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Practice Cosmetology Operator Written Exam

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All practitioners must clean their hands with ____________ prior to performing any service to ensure a client's health and safety.

a)

Soap and water

b)

Hand sanitizer

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Both A and B

2.

 Chlorine Bleach must be mixed ________.

a)

Once a week

b)

Daily

c)

Every other day

d)

Until the solution is finished

3.

Disinfectant must be used in accordance with _________.


a)

Users discretion

b)

With water

c)

Manufacturers’ instructions

d)

With EPA

4.

What removes all debris, residue?

a)

Cleansing

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sanitizing

d)

Sterilizing

5.

What destroys all pathogens on implements, non porous surfaces and is safe for use,but does not kill spores?

a)

Cleaning

b)

Disinfecting

c)

Scrubbing

d)

Sterilization

6.

What is the process that eliminates all forms of bacteria and microorganisms by the use of an autoclave or dry heat sterilizer?

a)

Sterilization

b)

Sanitation

c)

Disinfection

d)

Cleansing

7.

Which is the lowest level of decontamination?

a)

Sterilizing a surface

b)

Disinfecting a surface

c)

Sanitizing a surface

d)

Removing hair from a surface

8.

Which of the following are the qualifications to be an EPA approved disinfectant?

a)

Has been proven effective against staphylococcus

b)

A disinfectant, fungicide that is safe for daily use

c)

Has to be clearly stated product is a hospital

d)

A virucide, fungicide, bactericide and disinfectant

9.

Which is the FIRST step in disinfecting implements?

a)

Place in bleach solution

b)

Put clutter away

c)

Place in dry area

d)

Scrub with soap and water

10.

For which purpose would the use of hospital grade disinfectant be appropriate?

a)

To remove color from the skin

b)

To clean manicure & pedicure area

c)

To clean blood and bodily fluids off surfaces

d)

To remove internal parasites

11.

How long do you have to inform TDLR of an address change?


a)

1 year

b)

90 days

c)

60 days

d)

30 days

12.

What are items that can only be used once?

a)

Porous

b)

Multiuse

c)

Disposable

d)

Single use items

13.

Which form of alum is not allowed in the salon?

a)

Gel

b)

Stick/lump

c)

Powder

d)

Any

14.

What is the second step in decontamination?

a)

Disinfect

b)

Clean

c)

Sanitize

d)

Sterilize

15.

What is the order of decontamination?

a)

Clean-Disinfect-Sanitize-Sterilize

b)

Sterilize-Clean-Disinfect-Sanitize

c)

Disinfect-Sanitize-Sterilize-Clean

d)

Clean-Sanitize-Disinfect-Sterilize

16.

During a haircut the cosmetologist drops a comb on the floor.  What would be considered best practice in this case?


a)

 Pick up the comb and dispose in a container to be disinfected

b)

Kick the comb out of the way and leave until the end of the day.

c)

Leave the comb on the floor until you finish, then dispose of it into a dirty container.

d)

Leave it on the floor and get a new one.

17.

What does not have to have to be placed in a conspicuous place in the salon?


a)

Fire exit

b)

license

c)

taxes from the previous year

d)

human trafficking signs

18.

Which item would be described as multi use?

a)

Wooden sticks

b)

Nippers

c)

Gauze

d)

Cotton balls

19.

 Which is the FIRST step if you get blood or other potentially infectious materials in your eyes, nose, mouth or on broken skin?

a)

 Use the skin disinfectant

b)

Clean wound with soap and water

c)

Seek immediate medical attention

d)

Immediately flood the exposed area with water

20.

What must you do when a shop changes ownership?

a)

Inform TDLR and get a new license

b)

Call OSHA

c)

Nothing

d)

Get an inspection

21.

What is the last step in pedi tub decontamination?

a)

Spray with disinfectant

b)

Wipe dry with towel

c)

Clean with soap and water

d)

Remove screen and spray with bleach

22.

What is a patch test for?

a)

 To determine the results of a service

b)

No reason

c)

To determine porosity

d)

To determine a possible allergy

23.

Which of the following refers to the methods used to eliminate or reduce the transmission of infectious organisms from one individual to another?

a)

infection control

b)

Standard Precautions

c)

sterilization

d)

Sanitization

24.

