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Computer Networking and Hardware Quiz

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An Ethernet port has a connector called an RJ-45 to connect to a network cable.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

What unit is used to measure the frequency of memory, FSB, and the processor?

a)

Hertz (Hz)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Volts (V)

d)

Amperes (A)

3.

How many layers of data can exist on a single side of a Blu-ray disc?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

4.

What component of UEFI helps to prevent malware from hijacking a system during or before the operating system load?

a)

Secure Boot

b)

Firewall

c)

Antivirus

d)

BIOS

5.

Packets are delivered to a single node on a network when using what type of IPv6 address?

a)

Unicast address

b)

Multicast address

c)

Broadcast address

d)

Anycast address

6.

What two different passwords can be set to lock down a computer from unauthorized access?

a)

User password and Supervisor password

b)

Admin password and Guest password

c)

Network password and System password

d)

BIOS password and Boot password

7.

What type of RAM is typically installed onto a motherboard and loses data rapidly, requiring it to be refreshed often?

a)

Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)

b)

Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)

c)

Flash Memory

d)

Read-Only Memory (ROM)

8.

If using a dual or multiboot configuration, what screen appears during the boot sequence?

a)

Boot loader menu

b)

BIOS setup

c)

Task manager

d)

Control panel

9.

Most manufacturers or retailers of laptops offer a warranty that lasts for at least how long?

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

3 years

10.

After installing the processor, if the system begins the boot process and suddenly turns off before completing the boot, the processor is most likely overheating.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When a partition is formatted with a file system and assigned a drive letter it is called a volume.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What type of connector is not typically found on the front panel header?

a)

SATA Controller

b)

USB Connector

c)

Audio Jack

d)

Power Button

13.

The Master Boot Record (MBR) method of partitioning hard drives is limited to what maximum size of drives?

a)

2 terabytes (TB)

b)

4 terabytes (TB)

c)

1 terabyte (TB)

d)

500 gigabytes (GB)

14.

What is autodetection in the context of BIOS?

a)

A feature that detects a new drive and selects the correct drive configuration

b)

A method to increase the speed of the CPU

c)

A process to update the operating system automatically

d)

A tool to enhance graphics performance

15.

What does fault tolerance refer to in computing?

a)

A computer's ability to respond to a hardware failure

b)

A method to increase internet speed

c)

A feature to enhance video quality

d)

A tool to improve battery life

16.

What is NAND flash memory?

a)

A chip that contains grids of rows and columns with two transistors at each intersection that hold a zero or one bit

b)

A type of volatile memory used in RAM

c)

A storage device used in optical drives

d)

A method to cool down the CPU

17.

What is a mirrored volume?

a)

A storage configuration in which data is duplicated on one drive to another drive

b)

A type of volume that compresses data to save space

c)

A method to encrypt data for security

d)

A tool to defragment hard drives

18.

What is the purpose of a storage card?

a)

A hardware component that facilitates a hardware RAID implementation

b)

A device to increase the speed of the internet

c)

A tool to enhance audio quality

d)

A method to improve screen resolution

19.

What is a striped volume?

a)

A type of volume that writes data to all physical disk members evenly for the purpose of improving performance

b)

A method to back up data to the cloud

c)

A tool to enhance video playback

d)

A feature to increase battery life

20.

What does spanning refer to in the context of hard drives?

a)

Uses two hard drives to hold a single Windows volume

b)

A method to increase the speed of the CPU

c)

A process to update the operating system automatically

d)

A tool to enhance graphics performance

21.

What is a WORM drive/cartridge?

a)

Assures that data written onto a tape will not be deleted or overwritten

b)

A device to increase the speed of the internet

c)

A tool to enhance audio quality

d)

A method to improve screen resolution

22.

What is a file system?

a)

The overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive

b)

A method to compress files for storage

c)

A tool to encrypt data for security

d)

A feature to defragment hard drives

23.

What is UDF?

a)

A file system used by DVD and Blu-ray Discs

b)

A type of volatile memory used in RAM

c)

A storage device used in optical drives

d)

A method to cool down the CPU

24.

