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Ethics Quiz

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary goal of ethics according to the document?

a)

To punish wrongdoers

b)

To guide behavior

c)

To enforce laws

d)

To promote personal gain

2.

Which of the following is NOT a way ethics can be learned?

a)

Through families

b)

Through regions

c)

Through television

d)

Through peers

3.

What does cultural relativism suggest about company ethics?

a)

They are universal and unchanging

b)

They depend on geographical location

c)

They are based on personal beliefs

d)

They are irrelevant in business

4.

What is an ethical dilemma?

a)

A situation with a clear right and wrong choice

b)

A situation where no action is required

c)

A situation where there is no clear choice as to what is right or wrong

d)

A situation where ethics are irrelevant

5.

Which of the following is a way companies can maintain ethical standards?

a)

Ignoring whistleblowing

b)

Encouraging unethical behavior

c)

Providing ethics training

d)

Promoting secrecy

6.

What is the utilitarian view of ethics?

a)

Greatest good to the greatest number of people

b)

Greatest good to the individual

c)

Greatest good to the least number of people

d)

Greatest good to the wealthiest individuals

7.

What is the focus of individualism views?

a)

For one's own interest

b)

For the interest of the community

c)

For the interest of the government

d)

For the interest of future generations

8.

What question is associated with moral rights?

a)

Is it beneficial?

b)

Does it violate someone's rights?

c)

Is it profitable?

d)

Is it popular?

9.

What are terminal values?

a)

Preferences about desired ends

b)

Means for accomplishing ends

c)

Ethical guidelines

d)

Legal requirements

10.

Which of the following is an example of instrumental values?

a)

Family security

b)

Happiness

c)

Honesty

d)

Freedom

11.

What is ethical imperialism?

a)

An attempt to push your ethics on someone else

b)

A method of ethical negotiation

c)

A form of ethical compromise

d)

A way to understand different cultures

12.

What is one reason given for rationalizing unethical behavior?

a)

It's in everyone's interest

b)

It's legally required

c)

It's morally justified

d)

It's financially beneficial

13.

What does Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) involve?

a)

Meeting quotas and serving society

b)

Maximizing profits only

c)

Reducing costs at all expenses

d)

Ignoring shareholder expectations

14.

Which of the following is an argument in favor of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

a)

Adds to profit long-term

b)

Costs more

c)

Reduces profit

d)

Dilution of business purpose

15.

What is the economic strategy associated with doing what is ethically right?

a)

Accommodative

b)

Obstructiveness

c)

Defensive

d)

Discretionary

16.

Who are considered stakeholders in a company?

a)

Anyone who could be affected by company actions

b)

Only the board of directors

c)

Only the shareholders

d)

Only the employees

17.

What is a subsidy?

a)

Money the government gives to help start companies

b)

A tax imposed on companies

c)

A loan from a bank

d)

A fine for legal violations

18.

Which question is part of the triple bottom line?

a)

Is it economically sound?

b)

Does it increase market share?

c)

Is it innovative?

d)

Does it reduce costs?

19.

Which level of management is responsible for looking after day-to-day issues in a department?

a)

Lower level management

b)

Middle level management

c)

Upper level management

d)

Executive management

20.

Who typically reports to the CEO in an organization?

a)

Front line workers

b)

Middle level managers

c)

Upper level managers

d)

Staff managers

21.

What type of skills are associated with middle management?

a)

Interpersonal skills

b)

Concept skills

c)

Technology skills

d)

Artistic skills

22.

Which type of manager supports staff and helps with marketing, accounting, and human resources?

a)

Line Manager

b)

Staff Manager

c)

Project Manager

d)

Operations Manager

23.

What is an example of external environment monitoring?

a)

Employee performance

b)

Tax rates

c)

Product quality

d)

Customer satisfaction

24.

What type of organization do managers typically work for?

a)

Non-profit organization

b)

Government organization

c)

Profit organization

d)

Educational institution

25.

What is the primary role of an administrator according to the text?

a)

Work for a profit organization

b)

Work for a non-profit organization

c)

Manage multiple departments

d)

Lead a team of accountants

26.