Rules and regulations are ______.


a)

also referred to as statutes

b)

just the same as laws

c)

less specific than laws

d)

more specific than laws

25.

Which of the following would OSHA most likely be involved in regulating?

a)

the manufacture of chemical products used in the workplace

b)

the sale of chemical products used in the workplace

c)

the disposal of chemical products in the workplace

d)

the registration of chemical products used in the workplace

26.

Which of the following is NOT required of disinfectants used in salons, spas, and barbershops?

a)

They must be hypoallergenic.

b)

They must be bactericidal.

c)

They must be virucidal

d)

They must be fungicidal

27.

When it comes to the spread of infectious disease, beauty professionals must be prepared to deal with all EXCEPT which type of potentially harmful organisms?

a)

bacteria

b)

viruses

c)

gases

d)

parasites

28.

What is a microorganism?


a)

any infectious organism

b)

any living organism

c)

any plant-based organism

d)

any organism of microscopic size


29.

Which of the following is TRUE of nonpathogenic and pathogenic bacteria?

a)

Both pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans.

b)

Neither pathogenic nor nonpathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans

c)

Pathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans, whereas nonpathogenic bacteria are not.

d)

Nonpathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans, whereas pathogenic bacteria are not

30.

There are two types of parasites commonly encountered in the salon, spa, and barbershop. Which of the following is one of them?

a)

HIV

b)

pediculosis capitis

c)

pus

d)

mycobacteria

31.

 If a cosmetologist holds a strand of hair with one hand while sliding the other hand’s thumb and forefinger from the end of the strand to the client’s scalp, what component of the hair is being analyzed?

a)

porosity

b)

elasticity

c)

density

d)

texture


32.

Which of the following best describes a procedure a cosmetologist could use to determine how quickly hair will process during chemical servicing?

a)

Feel a strand of hair to determine the hair’s texture.

b)

Consider how much of the scalp is visible to determine how many hairs there are on each square inch of the scalp.


c)

Examine the shape of a cross-section of a strand of hair to determine the wave pattern

d)

Determine the slope of the hair follicles to identify the hair growth pattern.

33.

The hair, skin, nails, and glands are part of the _____ system.


a)

epidermal

b)

integumentary

c)

endocrine

d)

lymphatic

34.

The measurement that describes the number of individual hair strands on 1 square inch of the scalp is hair _____.

a)

porosity

b)

diameter

c)

elasticity

d)

Density

35.

Which type of alopecia is defined as hair loss in round or irregularly shaped patches caused by the immune system attacking hair follicles?


a)

androgenic alopecia

b)

alopecia totalis

c)

postpartum alopecia

d)

alopecia areata

36.

Each of the following hair disorders is characterized by brittle hair EXCEPT ______.


a)

trichorrhexis nodosa

b)

monilethrix

c)

hirsuties

d)

fragilitas crinium

37.

What is the medical term used to describe dandruff?

a)

alopecia

b)

selenium

c)

pityriasis

d)

Pyrithione

38.

 _____ is a common bacterial infection of the eye.


a)

Excoriation

b)

Eczema

c)

Leukoderma

d)

Conjunctivitis

39.

 _________________ is also known as athlete's foot.

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Verruca

c)

Tinea manus

d)

Tinea pedis

40.

 What is the name given to the chronic skin disease characterized by moderate to severe inflammation, scaling, and sometimes severe itching?

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

rosacea

c)

impetigo

d)

eczema

41.

Which of the following nail disorders displays as dark purplish spots usually due to a small injury to the nail bed?


a)

bruised nail bed

b)

ridged nail

c)

onychophagy

d)

splinter hemorrhage

42.

A product that can be applied to the skin to reduce microbes is called a (n):

a)

Sterilizer

b)

Sanitizer

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Disinfectant

43.

 Which of the following is the FIRST step in responding to a blood exposure incident?

a)

Put on gloves

b)

Stop the service

c)

Stop the bleed

d)

Call 911

44.

Which is a place for storing disinfected tools and implements in a salon?

a)

Opened container

b)

Closed covered container

c)

In EPA registered solution

d)

On station

45.