What technology is used to assure that the logical block addressing on a solid state drive does not always address the same physical blocks, in order to distribute write operations?

a)

Wear leveling

b)

Defragmentation

c)

Partitioning

d)

Formatting

25.

The price for Windows 7 is the same regardless of the edition and type of license you purchase.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

When disassembling a computer, it’s okay to stack circuit boards on top of each other as long as you follow ESD protection rules.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The 2.5” size hard drive is typically used in devices such as MP3 players.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What are round plastic or metal pegs that separate the motherboard from the bottom of the case known as?

a)

Standoff

b)

Spacer

c)

Mount

d)

Bracket

29.

Which of the following is used to uniquely identify a computer on a network?

a)

IP address

b)

MAC address

c)

Hostname

d)

Subnet mask

30.

In a cellular network, each cell is controlled by a tower. What are these towers called?

a)

Base Stations

b)

Cell Towers

c)

Antennas

d)

Repeaters

31.

What should be done after reassembling a laptop, but before installing the battery or AC adapter?

a)

Gently shake the laptop to ensure nothing is loose inside of the case

b)

Test the power button

c)

Install the operating system

d)

Connect to a network

32.

What does a single beep or no beep imply during the startup of a computer?

a)

All POST test passed

b)

Hardware failure

c)

BIOS error

d)

Overheating

33.

What two protocols are used to deliver mail messages?

a)

Post Office Protocol (POP) and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

b)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

c)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and Secure Shell (SSH)

d)

Domain Name System (DNS) and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

34.

What command can be used to flush the local DNS cache on a Windows computer?

a)

ipconfig /flushdns

b)

netstat -r

c)

ping localhost

d)

tracert 127.0.0.1

35.

What cell phone technology is the most popular in the United States?

a)

SIM

b)

CDMA

c)

GSM

d)

LTE

36.

Immediately after you unplug the computer from the power outlet, you’re safe to begin working inside the case.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which statement is NOT true regarding motherboards?

a)

Has a heat sink on the PCIe slots

b)

Contains the CPU socket

c)

Includes RAM slots

d)

Provides power connectors

38.

What type of RAID is a combination of mirroring and striping?

a)

RAID0

b)

RAID1

c)

RAID5

d)

RAID10

39.

The Haswell and Broadwell chipsets work with what two different types of RAM?

a)

DDR2 and DDR3

b)

DDR3 and DDR4

c)

DDR4 and DDR5

d)

DDR and DDR2

40.

After installation, how many days do you have to activate Windows 7?

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

41.

If you need to recover data off a system that won’t boot, install the drive in a working system.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

When installing a processor, you must line up the red circle on the processor with the right-angle mark on the motherboard.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

One long and two short beeps when using an Award BIOS is an indication of what issue?

a)

A memory problem

b)

A video problem

c)

A keyboard problem

d)

A power supply problem

44.

What is the component that usually has a dual-voltage selector switch and has cables that connect to the motherboard and drives called?

a)

Motherboard

b)

CPU

c)

Power Supply Unit (PSU)

d)

Hard Drive

45.

A problem with virtual networks is that data transmitting through them cannot be encrypted and therefore is not secure.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

How many pins are in the power supply connector that is typically used on most motherboards today?

a)

20-pin

b)

24-pin

c)

28-pin

d)

32-pin

47.

What acronym is another name for static electricity, which can damage chips and destroy motherboards?

a)

ESD

b)

EMI

c)

RFI

d)

UPS

48.

What general-purpose tool can measure characteristics of electricity in a variety of devices?

a)

Oscilloscope

b)

Multimeter

c)

Voltmeter

d)

Ammeter

49.

What type of IP address is configured by a server when a device first initiates a connection to the network?

a)

Static

b)

Dynamic

c)

Private

d)

Public

50.

Hybrid processors that can process 32 bits or 64 bits are known by what term?

a)

ARM processors

b)

x86 processors

c)

x86-64 processors

d)

RISC processors

51.

What two terms are used to describe the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?

a)

Connection-oriented and reliable

b)

Connectionless and unreliable

c)

Connection-oriented and unreliable

d)

Connectionless and reliable

52.

