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Technical Training Quiz

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Jean-François Pilâtre De Rozier and François Laurent are the first humans to fly in a hot air balloon on:

a)

27 December 1781

b)

21 November 1783

c)

26 September 1789

d)

20 October 1785

2.

The first crossing of the English Channel in a hot air balloon was achieved by Jean-Pierre Blanchard and the American John Jeffries in:

a)

1782

b)

1790

c)

1785

d)

1795

3.

The largest airship ever built was the:

a)

USS Akron

b)

Graf Zeppelin

c)

English R34

d)

Hindenburg

4.

Louis Blériot crossed the English Channel on:

a)

September 23rd 1913

b)

July 25th 1909

c)

October 23rd 1906

d)

January 13th 1908

5.

On September 23rd 1913 the first crossing of the Mediterranean Sea was accomplished by:

a)

Henri Farman

b)

Ferdinand Ferber

c)

Henri Fabre

d)

Roland Garros

6.

The first powered and controlled flight was done by:

a)

Clément Ader in 1890

b)

Roland Garros in 1913

c)

The Wright brothers in 1903

d)

Ferdinand Ferber in 1905

7.

The pilot ace with most victories (80) in World War I was:

a)

Réné Fonck

b)

Manfred von Richthofen

c)

Billy Bishop

d)

Eddie Rickenbacker

8.

The first aerial victory happened on:

a)

2 juillet 1915

b)

22 août 1914

c)

8 septembre 1914

d)

5 octobre 1914

9.

The oldest airline still in existence today is:

a)

Lufthansa

b)

KLM

c)

Air France

d)

Quantas

10.

Charles Lindbergh accomplished the first solo Atlantic crossing in:

a)

1925

b)

1926

c)

1927

d)

1928

11.

The aircraft which flew between Esch sur Alzette and Croydon for Radio Luxembourg in 1938/39 was called the:

a)

Luxembourg Speaker

b)

Luxembourg Radio

c)

Luxembourg Listener

d)

Luxembourg Talker

12.

The first nuclear bomb ‘Little Boy’ was dropped on Japan on:

a)

9th of August 1945 on Nagasaki

b)

12th of August 1945 on Kyoto

c)

6th of August 1945 on Hiroshima

d)

5th of August 1945 on Tokyo

13.

The only operational jet fighter aircraft of World War II was the:

a)

Heinkel He 178

b)

Dassault Ouragan

c)

Gloster Meteor

d)

Messerschmitt ME 262

14.

The Battle of Britain was fought from:

a)

March 1939 to June 1940

b)

July 1940 to May 1941

c)

September 1941 to March 1942

d)

July 1942 to April 1943

15.

The first pilot to break the sound barrier in level flight was:

a)

Robert White

b)

Louis Blériot

c)

Paul Tibbets

d)

Chuck Yeager

16.

The world's first jet airliner was the:

a)

Sud Aviation Caravelle

b)

Boeing 707

c)

De Havilland Comet

d)

Airbus A300

17.

The rocket plane which holds the records for speed 4.520 km/h (Mach 6.7) and altitude 354.200 feet is the:

a)

Lockheed SR-71

b)

Lockheed U2

c)

Bell X-1

d)

North American X-15

18.

Yuri Gagarin was the first human in space in:

a)

1957

b)

1961

c)

1965

d)

1972

19.

The first man on the moon was:

a)

Buzz Aldrin

b)

Neil Armstrong

c)

Alexandre Leonov

d)

John Glenn

20.

The space station which is still in service is:

a)

ISS

b)

Salyut

c)

Columbia

d)

MIR

21.

What is the fuselage of the aircraft?

a)

Component which generates the lift forces on the aircraft

b)

Central body of an aircraft and is designed to accommodate the crew, passengers and cargo

c)

Carries the load of the aircraft on the ground

d)

Aircraft engine, providing the thrust to fly

22.

What material is used mainly in aircraft construction?

a)

Balsa wood

b)

Iron

c)

Aluminum

d)

Titanium

23.