 All of the following are steps in decontaminating workstations  when there is an exposure incident EXCEPT.

a)

discard all disposable contaminated material in the nearest trash receptacle.

b)

Disinfect

c)

Clean

d)

Sterilize

46.

What is the proper way to wash hands?


a)

Scrub, wash, dry, sanitize

b)

wet , lather, rinse, dry

c)

Lather, wet, dry, rinse

d)

Wet, lather, dry, rinse

47.

Which is an example of a parasite?


a)

Scabies

b)

Fleas

c)

Ticks

d)

None of the above

48.

What happens during mitosis?

a)

A cell combines simple molecules to form a complex molecule.

b)

Enzymes in cell fluid digest other molecules for food.

c)

A cell reproduces by dividing into two identical cells

d)

The tissue surrounding a cell allows certain substances to enter the cell.


49.

Which part of the skeletal system has the function of protecting the brain?


a)

scapula

b)

metacarpus

c)

mandible

d)

cranium

50.

The basic units of all living things are _____.


a)

bacteria

b)

cells

c)

plasma

d)

hormones


51.

 Combs that are used for thermal curling should be made of _______.


a)

plastic

b)

nylon blends

c)

soft metal

d)

hard rubber

52.

The correct temperature of the iron for thermal curling is determined by the ______.


a)

texture of the hair

b)

length of the hair

c)

type of iron used

d)

size of the iron used

53.

 How is a spring iron different from a Marcel iron?


a)

A spring iron has a small barrel size, and a Marcel iron has larger barrel sizes.

b)

A spring iron can operate at a range of temperatures, and a Marcel iron operates only at high temperatures.


c)

A spring iron is used to curl long hair, and a Marcel iron is used to curl short hair.

d)

A spring controls the clamp pressure on a spring iron, and the stylist manually controls the clamp pressure on a Marcel iron.


54.

When is it most effective for a cosmetologist to seek information on a client’s hair and scalp needs?

a)

Before services begin, have a dedicated consultation.

b)

After the shampoo and conditioning service, ask questions before the hair is styled.


c)

Ask detailed questions about each step in the service while proceeding.

d)

At the end of a salon service, ask whether the client is satisfied.


55.

 How often should draping capes be laundered?


a)

when they are visibly dirty or have a product spilled on them

b)

once per week

c)

at the end of each day

d)

after each use

56.

Which brush type bristles have many tiny overlapping layers or scales?


a)

wet-type brush

b)

rubberlike bristle brush

c)

natural bristle brush

d)

plastic vent brush

57.

Which shampoo type should be used when shampooing the client’s hair after a chemical relaxer?


a)

a conditioning shampoo

b)

a balancing or neutralizing shampoo

c)

an oil shampoo

d)

a pH-balanced shampoo

58.

 In which situation would a clarifying shampoo be recommended?

a)

when there is product buildup

b)

when the scalp and hair are oily

c)

when the hair needs improved manageability

d)

when dry, brittle hair needs softening

59.

  How do conditioners benefit hair?


a)

Conditioners strengthen hair by attaching artificial protein molecules to the hair’s natural protein.

b)

Conditioners remove excess oils and residual minerals from hair.

c)

Conditioners give the illusion of additional volume and density to hair.

d)

Conditioners infuse moisture and protect against breakage.

60.

When securing a cape as draping for a basic shampoo, do not let the cape touch the _____.


a)

client’s skin

b)

shampoo sink

c)

client’s towel

d)

shampoo chair

61.

What are the two basic requirements for a maintaining a healthy scalp?


a)

sunlight and nutrition

b)

scrubbing and oiling


c)

washing and drying

d)

cleanliness and stimulation


62.

When a cosmetologist combs hair away from its natural falling position before cutting in order to increase a hair design’s length, the cosmetologist is using _______

a)

finger angles

b)

haircut sections

c)

elevation

d)

Overdirection

63.

 A stylist is discussing a new hairstyle with a client, who describes a style that must use layers. In order to create the layered style, what type of guideline should the stylist use?


a)

stationary guideline

b)

traveling guideline

c)

perimeter guideline

d)

interior guideline

64.