Hard drives have three connections for cables: one for reading data, one for writing data, and one for power.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sometimes true

d)

Only for SSDs

53.

What command can be used to remove partitions and convert a drive to GPT?

a)

format

b)

diskpart

c)

chkdsk

d)

defrag

54.

What should you do if the system continually reboots and you can’t read the error message produced on a blue screen?

a)

Press F8 as Windows starts up

b)

Reinstall Windows

c)

Press Ctrl + Alt + Delete

d)

Turn off the computer

55.

Which of the following protects your computer from brownouts or sags?

a)

Surge protector

b)

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

c)

Power strip

d)

Voltage regulator

56.

What Windows 7 64-bit version editions could be installed on a computer that has 16 GB of RAM? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Windows 7 Home Basic

b)

Windows 7 Professional

c)

Windows 7 Home Premium

d)

Windows 7 Starter

57.

Which statement is true regarding the installation of the motherboard and connecting power?

a)

A 6-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

b)

A 4-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

c)

A 2-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

d)

A 8-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

58.

What SATA standard provides a transfer rate of 3 Gb/sec?

a)

SATA1

b)

SATA2

c)

SATA3

d)

SATA4

59.

How is the network portion and the host portion of an IP address identified?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

Default gateway

c)

IP address

d)

MAC address

60.

A DDR4 DIMM running at a speed of 2666 MHz has what PC rating?

a)

PC4-21300

b)

PC3-12800

c)

PC4-17000

d)

PC3-10600

61.

During the Windows 8.1 installation, what option must be selected in order to perform a clean install?

a)

Custom: Install Windows only (advanced)

b)

Upgrade: Install Windows and keep files

c)

Repair your computer

d)

Safe mode installation

62.

A processor housing that contains more than one processor is referred to as what term?

a)

Multicore processor

b)

Single-core processor

c)

Dual-thread processor

d)

Hyper-threaded processor

63.

Programs and data that are stored on a motherboard are referred to by what term?

a)

Firmware

b)

Software

c)

Hardware

d)

Middleware

64.

What are two names for the database that holds digital signatures provided by OS manufacturers, such as Microsoft and Red Hat?

a)

Key-exchange Key

b)

Public Key

c)

Private Key

d)

Key-enrollment Key

65.

What is the purpose of a virtual private network (VPN)?

a)

To connect computers to a wireless network

b)

To encrypt data from a remote computer to a server

c)

To display the TCP-IP configuration

d)

To query a database

66.

What does Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) help users do?

a)

Connect computers to a wireless network easily

b)

Identify a computer and its network

c)

Conserve public IP addresses

d)

Determine if an IP address is on its network

67.

What is a workgroup in networking terms?

a)

A command to display TCP-IP configuration

b)

A group of computers sharing resources on a peer-to-peer network

c)

A protocol for querying a database

d)

A technique to conserve IP addresses

68.

What does a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) do?

a)

Encrypts data from a remote computer

b)

Identifies a computer and its network

c)

Displays TCP-IP configuration

d)

Connects computers to a wireless network

69.

What is the function of Secure Shell (SSH)?

a)

To pass sign-in information to a remote computer

b)

To display the TCP-IP configuration

c)

To connect computers to a wireless network

d)

To query a database

70.

What is the purpose of the IPConfig command?

a)

To encrypt data from a remote computer

b)

To display the TCP-IP configuration

c)

To connect computers to a wireless network

d)

To conserve public IP addresses

71.

What does Network Address Translation (NAT) help with?

a)

Encrypting data from a remote computer

b)

Conserving the number of public IP addresses

c)

Displaying the TCP-IP configuration

d)

Querying a database

72.

What is a subnet mask used for?

a)

To encrypt data from a remote computer

b)

To determine if an IP address is on its network

c)

To display the TCP-IP configuration

d)

To connect computers to a wireless network

73.

What is the purpose of the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?

a)

To encrypt data from a remote computer

b)

To query a database

c)

To display the TCP-IP configuration

d)

To conserve public IP addresses

74.

