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WorksheetsISMC121 Midterm Exams
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the primary role of a systems analyst?
a)
Outside consultant
b)
Programmer
c)
Database Administrator
d)
Technical Support
e)
Business Owner
2.
Which of the following is NOT a category of information systems?
a)
Transaction Processing Systems (TPS)
b)
Management Information Systems (MIS)
c)
Decision Support Systems (DSS)
d)
Cloud Storage Systems (CSS)
e)
Executive Support Systems (EES)
3.
What is the purpose of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a)
Identify business problems and solutions systematically
b)
Increase manual data entry tasks
c)
Develop software without planning
d)
Reduce the use of information systems
e)
Enhance paper-based processes
4.
In Phase 1 of the SDLC, what is the primary activity?
a)
Identifying problems, opportunities, and objectives
b)
Writing program code
c)
Implementing the system
d)
Debugging errors
e)
Conducting user training
5.
Which of the following is a method used to determine information requirements in Phase 2 of SDLC?
a)
Observing the system and personnel
b)
Writing source code
c)
Implementing a database
d)
Developing system security measures
e)
Automating processes
6.
What is the main goal of Phase 3 in the SDLC?
a)
Designing the user interface
b)
Analyzing system needs
c)
Converting files
d)
Training users
e)
Installing hardware
7.
What is one of the key activities in system design (Phase 4)?
a)
Creating Data Flow Diagrams
b)
Developing software documentation
c)
Designing system controls
d)
Conducting system testing
e)
Monitoring security threats
8.
During Phase 5, what is the primary focus?
a)
Implementing and evaluating the system
b)
Writing and documenting software
c)
Managing system maintenance
d)
Enhancing user interface design
e)
Training users on best practices
9.
What is the purpose of CASE tools?
a)
Facilitate system analysis and design
b)
Automate manual paperwork
c)
Eliminate system development processes
d)
Replace system analysts
e)
Increase system complexity
10.
Which methodology focuses on short release times, simplicity, and pair programming?
a)
Waterfall Model
b)
Prototyping
c)
Extreme Programming (XP)
d)
Soft Systems Methodology
e)
Unified Modeling Language (UML)
11.
What are the three main roles a systems analyst can take on?
a)
Outside consultant, supporting expert, change agent
b)
Programmer, project manager, system tester
c)
Database administrator, security analyst, UX designer
d)
IT technician, software engineer, help desk support
e)
Business analyst, operations manager, financial consultant
12.
Which phase of the SDLC involves training users and installing the system?
a)
Phase 1
b)
Phase 4
c)
Phase 6
d)
Phase 7
e)
Phase 3
13.
What is one of the major reasons for system maintenance?
a)
Removing undetected errors
b)
Increasing hardware costs
c)
Eliminating user training
d)
Reducing cloud storage
e)
Limiting automation
14.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for system enhancements?
a)
Adding additional features
b)
Changes in business and government requirements
c)
Advances in technology
d)
Reducing business profitability
e)
Changes in hardware and software
15.
What is the primary function of upper CASE tools?
a)
Generate system source code
b)
Store data in a project repository
c)
Automate security protocols
d)
Manage cloud-based data
e)
Create digital signatures
16.
Which of the following is a characteristic of object-oriented analysis and design?
a)
It focuses on procedural programming
b)
Objects are grouped into classes for reusability
c)
It does not support database relationships
d)
It discourages software maintenance
e)
It eliminates the need for UML
17.
Reverse engineering is primarily used for what purpose?
a)
Generating system design from program code
b)
Creating a new programming language
c)
Implementing security firewalls
d)
Developing network infrastructure
e)
Improving UI design
18.
What does the Unified Modeling Language (UML) help with?
a)
Modeling object-oriented systems
b)
Designing manual workflows
c)
Managing human resources
d)
Configuring cloud services
e)
Developing financial reports
19.
What is one key value of Extreme Programming (XP)?
a)
Complexity
b)
Extensive documentation
c)
Communication
d)
Strict hierarchy
e)
Fixed deadlines
20.
