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CCNA Practice Exam

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)

a)

better security

b)

easy to create

c)

better device performance when acting as both client and server

d)

lacks centralized administration

e)

less cost to implement

2.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

a router

b)

a firewall

c)

a web server

d)

a DSL modem

3.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

a)

the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)

the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

c)

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

d)

the number of intermediary devices installed in the network

e)

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

4.

Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)

a)

Intermediary devices generate data content.

b)

Intermediary devices alter data content.

c)

Intermediary devices direct the path of the data.

d)

Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network.

e)

Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process

5.

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

They originate the data that flows through the network.

b)

They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.

c)

They filter the flow of data to enhance security.

d)

They are the interface between humans and the communication network.

e)

They provide the channel over which the network message travels

6.

Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources?

a)

extranet

b)

intranet

c)

wired LAN

d)

wireless LAN

e)

wireless WAN

7.

What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

a)

an intranet

b)

the Internet

c)

an extranet

d)

a local area network

8.

An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

a)

an intranet

b)

the Internet

c)

an extranet

d)

a local area network

9.

Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.)

a)

cellular

b)

DSL

c)

satellite

d)

cable

e)

dial-up telephone

10.

Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

a)

DSL

b)

cellular

c)

satellite

d)

dialup

e)

dedicated leased line

11.

Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

a)

convergence

b)

congestion

c)

optimization

d)

synchronization

12.

What type of network traffic requires QoS?

a)

email

b)

on-line purchasing

c)

video conferencing

d)

wiki

13.

Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth?

a)

a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network

b)

a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media

c)

a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity

d)

a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources

14.

A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support?

a)

data integrity

b)

data quality

c)

data confidentiality

d)

data redundancy

15.

Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?

a)

A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.

b)

Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world.

c)

Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.

d)

Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud

16.

What is the Internet?

a)

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

b)

It provides network access for mobile devices.

c)

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.

d)

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections

17.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)

New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)

A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

c)

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN

18.

What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user?

a)

denial of service to your email server

b)

replication of worms and viruses in your computer

c)

capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft

d)

spyware that leads to spam emails

19.

A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

a)

implementing a firewall

b)

installing a wireless network

c)

installing antivirus software

d)

implementing an intrusion detection system

e)

adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

20.

A _________________ network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.

a)

converged

b)

synchronized

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

21.

The acronym ______________ refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.

a)

BYOD

b)

BYOC

c)

IRC

d)

ADW

22.

interactive websites where people create and share user-generated content with friends and family

a)

wiki

b)

podcast

c)

social media

d)

blog

23.

Web pages that groups of people can edit and view together

a)

wiki

b)

social media

c)

podcast

d)

blog

24.

an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience

a)

instant messaging

b)

blog

c)

wiki

d)

podcast

25.

real-time communication of between two or more people

a)

podcast

b)

social media

c)

instant messaging

d)

wiki

26.

web pages that give anyone a means to communicate their thoughts to a global audience without technical knowledge of web design

a)

wiki

b)

blog

c)

social media

d)

instant messaging

27.

Not suited for heavily wooded areas

a)

cable

b)

DSL

c)

satellite

d)

dedicated leased line

28.

uses coaxial cable as a medium

a)

DSL

b)

cable

c)

dialup

d)

satellite

29.

typically has very low bandwidth

a)

dedicated leased line

b)

cable

c)

dialup

d)

DSL

30.

high bandwidth connection that runs over telephone line

a)

DSL

b)

dedicated leased line

c)

cable

d)

dialup

31.

typically uses a T1/E1 or T3/E3 circuit

a)

satellite

b)

DSL

c)

dedicated leased line

d)

cable

32.

only the intended recipients can access and read the data

a)

ensuring availability

b)

maintaining integrity

c)

ensuring confidentiality

33.

the assurance that the information has not been altered during transmission

a)

ensuring availability

b)

maintaining integrity

c)

ensuring confidentiality

34.

the assurance of timely and reliable access to data

a)

ensuring availability

b)

maintaining integrity

c)

ensuring confidentiality

35.

Which networking trend involves the use of personal tools and devices for accessing resources on a business or campus network?

a)

BYOD

b)

cloud computing

c)

video conferencing

d)

powerline networking

36.

What is a characteristic of a converged network?

a)

A converged network requires a separate network infrastructure for each type of communication technology

b)

it delivers data, voice, and video over the same network infrastructure

c)

it limits the impact of a failure by minimizing the number of devices affected

d)

it provides only one path between the source and destination of a message

37.

What is the function of the kernel of an operating software?

a)

It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task

b)

The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.

c)

It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.

d)

The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements

38.

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

a)

Telnet

b)

Console

c)

AUX

d)

SSH

39.

Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?

a)

Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.

b)

Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

c)

Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.

d)

Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC

40.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)

end

b)

exit

c)

Ctrl-Z

d)

Ctrl-C

41.

A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

global configuration mode

b)

setup mode

c)

privileged EXEC mode

d)

user EXEC mode

42.

Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

a)

providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

b)

displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

c)

allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

d)

determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command

e)

selecting the best command to accomplish a task

43.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

a)

the IOS image copied into RAM

b)

the bootstrap program in the ROM

c)

the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

d)

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

44.

Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?

a)

a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set

b)

a hostname must be configured before any other parameters

c)

to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)

d)

to allow local access to the device through the console port

45.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

a)

Branch2!

b)

RM-3-Switch-2A4

c)

Floor(15)

d)

HO Floor 17

e)

SwBranch799

46.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

b)

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

c)

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

d)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet

47.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command?

a)

to display a message when a user accesses the switch

b)

to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1

c)

to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication

d)

to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command

48.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

a)

Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

b)

Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

c)

Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

d)

Issue the copy startup-config running-config command

49.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

b)

It is stored in NVRAM.

c)

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

d)

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

50.

