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LIPCFI PRELIM QUIZ (SPECIAL)

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The central carbon atom in an amino acid is called:

a)

β-carbon

b)

γ-carbon

c)

α-carbon

d)

δ-carbon

2.

What determines the unique chemical properties of an amino acid?

a)

Amino group

b)

Carboxyl group

c)

Hydrogen atom

d)

R group

3.

At physiological pH (~7.4), amino acids exist predominantly in what form?

a)

Protonated

b)

Deprotonated

c)

Zwitterionic

d)

Neutral

4.

Which amino acid is achiral?

a)

Glycine

b)

Alanine

c)

Serine

d)

Tryptophan

5.

The amino acids serine, threonine, and cysteine are classified as:

a)

Nonpolar

b)

Polar, uncharged

c)

Acidic

d)

Basic

6.

Which of the following is an aromatic amino acid?

a)

Glycine

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Leucine

d)

Valine

7.

The isoelectric point (pI) of an amino acid refers to:

a)

The pH at which it is most acidic

b)

The pH at which it is most basic

c)

The pH at which it has no net charge

d)

The pH at which it dissolves completely

8.

Which amino acid contains a sulfur atom?

a)

Methionine

b)

Lysine

c)

Aspartic acid

d)

Histidine

9.

Amino acids with positively charged side chains at physiological pH are:

a)

Glutamine, Tyrosine

b)

Aspartate, Glutamate

c)

Lysine, Arginine, Histidine

d)

Alanine, Glycine

10.

Amino acids like leucine and valine are classified as:

a)

Acidic

b)

Nonpolar

c)

Polar, uncharged

d)

Aromatic

11.

Which amino acid is often found in the active site of enzymes due to its imidazole ring?

a)

Histidine

b)

Proline

c)

Serine

d)

Tyrosine

12.

Which of the following amino acids can form disulfide bonds?

a)

Methionine

b)

Cysteine

c)

Serine

d)

Threonine

13.

What type of bonding occurs between amino acid side chains in protein folding?

a)

Ionic

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Hydrophobic

d)

All of the above

14.

Which amino acid has the simplest structure?

a)

Glycine

b)

Proline

c)

Valine

d)

Alanine

15.

What is the term for amino acids that the human body cannot synthesize and must be obtained from the diet?

a)

Essential amino acids

b)

Nonessential amino acids

c)

Conditional amino acids

d)

Aromatic amino acids

16.

What is the main function of amino acids in the body?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Hormone synthesis

c)

Building proteins

d)

Catalyzing lipid breakdown

17.

At acidic pH, the carboxyl group of an amino acid is:

a)

Fully deprotonated

b)

Partially deprotonated

c)

Fully protonated

d)

Neutral

18.

Proline is unique among amino acids because:

a)

It has an aromatic ring

b)

Its R group forms a cyclic structure with the amino group

c)

It contains a sulfur atom

d)

It is achiral

19.

What property makes polar amino acids soluble in water?

a)

Hydrophobic interactions

b)

Presence of hydrocarbon side chains

c)

Ability to form hydrogen bonds

d)

Absence of ionic groups

20.

Which of the following amino acids is classified as acidic?

a)

Arginine

b)

Aspartic acid

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Cysteine

21.

Which level of protein structure is determined by the sequence of amino acids?

a)

Secondary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Primary

22.

What type of bond stabilizes the α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures?

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Disulfide bond

23.

The folding of a polypeptide into its three-dimensional shape is referred to as:

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

24.

Which amino acid is most likely involved in forming disulfide bonds?

a)

Lysine

b)

Glutamine

c)

Cysteine

d)

Proline

25.

What is the primary driving force behind protein folding?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Hydrophobic interactions

c)

Disulfide bonds

d)

Ionic interactions

26.

Denaturation of proteins disrupts all levels of structure except:

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

27.

The aggregation of multiple polypeptide chains into a functional protein is called:

a)

Secondary structure

b)

Tertiary structure

c)

Quaternary structure

d)

Primary structure

28.

What happens to proteins when they are denatured?

a)

Their amino acid sequence changes.

b)

They lose their 3D structure but maintain their peptide bonds.

c)

Their peptide bonds are broken.

d)

Their primary structure is destroyed.

29.

Which disease is associated with protein misfolding?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Hypertension

d)

Tuberculosis

30.

What term describes a protein’s functional, folded 3D structure?

a)

Native conformation

b)

Denatured conformation

c)

Zwitterion

d)

Primary conformation

31.

(a)   is a type of protein structure formed when two or more polypeptide chains associate.

32.

(a)   an amino acid involved in forming disulfide bonds.

33.

(a)   is a type of interaction between nonpolar side chains during protein folding.

34.

(a)   is the term for protein unfolding caused by heat or chemicals.