What is the empennage of the aircraft?

a)

Optional aerodynamic part

b)

Essential part of the wing

c)

Entire tail group of the aircraft

d)

Fin and rudder

24.

What determines mainly the number of gears/tires of an aircraft?

a)

Visual impression

b)

Weight of the aircraft

c)

Number of passengers

d)

Type of powerplant

25.

A conventional landing gear consists of:

a)

2 main landing gears and a wheel at the tail

b)

2 main landing gears and a wheel at the nose

c)

4 main landing gears

d)

Floats

26.

The ideal composition of the fuel-air mixture combustion corresponds to burning 1 gram of fuel for every:

a)

17 g of air

b)

20 g of air

c)

15 g of air

d)

8 g of air

27.

Richness of the fuel to air mixture:

a)

Increases with altitude

b)

Decreases with altitude

c)

Remains constant regardless of altitude

d)

Varies with intake pressure

28.

In an internal combustion engine, the crankshaft:

a)

is used to limit the cylinder movement

b)

transmits the movement of the valves to the connecting rods

c)

transmits the movement of the pistons to the cylinders

d)

transmits the movement of the pistons to the rotation of the propeller shaft

29.

What is the function of the magneto:

a)

required to control the fuel/air mixture

b)

provides fuel to the induction system

c)

cooling of the aircraft engine

d)

provides a spark that ignites the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders

30.

What is the correct sequence of the four-stroke cycle:

a)

intake, compression, power, exhaust

b)

compression, intake, exhaust, power

c)

power, compression, intake, exhaust

d)

intake, exhaust, compression, power

31.

What is not a function of the oil system:

a)

Lubrication of the engine’s moving parts

b)

Ensuring proper amount of fuel is delivered to the cylinder

c)

Cooling of the engine by reducing friction

d)

Carrying away contaminants

32.

The airspeed indicator indicates:

a)

how fast the aircraft is flying in air

b)

how fast the aircraft is flying over the ground

c)

atmospheric pressure at ground level

d)

the aircraft vertical speed

33.

To measure the speed of the aircraft, the airspeed indicator uses:

a)

total pressure and impact pressure

b)

only the total pressure

c)

dynamic pressure and static pressure

d)

total pressure and static pressure

34.

On the airspeed indicator, the upper end of the white arc corresponds to:

4 lines
35.

On the airspeed indicator, the upper end of the white arc corresponds to:

a)

the never exceed speed

b)

the stall speed with the flaps extended

c)

the maximum speed with the flaps extended

d)

the turbulence speed

36.

What pressure is used by the altimeter?

a)

Total pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Dynamic pressure

d)

Gauge pressure

37.

The vertical speed indicator is an on-board instrument that measures:

a)

the aircraft forward speed

b)

the altitude

c)

the fuel consumption

d)

the vertical speed of the aircraft

38.

The vertical speed indicator works by measuring:

a)

Dynamic pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Total pressure

d)

Temperature

39.

The "VNE" airspeed corresponds to:

a)

the maximum speed with flaps extended

b)

the minimum speed

c)

the speed never to be exceeded

d)

the speed to be used in the final landing phase

40.

An artificial horizon gives information for:

a)

Pitch and roll

b)

Pitch and yaw

c)

Pitch and magnetic heading

d)

Roll and yaw

41.

The artificial horizon below shows the following attitude:

a)

Left turn with a pitch up of 8°

b)

Left turn with a pitch down of 8°

c)

Right turn with a pitch up of 8°

d)

Right turn with a pitch down of 8°

42.

Which device on the instrument panel does not use a gyroscope?

a)

Turn indicator

b)

Artificial horizon

c)

Heading indicator

d)

Magnetic compass

43.

To where does the compass point to?

a)

Heading selected by the pilot

b)

True north

c)

Magnetic north

d)

Center of the earth

44.

