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NURS 4407 EXAM 1

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 39 year old female is currently 18 weeks pregnant. She has two sets of twin daughters that were born at 38 and 39 weeks gestation and an 11 year-old son who was born at 32 weeks gestation. She has no history of miscarriage or abortion. What is her GTPAL?

a)

G4, T2, P2, A1, L5

b)

G4, T1, P1, A0, L4

c)

G4, T1, P2, A1, L4

d)

G4, T2, P1, A0, L5

2.

A 38 week gestation mother comes into the hospital for delivery. After reviewing her admission labs, you notice that her WBCs are slightly elevated. When checking her vitals, her HR & BP are slightly elevated as well as her temperature. What should the nurse do?

a)

Call the provider to notify them of the abnormal labs

b)

Suspect maternal infection and do further testing

c)

Get consents signed for a STAT CS

d)

Document the findings in the patients chart

3.

A 39wks gestation mother is laboring on your floor. When you last went in to check on her, she was 4cm dilated, smiling, and conversing with her family. This time when you checked on her, she was stern, stressed, and verbalizing major anxiety about delivering this baby. What should the nurse do?

a)

Request a psych consult

b)

Say "It's okay mom, this labor will be over quick and everything will be better"

c)

Check her cervix to see if she has entered the active labor stage and provide education

d)

Tell the family to leave the room to allow for privacy

4.

Your laboring patient is having trouble progressing in labor and her contractions have been weak and far apart. Which intervention would help to progress labor naturally?

a)

Have mom lay in bed on her left lateral side and practice deep breathing

b)

Give mom a big glass of juice to stimulate baby's activity

c)

Help mom position herself on a birthing ball

d)

Administer pain meds so she stops thinking about the pain

5.

Your postpartum mom calls you into her room in tears. She tells you "I just went through all that hard work to delivery my baby that i've been waiting 9 months to meet, but im feeling a little sad. Does that make me a bad mom?" What is the most therapeutic response?

a)

"During the postpartum period, your endorphins drop and can cause some postpartum blues. It is normal to feel a little down."

b)

"Would you like for me to take your baby so you can rest some? I'm sure you are just tired."

c)

"Every mom is different. It's okay if you don't feel bonded with you baby right now."

d)

"This is a sign of postpartum depression. I am going to notify your provider and we will conduct a screening to ensure you are not a safety risk to yourself or others."

6.

In the hand off report on the L&D floor, the RN states that your baby is at 0 station. How would you interpret this finding?

a)

Babies head floats slightly when tapped and is level with the ischial crest.

b)

Mom is crowning and ready to deliver.

c)

Babies head does not move when tapped and level with the ischial spine

d)

Babies head does not move when tapped and level with the iliac crest

7.

True or False: Stage 2 of labor begins with the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What is the definition of true labor

a)

complete rupture of membranes

b)

progressive cervical change

c)

Complete dilation and effacement

d)

intense and even contractions

9.

The mother has delivered the placenta. You note that the shiny surface of the placenta was delivered first. How would you document this and is it considered baby side or maternal side?

a)

Duncan mechanism, maternal

b)

Schultze mechanism, maternal

c)

Schultze mechanism, baby

d)

Duncan mechanism, baby

10.

Your 39 wks gestation mother is requesting her cervix be checked. When assessing baby's station, you note that baby is floating about 2 centimeters above the ischial spine. How would you document this finding?

a)

-2 station

b)

+2 station

c)

engaged

d)

station 0

11.

The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of labor?

a)

The contractions are regular

b)

The membranes have ruptured

c)

The cervix is dilated completely

d)

The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid

12.

what is the most ideal fetal presentation

a)

OA

b)

OP

c)

Cephalic

d)

Asynclitism

13.

Your laboring client asks when is the best time for her to push. How should you respond?

a)

"in between contractions when the pain is less severe"

b)

"whenever you feel comfortable enough to push"

c)

"push at the same time as your contractions"

d)

"don't push unless I tell you you can"

14.

