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Chapter 4 Review Questions

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following pieces of information is required on a patient's prescription?

a)

DAW Code

b)

Directions for use

c)

Patient's bed number

d)

Two patient identifiers

2.

A prescription for cephalexin is to be administered "qid"; how many times a day should it be administered?

a)

Four times a day

b)

Every other day

c)

Three times a day

d)

Once daily

3.

Which of the following is exempt from being dispensed in a child-resistant container?

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Isosorbide dinitrate 40 mg

c)

Naproxen

d)

Sodium fluoride

4.

The pharmacy receives a prescription for Warfarin 5 mg #45 1 1/2 tablets PO qd for blood clotting. How many days will this prescription last?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

5.

A pharmacy stocks amoxicillin 250 mg capsules; how many capsules should be dispensed to a patient for the following prescription order? Amoxicillin 500 mg 10 days' supply ringed as 500 mg PO TID

a)

30 capsules

b)

40 capsules

c)

60 capsules

d)

80 capsules

6.

A prescription is written for a gallon of PEG 3350; what volume must be entered in the computer system?

a)

480 mL

b)

960 mL

c)

3840 mL

d)

7680 mL

7.

What is the purpose of an auxiliary label?

a)

Identifies medications that require a patient products insert to be provided to the patient

b)

Identifies the expiration date of the medication

c)

Identifies the lot or batch number of the medication

d)

Provides additional information about the medication that may include when to take the, medication, storage, and possible adverse effects

8.

Which of the following is true regarding EZ-open prescription bottle lids?

a)

All prescriptions require that one is placed on it; however, a patient may request that it not be used.

b)

A prescriber or a patient may request that one is placed on the container.

c)

They must be provided to any individual who does not have children living in his or her home.

d)

They must be provided to all senior citizens.

9.

A prescriber's medication order indicates that it is to be administered "STAT"; when should it be administered?

a)

As soon as possible

b)

Whenever the patient asks for the medication

c)

Within 15 minutes of receiving the medication order

d)

Within 30 minutes of receiving the medication order

10.

What DAW code is assigned if no product is selected?

a)

DAW 0

b)

DAW 1

c)

DAW 2

d)

DAW 3

11.

What type of container protects the contents from contamination by liquids, solids, or vapors?

a)

Hermetic

b)

Single-dose containers

c)

Tight container

d)

Well-closed

12.

What is the meaning of the following sig: "2 tab PO qid ac and hs"?

a)

Place two tablets under the tongue four times

b)

Take two tablets by mouth four times a day.

c)

Take two tablets by mouth four times a day after meals and at bedtime.

d)

Take two tablets by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime.

13.

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a suspension?

a)

For ears only

b)

For external use only

c)

For eyes only

d)

Shake

14.

Which of the following must be done if a patients requests an easy-open container?

a)

Verify with the physician that the dispensing of a medication in an easy-open container is permitted.

b)

Verify that there are no children younger 12 years living with the patient.

c)

Verify that the patient has activated charcoal at home in case of a potential overdose.

d)

Have the patient sign the back of the prescription indicating that he or she has requested an easy-open container.

15.

An amber unit-dose blister pack is used for____ and_____ .

a)
creams, ointment
b)
oral liquids, suspensions
c)

suppositories, transdermal gels

d)

tablets, capsules

16.

In multiples of what number should medication be counted?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

10

17.


What period of time is a prescription for a noncontrolled medication with prn refills valid? 

a)

1 year from the date the prescription was written 

b)

1 year from the date the prescription was filled

c)

1 year from the date the prescription was picked up by the patient 

d)

6 months from the date the prescription was written

18.

What is the maximum number of refills permitted on a Schedule IV prescription?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

5

d)

6

19.

The pharmacy receives a prescription for lisinopril 10 mg. 

What term refers to the name and strength of the medication?


a)

Inscription

b)

Prescription

c)

Signa

d)

Subscription

20.

This prescription is written with "prn" refills. What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law? Spironolactone 50 mg #30 

I tab PO QD for hypertension


a)

0

b)

1

c)

6

d)

12

21.

An individual's patient profile indicates they are diagnosed with COPD; what condition does the patient have?

a)

Congested obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

 Constipation 


c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 


d)

Crohn disease

22.

A prescriber writes in their own handwriting: "Brand Name Medically Necessary." What DAW number should be assigned to the prescription?

a)

DAW 1

b)

DAW 1

c)

DAW 2

d)

DAW 3

23.

What type of container prevents air from reaching the medication? 


a)

Hermetic

b)

 Multidose

c)

Single dose

d)

Unit dose

24.