What do typical engine instruments not indicate?

a)

Cylinder head temperature

b)

Passenger compartment temperature

c)

Exhaust gas temperature

d)

Oil temperature and pressure

45.

What instrument is part of the basic T configuration?

a)

Magnetic compass

b)

Vertical speed indicator

c)

Turn coordinator

d)

Heading indicator

46.

Ailerons are attached:

a)

Close to the fuselage at the trailing edge of the wings

b)

At the trailing edge close to the outboard wings

c)

At the leading edge of the wing

d)

At the leading edge of the outboard wing

47.

The Chord:

a)

Is the distance between left and right wingtip

b)

Is the distance between Extrados and Intrados

c)

Is the distance between leading and trailing edge of the wing

d)

The thickness of the wing

48.

Lift:

a)

Increases at V2

b)

Is perpendicular to the Chord

c)

Is perpendicular to the relative airflow

d)

A and C are correct

49.

Drag:

a)

increases with Altitude

b)

decreases at low Speed

c)

decreases with Altitude

d)

is only affected by the wings shape

50.

Best Glide Speed is the speed:

a)

where Lift is at maximum

b)

where the angle of attack reaches the Stalling speed

c)

where Lift to Drag ratio is best

d)

where Drag is lowest

51.

Stall:

a)

Occurs always at the same speed

b)

An aircraft never stalls at high speed

c)

Occurs always at the same angle of attack

d)

Occurs only at low speeds

52.

Load factor:

a)

Increases with the angle of bank

b)

At 60° Bank the load factor is 2

c)

At 0° Bank the Load factor is 0

d)

A and B are correct

53.

Moving the controls to the right (right turn):

a)

The ac rolls to the left around the longitudinal axis

b)

Left aileron is up, right aileron is down

c)

Both ailerons moves down

d)

Left aileron descends, right aileron moves up

54.

Pushing the left Rudder pedal:

a)

the ac yaws to the right

b)

the ac rolls to the right

c)

the ac yaws to the left

d)

the ac yaws to the right around the longitudinal axis

55.

Flaps:

a)

Are close to the outboard wing

b)

Are only used for landing

c)

Increases only drag

d)

Changes the shape of the airfoil

56.

In a straight and level flight:

a)

Lift is opposed to Drag

b)

the angle of attack changes with ac speed

c)

an increase in Power increases Speed and Drag

d)

B and C are correct

57.

Taking off from a short field with obstacles:

a)

the ac climbs at best rate of climb speed

b)

takes off with max Flaps

c)

the ac climbs at best angle of climb speed

d)

takes off with tail wind

58.

Best gliding distance can be achieved:

a)

at lowest speed

b)

with 0 flaps

c)

decreases if the ac speed is lower or higher than best glide speed

d)

B and C are correct

59.

At 60° bank angle stalling speed:

a)

decreases by 40 %

b)

increases by 60 %

c)

remains the same as in level flight

d)

increases by 40 %

60.

Load factor:

a)

increases with the angle of bank

b)

is the difference between resultant weight and real weight

c)

limit load factor is +3.8 for normal category ac

d)

A et B et C are correct

61.

Concerning Mass and Balance:

a)

CG position is more important than Weight

b)

an ac can be loaded above max take off weight as long as the CG remains in his limit

c)

Mass and Balance should be computed at least one time per day

d)

Mass and Balance calculation must be done before every flight

62.

Concerning CG:

a)

rearward CG increases manoeuvrability

b)

forward CG increases manoeuvrability

c)

forward CG increases Stability

d)

A et C are correct

63.

When an aircraft stalls it is:

a)

easier to recover with an forward CG

b)

easier to recover with a rearward CG

c)

impossible to recover with an CG outside the rear Limit

d)

A et C sont correctes

64.

Weight distribution:

a)

has an influence on take-off distance

b)

has no influence on fuel consumption

c)

fuel consumption increases with a forward CG

d)

A and C are correct

65.

On a 4 seats plane with only a pilot and copilot on board:

a)

the ac is always inside the CG limits

b)

for take off and landing the copilot has to move to the backseat

c)

the CG is to far rearward

d)

the CG might be to far forward

66.

