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Worksheets

AP Bio

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.

Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

a)

12%

b)

24%

c)

31%

d)

38%

2.

What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?

a)

hydrogen

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

3.

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?

a)

A = G and C = T

b)

A + C = G + T

4.

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons?

a)

Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

b)

Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.

5.

What is meant by the description ʺantiparallelʺ regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

The 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of the other strand.

b)

One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.

6.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5ʹ → 3ʹ direction?

a)

primase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

helicase

7.

What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication?

a)

the nucleotide sequence of the template strand

b)

the primase used in the reaction

8.

You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent

a)

leading strands and Okazaki fragments

b)

lagging strands and Okazaki fragments.

9.

Which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

primase

10.

Which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

ligase

11.

Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

primase

12.

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

a)

the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

b)

the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5ʹ end.

13.

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction because

a)

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3ʹ end

b)

Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3ʹ to 5ʹ direction.

14.

When DNA is compacted by histones into 10 nm and 30 nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

a)

methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails

b)

nucleotide excision and reconstruction

15.

Based your answer on the figure: A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

a)

an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

b)

an accumulation of A and B and no production of C

16.

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume all of the following except

a)

a gene from an organism could theoretically be expressed by any other organism.

b)

all organisms have a common ancestor.

c)

DNA was the first genetic material.

d)

the same codons in different organisms usually translate into the same amino acids.

17.

In which of the following actions does RNA polymerase differ from DNA polymerase?

a)

RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis.

b)

RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA.

18.

RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?

a)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the template strand

b)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the coding (sense) strand

19.

What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

a)

introns

b)

exons

20.

Introns are significant to biological evolution because

a)

their presence allows exons to be shuffled.

b)

they protect the mRNA from degeneration.

21.

A mutation in which of the following parts of a gene is likely to be most damaging to a cell?

a)

intron

b)

exon

22.

Alternative RNA splicing

a)

is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.

b)

can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA

23.

When does translation begin in prokaryotic cells?

a)

as soon as transcription has begun

b)

once the pre-mRNA has been converted to mRNA

24.

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of proteinʹs activity?

a)

It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.

b)

It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.

25.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

a base insertion only.

b)

either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

c)

a base deletion only.

26.

What does the operon model attempt to explain?

a)

the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria

b)

the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell

27.

The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

a)

turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium

b)

turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.

28.

When this is taken up by the cell, it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator:

a)

inducer

b)

repressor

29.

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

a)

occurs continuously in the cell.

b)

starts when the pathwayʹs substrate is present.

30.

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organismʹs survival in which of the following ways?

a)

allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions

b)

organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order

c)

allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryoteʹs genome

31.

Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to

a)

having different genes.

b)

having different genes expressed.

32.

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

a)

be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.

b)

have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.

33.

This can inhibit transcription by blocking the binding of positively acting transcription factors to the DNA:

a)

enhancer

b)

promoter

c)

repressor

34.

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the Figure?

a)

ligase

b)

a restriction enzyme

35.

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?

a)

to cleave nucleic acids at specific sites

b)

to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA

36.

Which of the following separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

gene cloning

37.

Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

38.

The segment of DNA shown in the figure has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?

a)
b)
39.

The DNA profiles in the figure represent four different individuals. Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?

a)

B is the child of A and C.

b)

C is the child of A and B.

40.

Which of the following are characteristics of Prokaryotic DNA? (more than 1 answer applies)

a)

Single linear strand

b)

Single circular strand

c)

Multiple linear strands

d)

Plasmids

e)

Contains histones

41.

Which of the following are characteristics of plasmids? ( more than 1 answer applies)

a)

Circular DNA strand

b)

RNA strands

c)

Contain resistance genes

d)

Found in eukaryotes

e)

Found in prokaryotes

42.

Which of the following describe the structure of mature RNA? (more than 1 answer applies)

a)

Contains Uracil

b)

Contains introns and exons

c)

Has a poly-A tail and 5' cap

d)

Single stranded

e)

Circular strand

43.

Which of the following would be transcribed from the following DNA sequence? 3' ATC GAA TTA CGA 5'

a)

5' UAG CUU AAU GCU 3'

b)

5' AUC GAA UUA CGA 3'

c)

3' UCG UAA UUC UAG 5'

d)

3' TAG CTT AAT GCT 5'

e)

5' TAG CTT AAT GCT 3'

44.

Which of the following is true of DNA Replication?

a)

DNA is semi conservative because it creates two new strands of old nucleotide.

b)

New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

DNA is being synthesized in the 3' to 5' directions from a template strand

d)

RNA is being synthesized by RNA polymerase in the 5' to 3' direction

e)

A sense strand is created from a nonsense strand of DNA using RNA polymerase

45.

Where does RNA polymerase bind to DNA?

a)

at an activator site

b)

on the coding gene sequence

c)

at a promoter region

d)

downstream of the coding sequence

e)

Where the RNA primer is placed

46.

Which of the following occur during RNA processing? (more than 1 answer applies)

a)

exons can be removed

b)

spliceosomes remove introns

c)

a poly-A tail and GTP cap are added

d)

DNA helicase unzips DNA

e)

activator sequences initiate transcription

47.

Which of the following is a similarity between the process prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms implement for protein synthesis?

a)

Transcription takes place in the nucleus, translation takes place in the cytoplasm

b)

Introns are removed by spliceosomes

c)

RNA processing adds a cap and tail to the mature RNA strand

d)

Transcription and translation happen simultaneously

e)

Ribosomes for phosphodiester bonds between amino acids

48.

Bacterial cells that contain pGal will fluoresce blue under ultraviolet light. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of replacing the lacA gene in the E. coli lac operon with the gene encoding pGal?

a)

When lacY and lac Z are breaking down and transporting lactose, the bacteria will fluoresce blue under ultraviolet light

b)

lacZ will only produce the enzyme for breaking down galactose in the presence of ultraviolet light

c)

the repressor enzyme will only be able to bind to the operator under the presence of lactose

d)

When the regulatory gene is stimulated by lactose, it will cause the gene to fluoresce blue

e)

All structural genes downstream from the placement of lacA will be inhibited due to this substitution mutation.