Which system development methodology focuses on iterative development and quick feedback?
a)
Waterfall Model
b)
Extreme Programming (XP)
c)
ETHICS
d)
Soft Systems Methodology
e)
Spiral Model
21.
What are the major topics covered in organizational style and its impact on information systems?
a)
Organizational environment
b)
Nature of systems
c)
Levels of management
d)
Organizational culture
e)
All of the above
22.
How are organizations typically structured?
a)
As isolated systems
b)
As interrelated and interdependent subsystems
c)
With no clear hierarchy
d)
Only with top-down management
e)
Without information flow
23.
Which of the following is NOT part of the organizational environment?
a)
Community environment
b)
Economic environment
c)
Political environment
d)
Psychological environment
e)
Market factors
24.
What is the key difference between open and closed systems?
a)
Open systems restrict data flow
b)
Closed systems freely share information
c)
Open systems facilitate free-flowing information
d)
Closed systems have no security
e)
Open systems are ineffective
25.
What is a virtual organization?
a)
A company with a physical headquarters only
b)
A fully digital company with no employees
c)
A business that operates from multiple physical locations using technology
d)
A business that does not require information systems
e)
A company that only sells virtual products
26.
Which is an advantage of a virtual organization?
a)
Higher operational costs
b)
Rapid response to customer needs
c)
Increased complexity in management
d)
Reduced flexibility for employees
e)
Higher need for physical offices
27.
What does Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) aim to achieve?
a)
Isolate business processes
b)
Integrate organizational information systems
c)
Eliminate information sharing
d)
Restrict communication between departments
e)
Increase manual processes
28.
What does a Context-Level Data Flow Diagram (DFD) represent?
a)
The flow of financial transactions
b)
The physical layout of a company
c)
The flow of data within a system
d)
Employee productivity reports
e)
The efficiency of a business model
29.
What is an entity in an Entity-Relationship Diagram (E-R Diagram)?
a)
A person, group, department, or system that supplies or receives information
b)
A flow of data between processes
c)
A temporary database
d)
A software tool for visualization
e)
A subset of a transaction process
30.
What is the symbol for a fundamental entity in an E-R Diagram?
a)
Circle
b)
Triangle
c)
Rectangle
d)
Diamond
e)
Arrow
31.
What type of entity links two other entities together?
a)
Fundamental entity
b)
Associative entity
c)
Primary entity
d)
External entity
e)
Attributive entity
32.
How are relationships represented in an E-R Diagram?
a)
Using rectangles
b)
With arrows labeled with verbs
c)
Using data flow symbols
d)
Through screenshots of system interactions
e)
By programming scripts
33.
What is the function of a crows-foot notation in an E-R Diagram?
a)
Represents an entity
b)
Represents a relationship
c)
Represents a "many" relationship
d)
Represents a process
e)
Represents an organizational unit
34.
What are the three levels of management?
a)
Operational, Middle, Strategic
b)
Entry, Mid, Senior
c)
Technical, Executive, Support
d)
Low, Medium, High
e)
Individual, Group, Organization
35.
What type of management makes short-term planning and control decisions?
a)
Operational management
b)
Middle management
c)
Strategic management
d)
Business management
e)
Executive board
36.
What is a key responsibility of strategic management?
a)
Overseeing daily operations
b)
Looking outward to the future of the organization
c)
Managing employee tasks
d)
Conducting small project implementations
e)
Writing system documentation
37.
What factor differentiates levels of management?
a)
Access to financial data
b)
Technological considerations, leadership style, and organizational structure
c)
Company policies
d)
Training level of employees
e)
Number of departments they oversee
38.
Organizational culture consists of which components?
a)
Only written company policies
b)
Verbal and nonverbal symbolism
c)
Financial records
d)
Technological frameworks
e)
Employee benefits only
39.
What is an example of verbal symbolism in organizational culture?
a)
Trophies
b)
Myths and metaphors
c)
Office decorations
d)
Employee uniforms
e)
Building design
40.