The correct formula is?

a)

C = f x λ

b)

C = f / λ

c)

λ = C x f

d)

Λ= f / C

67.

Speed of light (C) is:

a)

300.000 m/s

b)

300.000 NM/s

c)

300.000 km/s

d)

162.000 km/s

68.

What is the meaning of Affirm?

a)

No

b)

Yes

c)

Approved

d)

correct

69.

QDM is?

a)

Magnetic orientation of the RWY

b)

Magnetic heading

c)

True bearing

d)

True heading

70.

The correct version of LXAIB is?

a)

Lima X-ray Alpha India Bravo

b)

Linda X-ray Alpha India Bravo

c)

Lima X-ray Alpha India Brava

d)

Lira X-ray Alpha Iris Bravo

71.

QBA is?

a)

Visibility

b)

Ceiling

c)

Direction and force of wind

d)

Estimated time of arrival

72.

The meridian passing through Greenwich is known as?

a)

Main Meridian.

b)

Equator.

c)

Great Meridian.

d)

Prime Meridian.

73.

The meridian passing through Greenwich is known as?

a)

Main Meridian.

b)

Equator.

c)

Great Meridian.

d)

Prime Meridian.

74.

A Rhumb Line is?

a)

A regularly curved line on the Earth's surface which cuts all parallels of Latitude at the same angle.

b)

A line showing True north.

c)

A regularly curved line on the Earth's surface which cuts all meridians at the same angle.

d)

A line on the surface of the Earth whose centre and radius are those of the Earth.

75.

Which points on the Earth's surface determine the Earth's axis?

a)

North geographic pole and north magnetic pole.

b)

North and south geographic pole.

c)

North and south magnetic pole.

d)

Equator-hemisphere.N-0001.

76.

What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line?

a)

It is the Great Circle.

b)

It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe.

c)

It cuts meridians under various angles.

d)

It cuts meridians under constant angle.

77.

The Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is

a)

The Local Time.

b)

The time on the longitude 0 degrees (Greenwich meridian).

c)

The Zone Time.

d)

The MidEuropean Time.

78.

The distance of 1 NM equals to

a)

1,111 m.

b)

1,432 m.

c)

1,852 m.

d)

1,609 m.

79.

On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km. What is the scale of the chart?

a)

1:250 000.

b)

1:300 000.

c)

1:400 000.

d)

1:500 000.

80.

Thescale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimetres represents the distance 105km?

a)

10.5 cm.

b)

42.0 cm.

c)

84.0 cm.

d)

21.0 cm.

81.

The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft covers first 16 NM in 10 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA-BRAVO with the same groundspeed?

a)

1 hour and 6 minutes.

b)

1 hour and 3 minutes.

c)

1 hour and 1 minute.

d)

59 minutes.

82.

An altitude 1500 meters is approximately

a)

4,900 ft.

b)

3,600 ft.

c)

4,000 ft.

d)

4,500 ft.

83.

On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the rule of height clearance 1,000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle?

a)

1,900 ft.

b)

2,230 ft.

c)

2,130 ft.

d)

1,230 ft.

84.

Altitude 6,000 ft is approximately

a)

1,800 m.

b)

1,200 m.

c)

3,000 m.

d)

12,000 m.

85.

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?

a)

2,5 km

b)

4.08 NM.

c)

2.45 NM.

d)

3.35 km.

86.

A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between

a)

True heading and desired true course.

b)

Desired true and desired magnetic course.

c)

True and magnetic heading.

d)

Magnetic and compass heading in no wind condition.

87.

Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW?

a)

247.5°.

b)

292.5°.

c)

337.5°.

d)

202.5°.

88.

The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction toward magnetic north is called

a)

Variation.

b)

Compass deviation.

c)

Inclination.

d)

Convergency of meridians.

89.