What is the advantage to the stylist when palming the haircutting shears?

a)

The stylist minimizes repetitive stress on the ring finger when it is moving the blade.


b)

The stylist can use the comb to keep the still-blade from moving when cutting.

c)

The stylist saves time by using the comb to hold the hair while cutting.


d)

The stylist saves time by being able to switch from the comb to the shears while holding both at the same time.


65.

Removing excess bulk from the hair without shortening the hair’s length is called ______.


a)

slide cutting

b)

tensioning

c)

tapering

d)

Texturizing

66.

Which manufactured synthetic fiber is used for hair extensions and is durable, soft, and less inclined to tangle than many other synthetics?

a)

Kanekalon

b)

yarn

c)

synthetic

d)

rayon


67.

Hydroxide relaxers permanently straighten hair by removing one of the bonded sulfur atoms in a disulfide bond. What is the name of this process?


a)

ianthionization

b)

thio neutralization

c)

thermal reconditioning

d)

keratin smoothing

68.

Which of the following practices helps ensure a safe outcome when performing chemical texture services?


a)

Rinse the relaxer and neutralizer from the hair using warm water.

b)

Use a wide-tooth comb to smooth the relaxer through the hair and scalp.

c)

Alternate the use of hydroxide relaxers and thio relaxers.

d)

Shampoo the hair thoroughly just before applying the relaxer

69.

 The active ingredient or reducing agent in alkaline permanent waves is _____.


a)

ammonium thioglycolate

b)

hydrogen thioglycolate

c)

alkaline acids

d)

glyceryl monothioglycolate

70.

Hair that has too many broken disulfide bonds and will not hold a firm curl is considered _____.


a)

underprocessed

b)

overprocessed

c)

underneutralized

d)

overtinted

71.

 When does the majority of the processing for permanent waving occur?


a)

within 2 minutes

b)

within 5 to 10 minutes

c)

after 15 minutes

d)

after 25 minutes

72.

 Which service uses a thio-based chemical process and is recommended for loosening hair texture that is extremely curly into a larger curl pattern?


a)

exothermic wave

b)

soft curl permanent

c)

no-lye relaxer

d)

thermal reconditioning

73.

To perm coarse hair, the solution must have enough __________ ions to break the required number of disulfide bonds.

a)

potassium

b)

hydrogen

c)

sodium

d)

calcium

74.

What do cosmetologists use to identify the degree of darkness or lightness of natural and artificial hair color?

a)

level system

b)

shade chart

c)

haircolor swatch

d)

tonal classification

75.

The standard volume of hydrogen peroxide is __________ volume, which provides __________ level(s) of lift.


a)

20, two

b)

30, four

c)

40, three

d)

50, one

76.

A strand test shows damage to the hair. Under which condition can haircolor be performed?


a)

none: hair that is damaged cannot be treated with haircolor

b)

when the damage is mild

c)

after using a pre-conditioner

d)

when the client signs a release


77.

 What coloring process lifts and deposits color in one application?


a)

temporary color

b)

semipermanent color

c)

single-process haircoloring

d)

double-process haircoloring

78.

 The process in which the hair is pre-lightened and then toned is known as _____.

a)

single-process color

b)

double-process application

c)

color enhancement application

d)

special effects color

79.

Demipermanent colors are also known as _____.


a)

temporary colors

b)

no-lift, deposit-only colors

c)

lift and deposit colors

d)

tonal colors

80.

Which of the following color pairs create a tertiary color?

a)

blue and violet

b)

yellow and blue

c)

green and orange

d)

violet and green

81.

What is the term for a chemical compound that uses oxidation to disperse and decolorize the hair’s natural pigment?

a)

lightener

b)

protinator

c)

toner

d)

activator

82.

All of the following are haircoloring safety precautions EXCEPT:


a)

Brush the client’s hair to distribute its natural oils uniformly.

b)

Perform a strand test to check for the presence of metallic salts.

c)

Use glass or plastic bowls or applicator bottles to mix haircolor.

d)

Wash hands before and after performing a client’s service.


83.

You should never apply haircolor to a client if the scalp has any obvious signs of _____.


a)

dandruff

b)

demarcations

c)

abrasions

d)

fading

84.