A laboring mother with a history of sexual abuse is assigned to you. When you go in to check her cervix, what is the most therapeutic statement?

a)

say "I know this may be uncomfortable, but I need to check your cervix. I will be quick"

b)

Insert your fingers and say "I am just checking your cervix. you may feel some pressure"

c)

before beginning say "I would like to check your cervix. I will place 2 fingers in your vagina to see how dilated you are. Is that okay with you?"

d)

say "I am not your abuser so there's no need to be scared of me"

15.

Which of the following are labor warning signs?

a)

constipation

b)

loss of mucus plug

c)

sudden weight gain

d)

bloody show

e)

lightening

16.

A 38wks gestation mother calls your unit and says that she had a gush of fluids this morning in the shower. She asks if she should come in. What is the best response?

a)

"Rupture of membranes does not mean active labor, so you don't have to come in until your contractions are strong and close together."

b)

"yes, we will prepare a room for you."

c)

"I'm not sure. Let me call your provider."

d)

"you are in labor, so yes"

17.

You perform a Ferning test on a mom with suspected ROM. Which result would indicate amniotic fluid?

a)

The paper turns blue

b)

the lab sends back a positive result

c)

fluids expel when mom coughs

d)

there are "snowflakes" under the microscope

18.

Which findings indicate mom is in the 3rd stage of labor

a)

Baby's head is delivered

b)

mom is doing skin to skin

c)

the umbilical cord is elongating

d)

there is a gush of clear fluids

19.

A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:

a)

DTR of 2+

b)

absent clonus

c)

Decreased BP

d)

RR of 9

20.

A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. This treatment is considered successful if:

a)

BP is reduced to prepregnant baseline

b)

seizures do not occur

c)

DTR become hypotonic

d)

Diuresis reduces fluid retention

21.

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of placental abruption (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

a)

intense bleeding

b)

intense abdominal pain

c)

cramping

d)

Uterine activity

22.

A pregnant woman presents to the emergency department complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. She is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse should include which information when teaching about diet for hyperemesis? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Eat 3 larger meals a day

b)

Avoid ginger goods

c)

eat what sounds good to you even if its not well-balanced

d)

don't eat cold foods and hot foods in the same sitting

e)

eat smaller meals throughout the day

23.

What action does the nurse take to relieve choking in a pregnant patient who is in the third trimester?

a)

administer anesthesia

b)

administer chest thrusts

c)

place towel under hips

d)

position onto one side

24.

A woman comes in with a positive pregnancy test. Upon transvaginal ultrasound, you notice no fetus in the uterus. Which intervention would you anticipate?

a)

Prepare patient for D&C

b)

Consult psych because the client is faking a pregnancy

c)

suspect ectopic pregnancy and prepare to administer methotrexate

d)

Tell mom she had an abortion and offer emotional support

25.

What does the nurse include in the plan of care of a pregnant patient with mild preeclampsia? Select all that apply.

a)

ensure prolonged bed rest with no bathroom privileges

b)

restrict sodium

c)

restrict activity at home

d)

schedule frequent office visits for NST's

e)

administer Mag Sulfate

26.

Which of the following puts the patient at risk for an spontaneous abortion?

a)

Gestational age >35

b)

tobacco use

c)

infection

d)

caffiene

27.

A mom who just had a molar pregnancy came into the office for her first follow up. Which statement by the client indicates need for further teaching?

a)

"I need to plan on several follow up appointments to monitor my hCG"

b)

"There is a chance that my hCG levels rise again if not all cells were removed"

c)

"Once my hCG levels stabilize, I can try for another baby"

d)

"I need to avoid pregnancy for at least 1 year"

28.

True or false: Once a pre-eclampic mom delivers her baby, the nurse can discontinue the Mag sulfate because the cure to preeclampsia is delivery.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which of the following are considered severe features?

a)

Pancytopenia

b)

Impaired liver funtion

c)

vision changes

d)

ESRD

e)

HTN

30.

What chemical substance(s) produced in the body acts as a natural pain reliever?

a)

endorphins

b)

morphine

c)

codeine

d)

atropine

31.