35.

(a)   it is a secondary structure type often found in silk proteins.

36.

Myoglobin’s primary function is to:

a)

Store glucose

b)

Transport oxygen in blood

c)

Store oxygen in muscles

d)

Act as an enzyme for digestion

37.

The heme group in myoglobin and hemoglobin contains which metal ion necessary for oxygen binding?

a)

Magnesium (Mg)

b)

Iron (Fe)

c)

Copper (Cu)

d)

Zinc (Zn)

38.

Which of the following best describes the structure of hemoglobin?

a)

Globular and single subunit

b)

Fibrous and multiple subunits

c)

Globular and multiple subunits

d)

Linear chain without subunits

39.

What type of oxygen binding curve does hemoglobin display?

a)

Hyperbolic

b)

Sigmoidal

c)

Linear

d)

Exponential

40.

The Bohr effect refers to:

a)

The change in oxygen affinity of hemoglobin with changes in pH and CO2 levels

b)

The binding of oxygen to myoglobin

c)

The release of oxygen from myoglobin

d)

The binding of oxygen to iron

41.

The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is best described as:

a)

Cooperative

b)

Non-cooperative

c)

Inhibitory

d)

Competitive

42.

Which of the following is a difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin?

a)

Myoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin can bind to four oxygen molecules, while myoglobin can bind to only one

c)

Myoglobin is more cooperative than hemoglobin

d)

Hemoglobin is found only in muscles, while myoglobin is found in the blood

43.

In the oxygen-binding curve of hemoglobin, the “sigmoidal” shape indicates:

a)

Non-cooperative binding

b)

Positive cooperative binding

c)

Negative cooperative binding

d)

No binding

44.

The T-state of hemoglobin refers to the:

a)

Oxygenated form

b)

Deoxygenated form

c)

Form that binds CO2

d)

Form with the highest affinity for oxygen

45.

Which factor promotes the transition of hemoglobin from the R-state to the T-state?

a)

High oxygen concentration

b)

Low pH (acidic conditions)

c)

High temperature

d)

Both b and c

46.

What is the primary structural feature of fibrous proteins?

a)

Globular shape

b)

Extended, elongated structure

c)

Random coil configuration

d)

Tertiary folding

47.

Collagen is primarily found in:

a)

Blood plasma

b)

Connective tissues

c)

Skeletal muscles

d)

Nervous tissue

48.

Which amino acid is most abundant in collagen?

a)

Lysine

b)

Proline

c)

Glycine

d)

Histidine

49.

Hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen requires which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

50.

What is the structural unit of collagen?

a)

Fibrils

b)

Triple helix

c)

Alpha helix

d)

Beta sheet

51.

Which of the following diseases is caused by defective collagen synthesis?

a)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

Scurvy

c)

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

d)

All of the above

52.

The elastic nature of elastin is due to its:

a)

Cross-linked fibrils

b)

Random coil structure

c)

High glycine content

d)

C Alpha helix conformation

53.

What structural feature distinguishes keratin in hair from keratin in nails?

a)

Disulfide bond density

b)

Amino acid composition

c)

Presence of glycine

d)

Collagen content

54.

Collagen forms fibrils by assembling into:

a)

Alpha helices

b)

Tropocollagen triple helices

c)

Beta sheets

d)

Globular domains

55.

The main role of elastin is to:

a)

Provide tensile strength

b)

Resist compressive forces

c)

Allow tissues to stretch and recoil

d)

Prevent deformation under pressure

56.

Which of the following is a non-standard amino acid unique to collagen?

a)

Hydroxyproline

b)

Selenocysteine

c)

Ornithine

d)

Cystine

57.

Which process is disrupted in scurvy due to a lack of Vitamin C?

a)

Cross-linking of collagen fibers

b)

Triple helix formation

c)

Hydroxylation of proline and lysine

d)

Collagen degradation

58.

Keratin belongs to which class of proteins?

a)

Fibrous

b)

Globular

c)

Regulatory

d)

Enzymatic

59.

In which part of the body is Type I collagen primarily found?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Skin, tendons, and bones

c)

Arteries

d)

Basement membranes

60.

What stabilizes collagen fibrils?

a)

Hydrogen bonds and covalent cross-links

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Ionic interactions

d)

Disulfide bridges

61.

Which amino acid contributes to the elasticity of elastin?

a)

Proline

b)

Glycine

c)

Lysine

d)

Desmosine

62.

Which process is necessary for proper collagen fibril assembly?

a)

Hydroxylation of lysine and proline

b)

Phosphorylation of tyrosine

c)

Carboxylation of glutamate

d)

Sulfation of serine

63.

Elastin is most abundant in which tissue type?

a)

Tendons

b)

Ligaments

c)

Blood vessels

d)

Skin

64.