What is an example of nonverbal symbolism in organizational culture?
a)
Company slogans
b)
Business plans
c)
Shared artifacts, rites, and rituals
d)
Employee training sessions
e)
Company reports
41.
What are the two broad reasons for project initiation?
a)
Solving problems and identifying risks
b)
Problems and opportunities for improvement
c)
Increasing budgets and reducing errors
d)
Hiring more staff and reducing redundancies
e)
Eliminating competition and market expansion
42.
Which of the following is a sign of an organizational problem?
a)
Increased employee engagement
b)
Reduced system complexity
c)
High absenteeism and job dissatisfaction
d)
Increase in new customer acquisitions
e)
Improved revenue generation
43.
Which factor is NOT a sign of an organizational problem?
a)
Too many errors in output
b)
Work completed too quickly
c)
High job turnover
d)
Complaints from vendors and suppliers
e)
Work done incorrectly
44.
What are the five criteria for project selection?
a)
Management backing, appropriate timing, goal alignment, practicality, importance
b)
High budget, time constraints, staff availability, software compatibility, risk assessment
c)
Government regulations, IT department needs, security concerns, vendor requirements, customer demands
d)
Cost reduction, increased complexity, team preference, software availability, ease of training
e)
Short-term benefits, long-term goals, technological advancements, legal requirements, environmental impact
45.
Which of the following is NOT a typical objective for improving an information system?
a)
Speeding up a process
b)
Streamlining workflows
c)
Reducing system security
d)
Reducing redundant storage
e)
Improving subsystem integration
46.
What does a Feasibility Impact Grid (FIG) assess?
a)
Project budgeting
b)
Security risks
c)
The impact of improvements on corporate objectives
d)
Employee satisfaction
e)
Vendor selection process
47.
What are the three types of feasibility in a feasibility study?
a)
Strategic, operational, economic
b)
Economic, technical, operational
c)
Political, environmental, financial
d)
Cost-based, security, scalability
e)
Business, security, adaptability
48.
What does technical feasibility evaluate?
a)
Availability of human resources
b)
Cost-effectiveness of the system
c)
Suitability of current technical resources
d)
Government regulations
e)
Vendor relationships
49.
What is the main concern of economic feasibility?
a)
Ensuring financial viability of the project
b)
Hiring the best IT staff
c)
Securing intellectual property
d)
Reducing project scope
e)
Minimizing user complaints
50.
What does operational feasibility assess?
a)
Availability of skilled employees to operate the system
b)
The cost of implementing the system
c)
The complexity of the system architecture
d)
The number of vendors required
e)
The marketing strategy for the system
51.
What is the purpose of activity planning?
a)
Selecting a system analyst
b)
Scheduling and estimating time for project tasks
c)
Writing technical documentation
d)
Evaluating software usability
e)
Reducing network security risks
52.
Which tools are commonly used for project planning and control?
a)
SWOT Analysis and Flowcharts
b)
Gantt Charts and PERT Diagrams
c)
Decision Trees and Data Flow Diagrams
d)
Entity-Relationship Diagrams and Pie Charts
e)
Mind Maps and Spreadsheets
53.
What is a key advantage of Gantt charts?
a)
Shows activities over time
b)
Analyzes financial feasibility
c)
Replaces system documentation
d)
Predicts market trends
e)
Determines project profitability
54.
What does a PERT diagram help identify?
a)
Critical path in project scheduling
b)
Employee job roles
c)
Cost distribution in a project
d)
Security vulnerabilities
e)
Database relationships
55.
What is the purpose of timeboxing?
a)
Setting an absolute due date for project delivery
b)
Reducing security risks
c)
Optimizing system architecture
d)
Improving employee satisfaction
e)
Increasing project complexity
56.
What type of software is useful for scheduling project activities?
a)
Graphic design software
b)
Personal Information Manager (PIM) software
c)
Database management software
d)
Financial modeling software
e)
Cloud storage software
57.