Which of the following is an example of a functional manager's responsibility?

a)

Oversee multiple departments

b)

Manage a store

c)

Handle a single department

d)

Supervise a plant

27.

What does organizing management involve?

a)

Supervising and taking care of property

b)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling

c)

Working for a non-profit organization

d)

Managing a single department

28.

What is an organization according to the text?

a)

A group of people working separately

b)

A collection of people working together to find a common goal

c)

A place where people compete against each other

d)

A system of individual efforts

29.

What is the main assumption of Classical Management?

a)

People are irrational

b)

People are emotional

c)

People are rational

d)

People are unpredictable

30.

Which management approach is also known as the motion study?

a)

Administrative Principle

b)

Bureaucratic Organization

c)

Scientific Management

d)

Human Relations Approach

31.

According to Henry Fayol, what is the Scalar Chain Principle?

a)

Everyone should only get their orders from one boss

b)

One should be in charge of all activity related to the same performance objective

c)

Have a clear and unbroken line of communication throughout all organization

d)

Design jobs with set numbers of physical movement

32.

What is the main belief of the Bureaucratic Organization approach?

a)

Efficiency is based on emotional intelligence

b)

Organization is based on authority to increase efficiency

c)

Workers should have complete freedom

d)

Decisions are made by consensus

33.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a bureaucratic organization?

a)

Flexible rules and procedures

b)

Careers based on merit

c)

Informal hierarchy

d)

Personal relationships

34.

What is a possible disadvantage of a bureaucratic organization?

a)

Quick problem-solving

b)

High flexibility

c)

Resistance to change

d)

Personal fulfillment

35.

According to the Hawthorne Study by Elton Mayo, what factor improved productivity?

a)

Increased salaries

b)

Better equipment

c)

Interpersonal relationships

d)

Longer working hours

36.

Who developed the Human Needs Theory?

a)

Elton Mayo

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

Frederick Taylor

d)

Henri Fayol

37.

According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which need is at the highest level?

a)

Physiological Needs

b)

Love & Belonging

c)

Esteem Needs

d)

Needs for Self-Actualization

38.

Who developed Theory X and Theory Y in management?

a)

Douglas Mcgregor

b)

Robert McNamara

c)

Chester Barnard

d)

William Ouchi

39.

What is a key assumption of Theory X managers?

a)

Workers will avoid work if they can

b)

Workers are self-motivated

c)

Workers prefer collaborative environments

d)

Workers need minimal supervision

40.

Which management approach is associated with Robert McNamara and Tex Thorton?

a)

Quantitative analysis

b)

System Approach

c)

Contingency Approach

d)

Theory Z

41.

What is the focus of Quantitative Analysis in management?

a)

Calculating and monitoring math statistics and data

b)

Improving communication skills

c)

Enhancing leadership qualities

d)

Developing team-building exercises

42.

Which management theory is attributed to William Ouchi?

a)

Theory Z

b)

Theory X

c)

System Approach

d)

Contingency Approach

43.

What is the main idea of the Systems Approach in an organization?

a)

A collection of unrelated parts working independently

b)

A collection of interrelated parts that function together to achieve a common purpose

c)

A focus on individual achievements

d)

A system with no interconnected network

44.

What is the responsibility of management in the Systems Approach?

a)

Ignore the contributions of each system

b)

Coordinate the contributions of each system to achieve company goals

c)

Focus only on financial systems

d)

Work independently from other systems

45.

According to the Contingency Theory, what should managers do?

a)

Use a single management style for all situations

b)

Match their response to the specific problem or opportunity

c)

Ignore performance results

d)

Follow a fixed strategy regardless of conditions

46.

What was notable about Japanese organizations in the 1980s according to Theory Z management?

a)

They were the least productive in the world

b)

They were the most productive and efficient in the world

c)

They focused solely on domestic markets

d)

They had no significant impact on global management practices

47.

What is the focus of Theory Z in management?

a)

Reducing Employee Turnover

b)

Increasing Employee Turnover

c)

Decreasing Job Satisfaction

d)

Short-term Employment

48.

