro

d)

Private Jacob Parrott USA

49.

When was E8 and E9 established?

a)

June 17, 1775

b)

October 13, 1775

c)

June 1, 1958

d)

July 4, 1776

50.

When were Warrant Officers established

a)

July 1918

b)

December 2019

c)

November 1947

d)

June 1775

51.

When is the Army birthday

a)

June 14, 1777

b)

October 13, 1775

c)

December 20, 2019

d)

June 14, 1775

52.

What is the Marine Corps birthday

a)

July 4, 1776

b)

November 10, 1775

c)

June 14, 1777

d)

June 14, 1775

53.

What is the Navy birthday

a)

November 10, 1775

b)

July 1918

c)

October 13, 1775

d)

June 1, 1958

54.

What is the Air Force birthday

a)

November 10, 1775

b)

December 20, 2019

c)

September 18, 1947

d)

October 13, 1775

55.

What is the Space Force birthday

a)

July 4, 1776

b)

June 14, 1775

c)

November 10. 1775

d)

December 20, 2019

56.

When is Flag Day

a)

November 10, 1775

b)

July 4, 1776

c)

June 14, 1775

d)

June 14, 1777

57.

When is Independence Day

a)

July 3, 2000

b)

July 4, 1776

c)

June 14, 1777

d)

July 1918

58.

The nation is defended, or protected, by men and women serving in the armed forces.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which branch of the U.S. Military operates in the land and sea?

a)

Marines

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

60.

Which branch of the U.S. Military operates in the sea?

a)

Navy

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

61.

Which branch of the U.S. Military operates in the skies?

a)

Navy

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

62.

Which branch of the U.S. Military operates on the land?

a)

Navy

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

63.

Which branch of the U.S. Military sometimes works as part of the Navy?

a)

Coast Guard

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

64.

The President leads the military as the commander in chief.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The National Guard serves as part of the Marines and the Navy.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which branch of the U.S. Military operates along the nations coastlines?

a)

Coast Guard

b)

Air Force

c)

Army

67.

There are (a)   branches of government.

68.

The President belongs to the (a)   branch of government.

Choose from the below words
Executive
Legislative
Judicial
69.

Members of the Supreme Court belong to the _________________ Branch.

a)

Executive

b)

Legislative

c)

Judicial

70.

The Legislative Branch's members include ____________________.

a)

President

b)

Congress

c)

Supreme Court

71.

_______________________ are put in place so that one branch cannot have too much power.

a)

Checks and Balances

b)

Impeachments

c)

House of Representatives

d)

Amendments

72.

The Senate and House of Representatives belong to the (a)   Branch.

Choose from the below words
Executive
Legislative
Judicial
73.

This Federalist is know as the "Father of the Constitution"

a)

Thoas Paine

b)

Thomas Jefferson

c)

James Madison

74.

What was the antifederalists' greatest concern about ratifying the United States Constitution?

a)

lack of a bill of rights

b)

lack of a federal court system

c)

lack of legislative veto power

d)

lack of a strong military

75.

Alexander Hamilton and James Madison were...

a)

Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists

76.

They thought the Constitution gave the national government too much power.

a)

federalist

b)

antifederalist

77.

Which Document did the Federalist want to replace the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Constitution

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Bill of Rights

78.

The Anti Federalist wanted which document to replace the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Constitution

c)

Declaration of Independence

79.

Match the following

a)

Representatives for each state are determined by population

1.

House of Representatives

b)

Each state gets two representatives

2.

Senate

c)

Solved the question "How should states be represented in the new government?".

3.

The Great Compromise

80.

Match the Table correctly

81.

What land was obtained after the American Revolution in 1783?

82.

What land was the location of first 13 colonies?

83.

Match the following

a)

Small chunks of information that have been carefully formed from larger chunks of information.

1.

Packets

b)

A system for connecting a number of computer systems to form a local area network (LAN), with protocols to control the passing of information and to avoid simultaneous transmission by two or more systems.

2.

Ethernet

c)

A set of rules which govern the way in which data is transmitted between computers on a network.

3.

Protocols

d)

A device that allows computers to communicate over telephone lines.

4.

Modem

e)

A device that forwards data packets between computer networks.

5.

Router

84.

Match the following

a)

Distributing networking workload across multiple systems to avoid congestion and slow performance.

1.

Load Balancing

b)

Transmission capacity measured by bit rate.

2.

Bandwidth

c)

The unit of frequency, equal to one cycle per second.