What is the main responsibility of a systems analyst in project management?
a)
Managing team members and their activities
b)
Handling company financials
c)
Managing security policies
d)
Overseeing hardware installations
e)
Conducting software training sessions
58.
Which factor is critical for successful goal setting in project management?
a)
Setting reasonable productivity goals
b)
Reducing team size
c)
Avoiding time constraints
d)
Increasing project risks
e)
Ignoring deadlines
59.
Which of the following is NOT a key factor in managing eCommerce projects?
a)
Security
b)
Data scattered across the organization
c)
Lack of partnerships
d)
Requiring a diverse skill set
e)
Traditional project management methods
60.
How can project failures be prevented?
a)
Increasing team workload
b)
Ignoring past mistakes
c)
Investing in training and learning from failures
d)
Avoiding project management tools
e)
Reducing communication between teams
61.
What is the primary purpose of interviewing in information gathering?
a)
Collecting system requirements
b)
Hiring employees
c)
Improving customer satisfaction
d)
Reducing system costs
e)
Developing marketing strategies
62.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps in planning an interview?
a)
Reading background material
b)
Establishing interview objectives
c)
Deciding whom to interview
d)
Implementing the new system
e)
Preparing the interviewee
63.
What are the two basic types of interview questions?
a)
Structured and Unstructured
b)
Open-ended and Closed
c)
Multiple Choice and True/False
d)
Direct and Indirect
e)
Bipolar and Probing
64.
What is a key benefit of open-ended interview questions?
a)
Limits responses for easy analysis
b)
Allows respondents to elaborate freely
c)
Reduces interview time
d)
Eliminates interviewer bias
e)
Ensures high data accuracy
65.
What is a disadvantage of open-ended interview questions?
a)
May result in too much irrelevant detail
b)
Does not allow for deeper discussion
c)
Restricts the flow of information
d)
Limits the interviewee's input
e)
Is difficult to analyze responses
66.
What is a key advantage of closed interview questions?
a)
Increases interview time
b)
Provides precise, reliable data
c)
Encourages spontaneous responses
d)
Makes phrasing easier for the interviewer
e)
Avoids limiting the discussion
67.
What is a major disadvantage of closed interview questions?
a)
Time-consuming
b)
Difficult to analyze
c)
Fails to build rapport
d)
Requires advanced interviewing skills
e)
Leads to overly detailed answers
68.
What type of question can be answered with "yes" or "no"?
a)
Open-ended
b)
Probing
c)
Bipolar
d)
Multiple-choice
e)
Interval-scaled
69.
What is the purpose of probing questions?
a)
Elicit more detail about a previous question
b)
Restrict the interviewee's response
c)
Ensure quick completion of the interview
d)
Limit unnecessary details
e)
Prevent follow-up discussions
70.
Which interview structure starts with closed questions and moves to open-ended ones?
a)
Funnel
b)
Pyramid
c)
Diamond
d)
Linear
e)
Inverted
71.
Which interview structure begins with open-ended questions and ends with closed ones?
a)
Funnel
b)
Pyramid
c)
Diamond
d)
Cyclical
e)
Clustered
72.
What is the benefit of the diamond interview structure?
a)
Keeps the interview brief
b)
Reduces follow-up questions
c)
Combines strengths of both pyramid and funnel structures
d)
Avoids open-ended responses
e)
Eliminates unnecessary details
73.
What is one of the final steps in closing an interview?
a)
Asking, "Is there anything else you’d like to add?"
b)
Directly implementing changes
c)
Sending a questionnaire immediately
d)
Skipping a summary
e)
Avoiding setting up follow-up meetings
74.
What is the purpose of Joint Application Design (JAD)?
a)
Speeding up project documentation
b)
Replacing traditional interviews with group discussions
c)
Reducing the need for system analysis
d)
Eliminating the role of system analysts
e)
Improving system security
75.