How does Theory Z suggest improving job satisfaction?

a)

Short-term employment

b)

More lateral job movements

c)

Ignoring teamwork

d)

Reducing employee pride

49.

What is an Opened System in organizational terms?

a)

Organizations that interact with the outer environment

b)

Organizations that do not interact with the outer environment

c)

Organizations that focus on internal processes only

d)

Organizations that have no public relations

50.

What is a Closed System in organizational terms?

a)

Organizations that do not interact with their environment

b)

Organizations that interact with the outer environment

c)

Organizations that focus on public relations

d)

Organizations that have a flexible structure

51.

What does the Self Fulfilling Prophecy refer to?

a)

A process where a false expectation leads to its own confirmation

b)

A process where true expectations are always met

c)

A process where expectations have no impact on outcomes

d)

A process where only positive expectations are confirmed

52.

What is the Solar Chain Principle?

a)

A clear and unbroken chain of communication from top to bottom

b)

A broken chain of communication from bottom to top

c)

A flexible chain of communication

d)

A chain of command with multiple leaders

53.

What does the Unity of Direction Principle state?

a)

One person should be in charge of all activities related to the same performance objective

b)

Multiple people should be in charge of the same activities

c)

Each person should have multiple objectives

d)

No one should be in charge of any activities

54.

What does the Unity of Command Principle state?

a)

Each person should only receive orders from one boss

b)

Each person should receive orders from multiple bosses

c)

Each person should not receive any orders

d)

Each person should give orders to others

55.

What is the process through which people receive, organize, and interpret information from their environment?

a)

Perception

b)

Communication

c)

Evaluation

d)

Observation

56.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences perception?

a)

Cultural Background

b)

Values

c)

Circumstances

d)

Financial Status

57.

What must a good manager recognize about managers and employees?

a)

They are always in agreement

b)

They are affected by their perception

c)

They have the same goals

d)

They work independently

58.

When can perception be a problem in management?

a)

When employees are on vacation

b)

When managers evaluate employees

c)

When employees receive bonuses

d)

When managers and employees agree

59.

What can perceptual distortion lead to?

a)

Accurate understanding

b)

Distorted perceptions of people

c)

Clear communication

d)

Improved relationships

60.

What is a characteristic of perception distortion related to stereotypes?

a)

Attributes commonly associated with a group are assigned to an individual.

b)

Tendency to see things only from your own point of view.

c)

Assigning your own personal attributes to others.

d)

Using one attribute to develop an over impression of a person.

61.

What does selective perception involve?

a)

Assigning personal attributes to others.

b)

Filtering out information that does not match.

c)

Using one attribute to develop an impression.

d)

Assuming others share your needs and values.

62.

What is projection in perceptual distortion?

a)

Assigning your own personal attributes to other individuals.

b)

Using one attribute to develop an over impression.

c)

Filtering out information that does not match.

d)

Attributes commonly associated with a group are assigned to an individual.

63.

What is the halo effect in perception distortion?

a)

Using one attribute of a person to develop an over impression.

b)

Filtering out information that does not match.

c)

Assigning personal attributes to others.

d)

Attributes commonly associated with a group are assigned to an individual.

64.

What is a reason the first drawing in the class activity was considered bad?

a)

It was too detailed.

b)

It was misunderstood.

c)

It was too colorful.

d)

It was too large.

65.

What is the process of transmitting information from one person to another called?

a)

Communication

b)

Projection

c)

Perception

d)

Stereotyping

66.

What is effective communication?

a)

Happens when the message received is as close in meaning as possible to the message intended.

b)

Happens at minimum cost (money, time, effort).

c)

Involves using complex language.

d)

Requires no feedback.

67.

What is efficient communication?

a)

Happens when the message received is as close in meaning as possible to the message intended.

b)

Happens at minimum cost (money, time, effort).

c)

Involves using complex language.

d)

Requires no feedback.

68.

Which of the following is a type of noise in communication?

a)

Clear feedback

b)

Physical distraction

c)

Effective channels

d)

Proper encoding

69.