Which type of collagen is found in cartilage?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

65.

What is the main difference between fibrous and globular proteins?

a)

Fibrous proteins are soluble, globular are insoluble.

b)

Fibrous proteins provide structure, globular have functional roles.

c)

Fibrous proteins form enzymes, globular provide elasticity.

d)

Fibrous proteins are spherical, globular are elongated.

66.

What is the role of an enzyme in a chemical reaction?

a)

It increases the energy required for the reaction to occur

b)

It lowers the activation energy of the reaction

c)

It decreases the rate of reaction

d)

It is consumed during the reaction

67.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?

a)

Enzymes are specific to the reactions they catalyze

b)

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions

c)

Enzymes are used up in the reaction

d)

Enzymes are proteins with a specific three-dimensional structure

68.

The Michaelis-Menten equation describes the relationship between the substrate concentration and the enzyme reaction rate. What does the term Vmax represent in this equation?

a)

The rate at which the enzyme-substrate complex forms

b)

The maximum velocity of the reaction when the enzyme is saturated with substrate

c)

The rate at which the substrate concentration decreases

d)

The concentration of substrate at half-maximal velocity

69.

Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Enzyme concentration

d)

Substrate color

70.

What happens to enzyme activity as temperature increases?

a)

It decreases linearly

b)

It stays constant

c)

It increases to a certain point and then decreases

d)

It stops immediately

71.

Which of the following is a product of the catalase reaction with hydrogen peroxide?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Oxygen and water

c)

Oxygen and hydrogen gas

d)

Water and glucose

72.

Enzyme saturation occurs when:

a)

The enzyme concentration is too low

b)

The substrate concentration is too high

c)

All the enzyme molecules are bound to substrate molecules

d)

The reaction rate decreases sharply

73.

Which of the following is NOT a type of enzyme inhibition?

a)

Competitive inhibition

b)

Non-competitive inhibition

c)

Substrate inhibition

d)

Allosteric inhibition

74.

Which statement describes a characteristic of a competitive inhibitor?

a)

It binds to the enzyme’s active site

b)

It changes the enzyme’s shape permanently

c)

It reduces the concentration of the enzyme-substrate complex

d)

It binds to an allosteric site

75.

Which of the following would most likely increase the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

a)

Increasing the pH far above the enzyme’s optimum

b)

Increasing the concentration of the substrate until the enzyme is saturated

c)

Lowering the temperature below the enzyme’s optimum

d)

Adding an enzyme inhibitor

76.

Which of the following is the primary function of ATP?

a)

To store genetic information

b)

To provide chemical energy for cellular processes

c)

To store oxygen

d)

To transport electrons in metabolic reactions

77.

Where is the majority of ATP produced in the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi apparatus

78.

The ATP cycle involves the conversion of ATP to ADP. What molecule is released during this conversion?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Inorganic phosphate (Pi)

d)

Carbon dioxide

79.

What is the role of mitochondria in energy production?

a)

They convert glucose into fatty acids

b)

They synthesize proteins for energy production

c)

They are the sites of aerobic respiration, producing ATP

d)

They store energy in the form of glucose

80.

Which of the following is a byproduct of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Glucose

81.

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Fermentation

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation

82.

Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

NADH

d)

ADP

83.

What happens during the process of chemiosmosis in the mitochondria?

a)

Protons are pumped into the matrix of the mitochondria

b)

ATP is synthesized as protons flow back through ATP synthase

c)

Oxygen is used to break down glucose

d)

Electrons are transferred from NADH to oxygen

84.

How does the proton gradient created in the electron transport chain help produce ATP?

a)

It generates electrical potential, which is used by ATP synthase

b)

It drives the conversion of glucose to ATP

c)

It breaks down glucose into smaller molecules

d)

It produces water and carbon dioxide

85.

Which of the following best describes the role of NADH in cellular respiration?

a)

It provides oxygen to the mitochondria

b)

It is used to transport electrons in the electron transport chain

c)

It is a final product of the citric acid cycle

d)

It is a byproduct of glycolysis

86.

Describe the role of mitochondria in cellular respiration. Include the key processes that occur within the mitochondria and how they contribute to ATP production.

4 lines
87.

In Factors that affect enzyme activity.

Explain how temperature, pH, and substrate concentration influence the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

4 lines
88.

Compare and contrast aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.

4 lines
89.

Describe the differences between competitive and non-competitive inhibition.

4 lines
90.

Why did you choose LIPCFI?

4 lines
91.

What are your expectations in this Biochemistry Class?

Mention 3

4 lines
92.

What could be the possible reasons why you would not continue your chosen field? (BSN/BSPH)

Answer in 1 sentence only

4 lines
93.

Why do you want to become a nurse/ Pharmacist?

Mention your top 3 reasons

4 lines