A VFR-flight is:

a)

flying within visible flight rules.

b)

flying within instrument flight rules.

c)

a commercial flight.

d)

flying during daylight.

90.

The following pilots’ documents are mandatory for flights

a)

driver licence, logbook, valid medical

b)

valid pilot licence, pilot logbook, latest weather report

c)

valid pilot licence, pilot logbook, valid medical

d)

valid pilot licence, aircraft logbook, latest blood analyses

91.

The most important Instrument in the Cockpit is:

a)

The magnetic compass

b)

The airspeed indicator

c)

Your brain

d)

The altimeter

92.

Which velocity is measured in principle by every GPS instrument?

a)

Ground Speed.

b)

True Air Speed.

c)

Vertical Speed.

d)

Wind Speed.

93.

Fast movements (arms) from Aircraft Marshallers means:

a)

Normal Stop

b)

Establish communication

c)

Emergency Stop

d)

Stop Engines

94.

During the night, lower air masses are heated mainly by:

a)

The soil/ground

b)

Lunar radiation

c)

The ozone layer

d)

Earth rotation

95.

The international and aeronautic unit of pressure is:

a)

Pascal

b)

Newton

c)

Millimeter of mercury

d)

Isobare

96.

15°C corresponds to __K :

a)

0

b)

100

c)

258

d)

288

97.

The ascending and descending of the air masses, due to heating of the soil during daytime, is called:

a)

conduction

b)

coalescence

c)

subsidence

d)

convection

98.

The pressure in the lower atmosphere:

a)

Increases 1 hPa during a 28 ft climb

b)

Decreases by 28 hPa during a 1 ft climb

c)

Increases 1 hPa during a 28 m climb

d)

Decreases 1 hPa during a 28 ft climb

99.

Following clouds will have hail:

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulonimbus

c)

Altostratus

d)

Cirrostratus

100.

Stratus clouds are:

a)

Dangerous due to turbulences and precipitation

b)

Dangerous due to low level

c)

Good for sailplanes due to updraft of air masses

d)

High ranging/expending in altitude

101.

Under which clouds can we expect rain showers:

a)

Cumulus and cumulonimbus

b)

Nimbus and nimbostratus

c)

Stratus and stratocumulus

d)

Cirrus and cirrocumulus

102.

Winds dominating in France are:

a)

The Mistral which is a southerly wind and the Autan wind which is a westerly wind

b)

The Tramontana which is a north-west wind and the Autan wind which is a north wind

c)

The Mistral which is a southerly wind, the Tramontane which is a north-westerly wind and the Autan wind which is a south-easterly wind.

d)

The Mistral which is a north wind, the Tramontana which is a north-west wind and the Autan wind which is a south-easterly wind.

103.

A 225° wind is blowing:

a)

To the southwest

b)

From southeast

c)

To the southeast

d)

From southwest

104.

At sea level, the maximum atmospheric pressure is 1013 hPa, meaning that it is a:

4 lines
105.

What is the correct description of the wind represented in this way on a TEMSI chart?

a)

Wind from 315° with 31 knots

b)

Wind from 135° with 61 km/h.

c)

Wind from northeast with 35 m/s.

d)

Wind from 135° and 65 knots.

106.

The symbol opposite on a meteorological map means:

a)

A cold front

b)

A warm front

c)

No wind area

d)

Isobaric couverture

107.

In the northern hemisphere we see that the prevailing winds associate a low-pressure area:

a)

Move from west to east

b)

Move from east to the west

c)

Rotate clockwise around the center of the low pressure

d)

Rotate counterclockwise around the center of the low pressure

108.

At night, in the absence of any wind gradient (no wind), one can expect to meet:

a)

A strong mistral on the Atlantic

b)

Land breeze

c)

Sea breeze

d)

None of the above is correct

109.

A front is:

a)

A narrow transition zone between a low pressure and a high pressure

b)

A squall line (line of thunderstorms)

c)

A narrow transition zone between two air masses of different temperatures

d)

A large area of uniform atmospheric pressure