3.

Hertz

d)

A measurement of the number of megabits sent, or capable of being sent, in a second.

4.

mbps (megabits per second)

e)

Electromagnetic waves with the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies.

5.

Radio Waves

85.

The ​ (a)   is a group of computers and servers that are connected to each other.

Choose from the below words
internet
intranet
extranet
86.

What is the Internet?

a)

A type of smartphone

b)

A type of video game

c)

A standalone computer system

d)

A global system of interconnected computer networks

87.

What does the acronym HTML stand for?

a)

Hypertext Markup Language

b)

High-Tech Multimedia Language

c)

Hyperlink Text Language

d)

Home Tool Management Language

88.

What does HTTP stand for?

a)

High-Tech Protocol

b)

Hypertext Transfer Program

c)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

d)

Home Tool Program

89.

When was the first-ever instant message over the ARPANET sent?

a)

1969

b)

1957

c)

1985

d)

1994

90.

When did the NSF make the Internet available for consumers?

a)

1994

b)

1990

c)

2006

d)

1969

91.

How many branches of government does the U.S. have?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

92.

What is the purpose of having the 3 branches of government?

a)

to divide and balance power within the government

b)

to let citizens decide everything that happens

c)

make sure the President has control of the country

93.

What is the law of the land that outlines how our federal government works?

a)

The Articles of Federalism

b)

The Declaration of Independence

c)

The Constitution

94.

President, Vice President, Cabinet

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

95.

Enforces laws

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

96.

Makes laws

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

97.

Supreme Court and lower federal courts

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

98.

The Senate and House of Representatives

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

99.

Interprets, or reviews, laws

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

100.

Decides if laws break the Constitution

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Judicial Branch

c)

Legislative Branch

101.


How many Senators does each state have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

depends on population

102.

How many members are there from each state in the House of Representatives?

a)

2

b)

depends on population

c)

6

103.

The Senate and House of Representatives together are called...

a)

Supreme Court

b)

The Cabinet

c)

Congress

104.

Signs and vetoes laws

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Legislative Branch

c)

Judicial Branch

105.

In charge of military and foreign policy

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Legislative Branch

c)

Judicial Branch

106.

In charge of taxes and federal budget

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Legislative Branch

c)

Judicial Branch

107.

Declares war

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Legislative Branch

c)

Judicial Branch

108.

Approves presidential nominations (Senate)

a)

Executive Branch

b)

Legislative Branch

c)

Judicial Branch

109.

How many justices are on the Supreme Court?

a)

7

b)

12

c)

9

110.

Reviews lower federal court decisions

a)

President

b)

Supreme Court

c)

Congress

111.

Match the following Government Agencies with what they do.

a)

FDA

1.

Protect Nation’s food & drug supply

b)

EPA

2.

protect environment frompollution & harm

c)

FCC

3.

protect tv, radio, internet, electronics

d)

EEOC

4.

ALL people a fair chance job & keeping

112.

Match the following Government Agencies with what they do.

a)

OSHA

1.

protect workers dangerous work areas

b)

CPSC

2.

protect us against dangerous products

c)

SEC

3.

Protects investors from fraud and scams

d)

FTC

4.

protect monopolies, false advertising

113.

Radio and Television programming fall under the control of the...

a)

Federal Trade Commission

b)

Federal Communications Commission

c)

Social Security Agency

d)

Environmental Protection Agency

114.

What would be the effect of having several grocery stores in the same area?

a)

The demand of good would increase due to more variety

b)

The supply of food would decrease due to demand

c)

Prices would decrease as result of competition

d)

Prices would remain the same initially, then rise

115.

How does the Federal Trade Commission help consumers?

a)

by stopping unfair, deceptive, & fraudulent business practice

b)

by advertising services & products with lowest prices

c)

by testing, rating, & ranking products monthly publications

d)

by setting price limits on goods purchased from foreign countries

116.

How does the Federal Trade Commission help keep the prices of goods and services low for consumers?

a)

by enforcing antitrust laws

b)

by levying taxes on foreign countries

c)

by providing subsidies to American companies

d)

by developing efficient ways of manufacturing products

117.

Which government agency protects laborers?

a)

EPA

b)

OSHA

c)

EPA

d)

FDA

118.

The relationship between the Executive and legislative branches in this democracy are linked and function as one; citizens vote for members of the legislative branch and those members choose/vote for a leader/Prime minister

a)

Direct Democracy

b)

Parliamentary Democracy

c)

Dictator Democracy

d)

Presidential Democracy

119.