What does a small triangle embedded on a connector signify?

a)

The wire nearest the triangle is pin 1

b)

The connector is faulty

c)

The triangle indicates power supply

d)

The triangle is for decoration

75.

What are two resources that may be useful in disassembling a laptop computer?

a)

User manual and Service manual

b)

Warranty card and Receipt

c)

Power cable and Charger

d)

Keyboard and Mouse

76.

What can a DIMM use to hold data and amplify a signal just before the data is written to the module?

a)

Registers

b)

Capacitors

c)

Transistors

d)

Diodes

77.

A system always needs the 4-pin auxiliary power connector, and sometimes needs the P1 connector as well.

a)

False

b)

True

78.

What statement best describes a RAID 5?

a)

It requires 3 or more drives and uses parity checking

b)

It requires 2 drives and uses mirroring

c)

It requires 4 drives and uses striping

d)

It requires 5 drives and uses no redundancy

79.

What is an auto-switching AC adapter?

a)

An adapter that can use 110V or 220V AC power

b)

An adapter that only uses 110V AC power

c)

An adapter that only uses 220V AC power

d)

An adapter that uses DC power

80.

What two different types of firmware may be used on motherboards?

a)

BIOS and UEFI

b)

CMOS and RAM

c)

SSD and HDD

d)

USB and HDMI

81.

What is the second step in opening the case of a working computer?

a)

Power down the system and unplug it

b)

Remove the screws

c)

Open the side panel

d)

Disconnect the peripherals

82.

What hard drive technology is used to predict when a drive is likely to fail?

a)

S.M.A.R.T.

b)

RAID

c)

SSD

d)

HDD

83.

What commands are used by the USMT software? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

Loadstate and Scanstate

b)

Boot and Shutdown

c)

Install and Uninstall

d)

Copy and Paste

84.

To move a hard drive to another computer for the purposes of accessing the data, you always need to first physically install it in a drive bay.

a)

False

b)

True

85.

What are the two names used by Intel and AMD respectively that refer to the Execute Disable Bit (EDB) technology?

a)

Execute Disable (XD) and Enhanced Virus Protection

b)

Hyper-Threading and Turbo Boost

c)

Virtualization and Overclocking

d)

Secure Boot and Fast Boot

86.

What type of installation should you perform if you want to install a 64-bit version of Windows on a computer that already has a 32-bit OS installed?

a)

Upgrade install

b)

Clean install

c)

Repair install

d)

Custom install

87.

What is an indication that an inadequate power supply is the source of an intermittent problem?

a)

The computer overheats

b)

The power supply whines when you first turn on the system

c)

The system runs slower than usual

d)

The monitor flickers

88.

What component is most likely to be installed in a PC, is considered primary storage, and typically stores the operating system, as well as its applications?

a)

RAM

b)

Hard disk drive

c)

Graphics card

d)

Optical drive

89.

Unicast addresses include what types of addresses? (Choose all that apply)

a)

Broadcast address

b)

Global address

c)

Link-local address

d)

Multicast address

90.

The Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance applications utilize what port for remote access?

a)

80

b)

443

c)

3389

d)

8080

91.

What is the function of a riser card in a computer?

a)

Connects the CPU to the motherboard

b)

Installs in a PCI slot and provides another slot at a right angle

c)

Controls the power supply

d)

Manages data storage

92.

What is the function of a data bus in a computer system?

a)

It stores data permanently.

b)

It processes data.

c)

It is the system of pathways used for communication which carry data.

d)

It cools the computer components.

93.

What happens if the CMOS battery is disconnected?

a)

The computer will not turn on.

b)

The setup information in the CMOS will be lost.

c)

The computer will overheat.

d)

The data bus will stop working.

94.

What is a protocol in the context of computer communication?

a)

A type of software.

b)

A set of rules and standards that any two entities use for communication.

c)

A hardware component.

d)

A data storage device.

95.

What is the role of the system clock in a computer?

a)

It stores the current time and date.

b)

It is a device dedicated to timing the activities on the motherboard.

c)

It manages the power supply.

d)

It controls the display settings.