A nurse instructs a womans labor coach to comfort her by firmly pressing on her lower back. What is this technique?

a)

Counter pressure

b)

distraction

c)

conscious relaxation

d)

effleurage

32.

A woman in the transition phase of labor requests a narcotic analgesic medication for pain relief. What should the nurse explain regarding giving a narcotic analgesic medication at this stage of labor?

a)

it can cause medications given at later stages to be ineffective

b)

it will have no complications for the mother or infant

c)

it may result in respiratory depression to the newborn

d)

it will speed up labor and increase pain

33.

A woman in labor will receive general anesthesia prior to cesarean section. The nurse reminds the patient that food and fluids need to be restricted for several hours prior to delivery. What will this prevent?

a)

N/V

b)

Vomiting and aspiration

c)

abdominal cramping

d)

intestinal obstruction

34.

A woman in labor has had an epidural block for pain relief. The nurse will be assessing carefully for what associated side effect of this type of regional anesthesia?

a)

reduce fetal HR

b)

Long, intense contractions

c)

sudden leg cramps

d)

bladder distension

35.

An 18-year-old primigravida is 4 cm dilated and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She received little prenatal care and had no childbirth preparation. She is crying loudly and shouting, Please give me something for the pain. I cant take the pain! What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

a)

pain related to uterine contractions

b)

knowledge deficit related to the birth experience

c)

ineffective coping related to inadequate preparation for labor

d)

risk for injury related to lack or prenatal care

36.

The nurse coaches the primigravida not to bear down until the cervix is completely dilated. What may premature bearing down cause?

a)

increased use of oxygen

b)

cervical laceration

c)

uterine rupture

d)

compression of cord

37.

A patient who received an epidural block asks why her blood pressure is taken so often. What is the nurses best response to explain the frequent blood pressure assessments?

a)

they ensure that unsafe levels of HTN do not occur

b)

they help assess for the need for further pain relief

c)

they monitor the progress of labor

d)

they ensure adequate placental perfusion

38.

which statement by the client indicates understanding of the drug Butorphanol

a)

"butorphanol will relieve all of my labor pain"

b)

"this medication crosses the placenta and can affect my baby"

c)

"this will make me feel crazy and drunk"

d)

" i can receive this med up until i am completely dilated"

39.

On the fetal heart monitor you see early decelerations. What is the cause of this finding

a)

the babys head is pressing against the pelvis or soft tissue

b)

it is due to uteroplacental insufficiency

c)

it is caused by cord compression

d)

it is caused by a prolapsed uterus

40.

Which of the following statements describe a variable deceleration?

a)

On the fetal tracing, the heart rate will mirror the mother’s contraction and represent uteroplacental insufficiency.

b)

On the fetal tracing, the heart rate will increase after the mother’s contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends

c)

On the fetal tracing, the heart rate will decline sharply present when the cord is being compressed.

d)

Variable decelerations are uniform

41.

You notice prolonged decels on your moms fetal strip. what action should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Have mom sign consent form for STAT CS

b)

apply surgical glove and apply fundal pressure

c)

don sterile gloves and lift presenting part off of umbilical cord

d)

prepare for amnioinfusion

42.

Which declaration can be treated with an amnioinfusion

a)

early decels

b)

late decels

c)

variable decels

d)

sinusoidal

43.

what steps are apart of the stress protocol

a)

Place mom lateral sides

b)

lay mom supine

c)

increase pit

d)

10L O2 via face mask

e)

bolus fluids

44.

A fetal heart stip is showing fetal bradycardia. How should the nurse interpret this finding?

a)

The baby's head is being compressed

b)

baby is sleeping and needs to be stimulated

c)

baby has decreased perfusion dt either cord compression, drugs, or maternal hypotension.

d)

baby is having minimal fluctuations in normal FHR due to either hypoxic or nonhypoxic causes

45.

Mom and baby are experiencing tachycardia rt mild fever. which intervention should the nurse perform.

a)

administer ibuprophen

b)

administer tylenol

c)

Perform stress protocol

d)

bolus fluids