In the communication process, what does the sender do?

a)

Decodes perceived meaning

b)

Encodes intended meaning

c)

Provides feedback

d)

Listens actively

70.

What is an example of semantic noise?

a)

Mishearing a word due to background noise

b)

Misunderstanding the meaning of "bank" in a sentence

c)

Losing a message in transmission

d)

Forgetting to send a message

71.

What is an example of a low richness written communication channel?

a)

Face-to-Face meetings

b)

Texting

c)

Voicemail

d)

Telephone meetings

72.

Which communication channel is described as highly effective?

a)

Email

b)

Posting E-Bulletins

c)

Face-to-Face meetings

d)

Texting

73.

When should verbal communication be used according to the document?

a)

When conveying emotions

b)

When conveying facts

c)

When sending quick updates

d)

When posting announcements

74.

Which of the following is a characteristic of voicemail as a communication channel?

a)

Impersonal / One-Way

b)

Fast / Efficient

c)

Personal / Two-way

d)

Low effectiveness

75.

When should written communication be used according to the document?

a)

When immediate feedback is needed

b)

When ideas are complicated

c)

When time is urgent

d)

When conveying emotional information

76.

What is one advantage of written communication?

a)

Provides immediate feedback

b)

More accurate

c)

Easy to use

d)

Leaves no permanent record

77.

What is a disadvantage of verbal communication?

a)

No feedback of exchange

b)

More difficult and time consuming

c)

Could have inaccuracies

d)

Provides a record of communication

78.

Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

a)

Writing a letter

b)

Making a phone call

c)

Eye contact

d)

Sending an email

79.

What does "mixed message" refer to in the document?

a)

When verbal and non-verbal messages are the same

b)

When non-verbal messages communicate something different from verbal messages

c)

When written messages are unclear

d)

When verbal messages are misunderstood

80.

Which of the following is a component of active listening?

a)

Ignoring non-verbal signals

b)

Avoiding eye contact

c)

Paraphrasing/restating

d)

Interrupting frequently

81.

What is the primary role of a manager in an organization?

a)

To inspire others to work hard

b)

To be responsible for the work of others

c)

To create a vision for the future

d)

To empower others to be their best

82.

Which of the following is a characteristic of high-performing managers?

a)

Earn authority through skills

b)

Use influence to get results

c)

Have authority delegated from top management

d)

Empower others to be their best

83.

What is a key responsibility of effective leaders?

a)

Reporting

b)

Budgeting

c)

Communicating a vision

d)

Using systems

84.

Which responsibility is associated with managing?

a)

Team Building

b)

Negotiating

c)

Having Courage

d)

Explaining Decision

85.

What is a leading responsibility mentioned in the document?

a)

Monitoring

b)

Assessing Performance

c)

Consulting Team

d)

Selling and Persuading

86.

What is the process of inspiring others to work hard to accomplish important tasks called?

a)

Management

b)

Leadership

c)

Delegation

d)

Supervision

87.

Which type of power is based on a person's position of authority within an organization?

a)

Expert Power

b)

Reward Power

c)

Legitimate Power

d)

Coercive Power

88.

Which of the following is an example of legitimate power?

a)

Influencer

b)

King

c)

Mentor

d)

Friend

89.

What is the ability to get others to do what you want them to do referred to as?

a)

Motivation

b)

Power

c)

Persuasion

d)

Negotiation

90.

What is a pro of using reward power?

a)

Easily recognized

b)

Can promote loyalty

c)

Easy to use

d)

Doesn't guarantee loyalty

91.

What is a con of using coercive power?

a)

Costly to continue

b)

Doesn't guarantee respect

c)

Create unhappy disengaged workers

d)

No need to explain demands

92.

Where does reward power come from?

a)

Ability to deliver negative consequences

b)

Ability to deliver something of value

c)

Ability to explain demands

d)

Ability to create disengagement

93.

Which of the following is an example of coercive power?

a)

Promotion

b)

Raise

c)

Threat of losing a job

d)

Award