This theory of government says the "state" was created by God and God gave those of royal birth the right to rule the masses is known as the...

a)

Force Theory

b)

Divine Right Theory

c)

Social Contract Theory

d)

Evolutionary Theory

120.

The people of a "state" are the

a)

Territory

b)

Sovereignty

c)

Population

d)

Government

121.

The land with known and recognized boundaries within a state is known as it's

a)

Territory

b)

Sovereignty

c)

Population

d)

Government

122.

Having supreme & absolute power within a "states" own territory & deciding its own foreign policies; not responsible to any other country is known as

a)

Territory

b)

Sovereignty

c)

Populaiton

d)

Government

123.

The agency through which the "state" applies its ideas, organizes, & works to accomplish goals

a)

Territory

b)

Sovereignty

c)

Population

d)

Government

124.

This theory of government says the "state" rose out of the people; exists only to serve the will of the people; the people hold the power and have the right to change the "state" if it does not do its duty.

a)

Divine Right Theory

b)

Force Theory

c)

Social Contract Theory

d)

Evolutionary Theory

125.

How are an autocracy and oligarchy similar?

a)

They are both dictatorships; the rule is with one person or a small elite group of people

b)

Both ALWAYS have a presidential democracy

c)

They are both democratic governments; people hold the power

d)

They are NOT similar in any way

126.

Who holds the power in a democracy?

a)

A single and absolute ruler

b)

The people/citizens

c)

No one; in a democracy there is no government

d)

a small group of the elite wealthy

127.

In this form of government the geographic distribution of the power is held by the individual states. These individual states form an alliance and create a central government for the sole purposes of defense and trade

a)

Confederation

b)

Unitary government

c)

Democratic government

d)

Federal Government

128.

In this form of government the geographic distribution of power is centralized to one, single agency; there is only one level of national government and NO other levels.

a)

Federal government

b)

Democratic government

c)

Unitary government

d)

Confederation

129.

In this form of government the geographic distribution of power is shared between central and state/local government agencies (3 levels); each level share the power.

a)

Unitary government

b)

Confederation

c)

Democratic government

d)

Federal government

130.

The absences of government; no government at all is known as (a)   .

131.

A form of government in which a single person hold unlimited political power is known as (a)   .

132.

A (a)   is a form of government in which the power is held by a small, usually self-appointed elite.

133.

A (a)   is a form of government where the power to rule is held by the majority of the people; supreme authority rests wit the people.

134.

This form of citizen participation (or lack of) in government in which absolute power of the government is concentrated to a single person is known as

a)

Direct Democracy

b)

Dictatorship

c)

Oligarchy

d)

Representative Democracy

135.

The relationship between the executive and legislative branches in this democracy is separate and independent of each other but the power is completely equal; citizens can vote for each branch separately.

a)

Parliamentary Democracy

b)

Presidential Democracy

c)

Dictator Democracy

d)

Direct Democracy

136.
Currently, how many cabinet positions are there? 
a)
4
b)
25
c)
10
d)
6
137.
What is required to be a Cabinet Secretary?
a)
They need to be nominated by the President and approved by the Senate
b)
They need to be elected by the Senate.
c)
They need to be appointed by the president.
d)
They need to be appointed by the President and approved by the House of Representatives.
138.
Who is considered the "top cop" in the nation and heads the Department of Justice?
a)
The Chief of Police
b)
The Attorney General
c)
The Supreme Officer
d)
The Secretary of Justice
139.
This department controls four of the five branches of the military and its secretary is responsible for presenting the President with military options to a foreign crisis.
a)
The Department of Defense
b)
The Secretary of State
c)
The Secretary of Homeland Security
d)
The Attorney General
140.
This agency focuses on diplomatic relations and foreign policy.  They control US embassies around the world, promote democracy and American interests, and protect and assist Americans living or traveling abroad. 
a)
The Central Intelligence Agency
b)
The State Department
c)
The Department of Travel Services
d)
The Foreign Consulate
141.

Match the following

a)

neutral

1.

not taking part in a war or quarrel

b)

maneuvers

2.

planned movements of troops and warships

c)

logistics

3.

planning and executing a large operation

d)

quarter

4.

to house troops

e)

martial

5.

military; warlike

142.