What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

a)

RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

b)

The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.

c)

The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.

d)

RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

e)

RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files

51.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)

the AUX interface

b)

the console port interface

c)

the switch virtual interface

d)

the first Ethernet port interface

52.

Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

a)

FastEthernet 0/1

b)

GigabitEthernet 0/1

c)

VLAN 1

d)

VLAN 99

53.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

a)

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

b)

to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

c)

to enable the switch to be managed remotely

d)

to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

54.

What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

a)

ping

b)

ipconfig

c)

show interfaces

d)

show ip interface brief

55.

A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration?

a)

The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network.

b)

The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory.

c)

The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP.

d)

The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server.

e)

The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.

56.

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

a)

if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire

b)

if there is connectivity with the destination device

c)

the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

d)

what type of device is at the destination

57.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.)

a)

connectivity: switch 2

b)

connectivity: PC-D

c)

no connectivity: switch 1

d)

no connectivity: switch 2

e)

no connectivity: PC-C

58.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

a)

Two physical interfaces have been configured.

b)

The switch can be remotely managed.

c)

One device is attached to a physical interface.

d)

Two devices are attached to the switch.

e)

The default SVI has been configured

59.

An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

-first mode -interface configuration mode

-second mode -privileged EXEC mode

-third mode -line configuration mode

-final mode -global configuration mode

-user EXEC mode

a)

first mode - user EXEC mode

second mode - global configuration mode

third mode - interface configuration mode

final mode - line configuration mode

b)

first mode - user EXEC mode

second mode - privileged EXEC mode

third mode - global configuration mode

final mode - line configuration mode

c)

first mode - user EXEC mode

second mode - privileged EXEC mode

third mode - line configuration mode

final mode - interface configuration mode

d)

first mode - global configuration mode

second mode - line configuration mode

third mode - user EXEC mode

final mode - privileged EXEC mode

60.

displays the next screen

a)

up arrow

b)

?

c)

space bar

d)

tab

61.

Scrolls backwards through previously entered commands

a)

ctrl-c

b)

tab

c)

ctrl-shift-6

d)

up arrow

62.

provides context-sensitive help

a)

tab

b)

?

c)

ctrl-c

d)

space bar

63.

completes abbreviated commands and parameters

a)

up arrow

b)

?

c)

space bar

d)

tab

64.

aborts commands such as trace and ping

a)

up arrow

b)

space bar

c)

ctrl-c

d)

ctrl-shift-6

65.

cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode

a)

ctrl-c

b)

ctrl-shift-6

c)

tab

d)

up arrow

66.

What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

a)

encapsulation

b)

flow control

c)

access method

d)

response timeout

67.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

broadcast

b)

multicast

c)

unicast

d)

allcast

68.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

access control

b)

decoding

c)

encapsulation

d)

flow control

69.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

70.

Which statement is correct about network protocols?

a)

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

b)

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

c)

They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

d)

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks

71.

Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

a)

The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.

b)

The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.

c)

The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.

d)

The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer

72.

What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

a)

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

b)

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.

c)

Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

d)

Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements

73.

What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)

ARP

b)

DHCP

c)

DNS

d)

FTP

e)

NAT

74.

What are proprietary protocols?

a)

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware

b)

protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor

c)

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

d)

a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

75.

What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

a)

Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.

b)

A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.

c)

Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.

d)

Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

76.

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

a)

only application and Internet layers

b)

only Internet and network access layers

c)

only application, Internet, and network access layers

d)

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

e)

application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

77.

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

a)

application

b)

presentation

c)

session

d)

transport

e)

data link

78.

At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

a)

physical layer

b)

data link layer

c)

network layer

d)

transport layer

79.

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

a)

file

b)

frame

c)

packet

d)

segment

80.

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

bits

b)

frame

c)

packet

d)

segment

81.

Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

a)

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

b)

A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.

c)

A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA

d)

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.

e)

A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.

82.

Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

a)

source IP address

b)

source MAC address

c)

destination IP address

d)

destination MAC address

e)

source Ethernet address

83.

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

a)

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

b)

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

c)

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

d)

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

e)

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful

84.

Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

a)

the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

b)

the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer

c)

the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

d)

the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router

85.

the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission

a)

message encoding

b)

message encapsulation

c)

message sizing

86.

the process of placing one message format inside another message format

a)

message encoding

b)

message encapsulation

c)

message sizing

87.

the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

a)

message encoding

b)

message encapsulation

c)

message sizing

88.

governing the way a web server and a web client interact

a)

application protocol

b)

internet protocol

c)

network access protocol

d)

transport protocol

89.

taking the segments from transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses

a)

application protocol

b)

internet protocol

c)

network access protocol

d)

transport protocol

90.

preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media

a)

application protocol

b)

internet protocol

c)

network access protocol

d)

transport protocol

91.

managing the individual conversations between web servers and web clients

a)

application protocol

b)

internet protocol

c)

network access protocol

d)

transport protocol

92.

this organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the Internet throughout the world

a)

ISOC

b)

ICANN

c)

EIA

d)

ISO

93.

this organization is the largest developer of international standards in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model

a)

ISO

b)

IANA

c)

ICANN

d)

ISOC

94.

This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers

a)

ICANN

b)

IANA

c)

EIA

d)

ISOC

95.

This organization is an international standards and trade organization for electronics organizations. It is best known for its standards related to electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount networking equipment.

a)

ISOC

b)

ICANN

c)

IANA

d)

EIA