A patient receiving a prescription for Coumadin (warfarin) should receive a____ upon receiving their prescription.

a)

MSDS

b)

medication guide

c)

package insert

d)

SDS

25.

Which part of a prescription indicates the directions to the patient?

a)

Inscription

b)

Signa

c)

Subscription

d)

Superscription

26.

What does "dtd" mean on a prescription?

a)

Give of such doses

b)

Of each

c)

Weight

d)

Write on label

27.

What relationship code would be used to identify the cardholder's spouse covered under a prescription drug?

a)

01

b)

02

c)

03

d)

04

28.

If two or more plans cover dependent children of separated or divorced parents who do not have joint custody of the children, which option is first used to determine the children's primary plan? 


a)

The birthday rule

b)

The plan of the custodial parent

c)

 The plan of the parent without custody

d)

The plan of the spouse of the custodial parent (if the patient has remarried)

29.

What process is used in mixing a liquid and powder to form a suspension or solution? 


a)

Geometric dilution

b)

Levigation

c)

Reconstitution

d)

Trituration

30.

________can be compounded by using the continental (dry gum) method. 


a)

 Capsules 


b)

Emulsions 


c)

Suppositories 


d)

Syrups

31.

What technique is used in mixing two ingredients of unequal quantities?

a)

Blending 


b)

Geometric dilution

c)

Levigation

d)

Spatulation

32.

Which of the following containers is a single-unit container ONLY intended for parenteral administration? 


a)

Tight container

b)

Single-unit container super

c)

Single-dose container

d)

Unit-dose container

33.

Which dosage form can be prepared by the heat method?

a)

Elixir

b)

Suppository

c)

Syrup

d)

Tincture

34.

Which organization developed billing rejection codes for third-party prescriptions? 


a)

BIN

b)

NCPDP

c)

GMP

d)

SCRIPT

35.

What term refers to the processing of a prescription claim to a third-party provider? 


a)

Banking identification number

b)

Group number 


c)

Online adjudication 


d)

Rejection code

36.

What term is used to describe the date assigned to a unit-dose package? 


a)

Beyond-use date

b)

Expiration date

c)

Packaged date

d)

Unit date

37.

Which pharmacy setting utilizes Baker Cells® as an automatic dispensing system?

a)

Community pharmacy

b)

 Hospital pharmacy

c)

 Long-term care pharmacy

d)

 Managed care pharmacy

38.

What DAW number is assigned to a prescription where generic substitution is authorized however the pharmacist selected the product dispensed? 


a)

DAW 3

b)

DAW 4

c)

DAW5

d)

DAW 6

39.

What volume of medication can a unit dose packaged as a plastic cup contain?

a)

30 ML

b)

45 ML

c)

60 ML

d)

90 ML

40.

A noncontrolled prescription is written with five refills and filled today at the pharmacy. Two weeks later, the patient requests that it be transferred to another pharmacy. How many times may it be transferred? 

a. Zero times 

b. One time 

c. Four times 

d. Five times 


a)

0

b)

1

c)

4

d)

5

41.

What is the correct dosage form for a medication that needs to be absorbed through the skin?

a)

Tablet

b)

Suppository

c)

Capsule

d)

Transdermal patch

42.

Which of the following is a common side effect of antihistamines?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Drowsiness

c)

Hypertension

d)

Diarrhea

43.

What is the primary purpose of an enteric-coated tablet?

a)

To enhance taste

b)

To protect the stomach lining

c)

To increase absorption rate

d)

To reduce manufacturing costs

44.

What is the primary function of a pharmacy technician in a community pharmacy setting?

a)

Diagnosing patients

b)

Dispensing medications

c)

Compounding medications

d)

Prescribing medications

45.

Which of the following medications is typically used to treat high blood pressure?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Simvastatin

d)

Metformin

46.

What is the purpose of a medication's NDC number?

a)

To identify the manufacturer

b)

To indicate the expiration date

c)

To specify the dosage form

d)

To track the medication's distribution

47.

Which of the following describes the primary purpose of Tall Man lettering?

a)

To indicate hazardous drugs

b)

To highlight medications that require refrigeration

c)

To distinguish drugs with similar names

d)

To indicate controlled substances

48.

Which of the following abbreviations is included on the Institute for Safe Medical Practices' (ISMP) List of Error-Prone Abbreviations?

a)

QOD

b)

BID

c)

PO

d)

HS

49.

A pharmacy technician should identify that "SIG" codes are used for which of the following?

a)
  1. Managing drug recalls

b)

 Indicating DEA numbers

c)

 Identifying medication expiration dates

d)

 Prescription directions

50.

What is the meaning of the prefix "hypo-"?

a)

Around

b)

Below or little

c)

Above or high

d)

Without