Match the following

a)

alliance

1.

union of persons, groups, or nations

b)

rendezvous

2.

a meeting at a fixed time or place

c)

strategy

3.

skillful planning

d)

medal

4.

a piece of metal; given to honor a deed

e)

meddle

5.

to interfere in someone else's business

143.

What was the name of the top secret project to develop nuclear weapons in the US?

a)

Newton Project

b)

Manhattan Project

c)

Apollo Project

d)

Saturn Project

144.

Can you name this man?

a)

Buzz Aldrin

b)

Werner von Braun

c)

Neil Armstrong

d)

John F. Kennedy

145.

In what year did the Soviet Union test its first nuclear bomb?

a)

1948

b)

1949

c)

1950

d)

1951

146.

What planer was described as "the backbone of Strategic Air Command"?

a)

B-52 Stratofortress

b)

Minuteman

c)

Pershing

d)

Atlas

147.

What was the range of the Pershing missile?

a)

150 miles

b)

250 miles

c)

300 miles

d)

400 miles

148.

What was unique about the Polaris when it was first created>?

a)

It could reach space

b)

It could carry a nuclear warhead

c)

It could be launched from a submarine

d)

It never actually worked

149.

What was the name of the early warning system set up in Canada and Alaska?

a)

DEW

b)

AIM

c)

MIA

d)

CORE

150.

What was the Strategic Defense Initiative better known as?

a)

Minuteman

b)

Atlas

c)

Star Wars

d)

AIM

151.

Can you name this American President who warned about the 'military-industrial complex'?

a)

Gerald Ford

b)

John F. Kennedy

c)

Franklin D. Roosevelt

d)

Dwight D. Eisenhower

152.

What was the type of spy-plane involved in the Cuban Missile Crisis?

a)

UB40

b)

U2

c)

10CC

d)

SUM41

153.

In 1939, it was rumored that he Nazis were developing an atomic bomb.  During World War II, a secret laboratory was founded in Los Alamos, New Mexico, that would serve as a centralized facility to coordinate the scientific research of the Manhattan Project, the Allied project to develop the first nuclear weapons.  In the years during the war, this secret laboratory was responsible for the development of the atomic bomb.  In 1945, two atomic bombs built in Los Alamos were dropped on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

 

            The development of the atomic bomb had several worldwide implications for the uses of nuclear power, it led to a way to generate electricity for civilian use.  With new technologies also came the creation of fresh jobs and the capabilities for more concentrated physiological studies of the human body.  Each of these developments brought about numerous military, scientific and economic advancements that changed our world forever.

 

            According to the passage, nuclear technology is an example of:

a)

Technology that has no applications other than those for military use.

b)

Technology that should never have been created because it is too dangerous.

c)

Technology that made all other scientific inquiry seem obsolete by comparison.

d)

Technology that was first developed for the military but also has civilian uses.

154.

Why did the Soviet Union intensify development and test their own nuclear weapons?

a)

It wanted to quickly end the war to avoid further military casualties.

b)

It wanted to retain political and military influence in the post-war world.

c)

It wanted nuclear technology to be available as a cheap source of energy after the war.

d)

It wanted to pursue a policy of isolationism following the devastation caused by World War II.

155.

With the Soviet threat posed by the launch of Sputnik the United States increased spending on science education and national defense.  Which of the following was an example of this?

a)

Creation of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

b)

Passage of the National Women's Education Act.

c)

The Race to the Top program.

d)

Creation of the United Nations commission on space travel.

156.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Dictatorship

Absolute Monarchy

Representative Democracy

Constitutional Monarchy

Oligarchy

Rule by One
Rule by Many
Rule by Few
157.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Constitutional Monarchy

Direct Democracy

Representative Democracy

Dictatorship

Absolute Monarchy

Totalitarianism

Oligarchy

Examples of Limited Government
Examples of Unlimited Government
158.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Citizens have rights and freedoms

Leaders follow the laws

Make quick decisions because one or a few people rule

People do not get to vote

Country has a constitution

Citizens elect representatives

Leaders have all the power

Limited Gov Facts
Unlimited Gov Facts
159.

Match the following

a)

Example of Limited Government

1.

Representative Democracy

b)

Definition of Limited Government

2.

Ruled by Many

c)

Example of Unlimited Government

3.

Absolute Monarchy

d)

Definition of Unlimited Government

4.

Rule on one/few

160.

Match the following

a)

Legislative Branch

1.

Makes the laws (Congress)

b)

Judicial Branches

2.

Interprets the laws (judges)

c)

Executive Branch

3.

Enforces the laws (President, governor)