When is JAD most useful?
a)
When users are restless and want something new
b)
When only one person needs to be interviewed
c)
When interviews are not necessary
d)
When system analysts work alone
e)
When projects are small and require minimal input
76.
Which role in JAD is responsible for facilitating the session?
a)
User
b)
Analyst
c)
Executive
d)
Session Leader
e)
Observer
77.
What is a key benefit of JAD?
a)
Requires minimal user involvement
b)
Rapid development of systems
c)
Reduces the number of ideas generated
d)
Eliminates the need for user feedback
e)
Takes less time than a single interview
78.
What is a primary reason for using questionnaires?
a)
To gather information from widely dispersed organization members
b)
To replace all interviews
c)
To develop marketing strategies
d)
To reduce the need for feasibility studies
e)
To eliminate face-to-face discussions
79.
Which type of question in a questionnaire is best suited for getting opinions?
a)
Closed-ended
b)
Open-ended
c)
Bipolar
d)
Numerical-scale
e)
Checklist
80.
What should be considered when designing a questionnaire?
a)
Simplicity, specificity, and avoiding bias
b)
Using complex language
c)
Asking vague questions
d)
Making the questionnaire as long as possible
e)
Avoiding technical accuracy
81.
You are a systems analyst conducting an interview with a department manager. The manager is hesitant and nervous about the discussion. Which question type would be most effective to start the interview?
a)
Open-ended questions
b)
Closed-ended questions
c)
Probing questions
d)
Bipolar questions
e)
None, as the manager is uncooperative
82.
During an interview, a user provides vague and incomplete answers. How should you proceed?
a)
Ask probing questions to clarify responses
b)
Move on to the next topic without clarification
c)
End the interview immediately
d)
Only use closed-ended questions
e)
Ignore vague answers and rely on assumptions
83.
A company is implementing a new payroll system. Employees from different departments have conflicting needs. Which information gathering method would be most effective in resolving these conflicts?
a)
Individual interviews
b)
Joint Application Design (JAD)
c)
Questionnaires
d)
Email surveys
e)
Observations only
84.
You are designing a questionnaire for employees who are not familiar with technical terms. How should you structure the questions?
a)
Use simple, clear, and bias-free language
b)
Include technical jargon for accuracy
c)
Use lengthy and detailed questions
d)
Avoid asking opinion-based questions
e)
Include only closed-ended questions
85.
Your company is considering upgrading its information system. Many employees are unsure about what improvements are needed. What is the best way to gather their opinions?
a)
Distribute a questionnaire with open-ended questions
b)
Conduct individual interviews with executives only
c)
Observe employees without asking for feedback
d)
Only collect input from the IT department
e)
Use only closed-ended survey questions
86.
While conducting an interview, you realize that the interviewee is giving very short answers without much detail. What should you do?
a)
Use more open-ended and probing questions
b)
End the interview early
c)
Only ask "yes" or "no" questions
d)
Skip to the next interviewee
e)
Rely only on pre-collected data
87.
A company needs to collect feedback from 500 employees across different locations. Which information gathering method would be most practical?
a)
Questionnaires
b)
Face-to-face interviews
c)
Joint Application Design (JAD)
d)
Focus group discussions
e)
Job shadowing
88.
You are preparing for a Joint Application Design (JAD) session with multiple stakeholders. What should be your top priority to ensure a successful session?
a)
Establish clear objectives and ensure participant availability
b)
Allow spontaneous discussions without structure
c)
Avoid discussing technical details
d)
Limit participation to only IT staff
e)
Focus only on cost-related decisions
89.
During an interview with a senior manager, they keep giving vague responses. How can you ensure you obtain useful information?
a)
Use follow-up probing questions
b)
Accept their vague responses and move on
c)
Rely only on their written reports
d)
Avoid asking any more questions
e)
Conclude the interview early
90.
You are conducting a survey about employee satisfaction with a new HR system. Which type of scale should you use for measuring satisfaction levels?
a)
Interval scale
b)
Nominal scale
c)
Binary scale
d)
Text-based scale
e)
Percentage scale
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