What is porosity?

a)

How much the hair can stretch

b)

The ability of the hair to absorb 

c)

How many hairs in a square inch

d)

Coarseness or fineness of hair

85.

What is the hardest part of the hair to color?


a)

Hairline

b)

Above the ears

c)

Top

d)

Back/nape

86.

How long does a client have to wait before shampooing after a perm?

a)

20 minutes

b)

48 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

1 hour

87.

What is not a primary color?


a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

88.

What do you clean electric drill bits with?

a)

EPA

b)

Bleach

c)

Acetone

d)

Soap and water

89.

 What is a foot file for?


a)

File toenails

b)

Roughing the skin

c)

Massage 

d)

Remove calluses/smoothing the skin

90.

 What can you not remove a callus with?


a)

Foot file

b)

Pumice stone

c)

Credo blade

d)

Callus remover

91.

What is the order of polish application?

a)

Top coat-Base coat-Polish-Polish

b)

Polish-Top coat- Polish-Base coat

c)

Base coat- polish-Top coat-Polish

d)

Base coat-polish-polish-Top coat

92.

What goes on nail immediately before you apply monomer and polymer?

a)

Adhesive

b)

Cuticle oil

c)

Dehydrator

d)

Primer

93.

 What will occur if you contact the skin with beads of gel?

a)

lifting

b)

free-edge chipping

c)

“stringing” of the product

d)

discoloration

94.

What is the proper technique for removing a soft wax strip?


a)

Lift the edge of the wax and pull it in the same direction as hair growth.

b)

Without lifting the edge of the wax, pull it downward and outward.

c)

Lift up the edge of the fabric strip and pull it straight upward.

d)

Without lifting the fabric strip upward, pull it opposite the direction of hair growth.


95.

  For proper application, wax should be __________.


a)

hot enough to melt away vellus hair

b)

cool enough to apply without applicators

c)

thicker in consistency, like caramel sauce

d)

thinner in consistency, like pasta water


96.

Why is it important for a cosmetologist to review the client intake form?


a)

to document services received and service results

b)

to understand client expectations about treatment plans


c)

to verify the client’s next appointment for services

d)

to identify contraindications that might preclude treatment


97.

What is effleurage for?


a)

Friction

b)

Blood flow

c)

Calming/relaxation

d)

Stimulation

98.

 When do you trim the eyelash?


a)

After you apply the adhesive

b)

Before the adhesive is applied

c)

After the lash is applied

d)

Before you measure the lash

99.

 When do you apply steam in a facial?


a)

Before extractions

b)

After moisturizer

c)

After extractions

d)

Before toner

100.

What are the three methods of permanent hair reduction?

a)

electrolysis, laser hair removal, and waxing

b)

electrolysis, waxing, and shaving

c)

photoepilation, electrolysis, and laser hair removal

d)

waxing, shaving, and threading

101.

What type of adhesive is used for eyelash extensions?

a)

Permanent

b)

Semi permanent

c)

Demi permanent

d)

None of the above

102.

What tools do you use to apply eyelash extensions?

a)

Tweezers

b)

Fingers

c)

Wooden stick

d)

Cotton swab

103.

What area will you not be able to wax on?

a)

Mole

b)

Pimple

c)

Oily skin

d)

Hairy skin

104.

What do you use to remove lash glue?

a)

Soap and water

b)

Water

c)

Oil based makeup remover

105.

What is an example of an exposure incident?

a)

Lice in hair

b)

Cutting self while cutting hair

c)

Spilled nail polish on floor

d)

Hair on the floor

106.

What do you need to start a business?

a)

A license 

b)

A business degree

c)

Workers

d)

Tools

107.

Before you blowdry hair, what do you do?


a)

Partial towel dry hair

b)

Round brush

c)

Shampoo

d)

None of the above

108.

 What needs to be above your license frame?


a)

Current picture

b)

Current license

c)

Fire exit

d)

None of the above

109.

How many hrs. of continuing education do you need to renew your license?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

0

110.

What is a mobile shop?

a)

a beauty shop

b)

a specialty shop

c)

a dual shop

d)

a beauty, specialty & dual shop in a self contained enclosed mobile unit.