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Knee Anatomy and Injuries Quiz

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A complete tear of which ligament usually requires surgical reconstruction?

a)

anterior cruciate ligament

b)

posterior cruciate ligament

c)

medial collateral ligament

d)

lateral collateral ligament

2.

A protective knee brace applied to the lateral aspect of the knee is designed to protect which of these ligaments?

a)

anterior cruciate ligament

b)

posterior cruciate ligament

c)

medial collateral ligament

d)

lateral collateral ligament

3.

The vastus medialis is included in which of these muscle groups?

a)

adductor

b)

abductor

c)

quadriceps

d)

hamstrings

4.

Which of these muscle groups flexes the knee?

a)

adductor

b)

abductor

c)

quadriceps

d)

hamstrings

5.

Which of these ligaments is most commonly injured as a result of a blow to the lateral aspect of the knee?

a)

anterior cruciate ligament

b)

posterior cruciate ligament

c)

medial collateral ligament

d)

lateral collateral ligament

6.

Which of these ligaments prevents the tibia from moving forward on the femur?

a)

anterior cruciate ligament

b)

posterior cruciate ligament

c)

medial collateral ligament

d)

lateral collateral ligament

7.

Fat pad syndrome is also known as

a)

Osgood-Schlatter disorder

b)

chondromalacia

c)

Hoffa's syndrome

d)

Homan's syndrome

8.

Which of these muscles is NOT a hamstring muscle?

a)

biceps femoris

b)

rectus femoris

c)

semimembranosus

d)

semitendinosus

9.

A patellar dislocation should be reduced by the athletic trainer.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Which of these is an injury that affects the growth plate?

a)

epiphyseal fracture

b)

meniscal tear

c)

patellofemoral stress syndrome

d)

patellar dislocation

11.

Patellar tendinitis is commonly seen in athletes who perform in which sports?

a)

sprinting

b)

contact

c)

jumping

d)

swimming

12.

Female athletes will have a greater Q-angle than males, predisposing them to ACL injuries.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of these bones does NOT comprise the knee joint?

a)

tibia

b)

femur

c)

fibula

d)

patella

14.

Which ligament keeps the tibia from slipping forward on the femur?

a)

lateral collateral ligament

b)

medial collateral ligament

c)

anterior cruciate ligament

d)

posterior cruciate ligament

15.

Which group properly identifies the four muscles of the quadriceps?

a)

vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, rectus femoris

b)

vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, biceps femoris

c)

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, vastus medialis

d)

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, biceps femoris

16.

Which three muscles comprise the hamstrings and reflect the proper movement for this group?

a)

biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus for knee extension

b)

rectus femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus for knee extension

c)

biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus for knee flexion

d)

rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis for knee flexion

17.

Which injury is defined by the kneecap moving laterally outside of the femoral groove?

a)

patellofemoral stress syndrome

b)

patellar dislocation

c)

Osgood-Schlatter's Disorder

d)

bursitis

18.

An AT can do all of the following treatments for bursitis EXCEPT

a)

ice the injury

b)

apply a compression wrap

c)

drain the bursa fluid

d)

elevate the injury

19.

What type of joint is the hip joint?

a)

gliding

b)

hinge

c)

ball-and-socket

d)

sliding

20.

The fracture of the femur is considered a medical emergency.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Because it functions at two joints, which of these muscles or muscle groups is most likely to be strained during activity?

a)

hamstrings

b)

rectus femoris

c)

gluteus maximus

d)

a and c

e)

a and b

22.

A hip pointer is a

a)

contusion to the posterior iliac spine

b)

strain to the iliac crest

c)

contusion to the iliac crest

d)

strain to the posterior iliac spine

e)

none of these

23.

The hip is a ________________ joint.

a)

ball-and-socket

b)

hinge

c)

saddle

d)

pivot

24.

The gluteus maximus muscle of the hip is responsible for which motion?

a)

hip flexion

b)

hip extension

c)

hip abduction

d)

hip internal rotation

25.

Hip injuries to the ligaments are frequent due to the instability of the hip joint.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An athlete with a hip dislocation is most likely going to be transported in which way?

a)

by stretcher

b)

by chair

c)

by ambulation

d)

by air mattress

27.

A coccyx fracture is most likely caused by which mechanism?

a)

falling directly onto the tailbone

b)

forceful muscle contractions

c)

inflexible hamstrings

d)

inappropriate muscle strength

28.

When icing a strained quadriceps muscle, the leg should be in which position?

a)

knee flexion

b)

knee extension

c)

hip abduction

d)

hip extension

29.

Which of these bones creates the medial malleolus?

a)

fibula

b)

tibia

c)

talus

d)

calcaneus

30.

Which of these ligaments is NOT on the lateral side of the ankle complex?

a)

deltoid

b)

anterior talofibular

c)

posterior talofibular

d)

calcaneofibular

31.

Which injury has crepitus over the Achilles tendon as a sign?

a)

tendinitis

b)

fracture

c)

sprain

d)

bursitis

32.

Which strategy best prevents lower leg overuse injuries?

a)

wearing shoes as long as you can to keep the foot aligned with the wear pattern

b)

gradually increasing loads when returning post injury

c)

running with a comfortable but faulty gait pattern

d)

running barefoot to prevent modification of foot structure caused by shoes

33.

Inflammation of the Achilles tendon, usually as a result of repetitive stress, is called

a)

Achilles tendon rupture

b)

arch sprain

c)

Achilles tendinitis

d)

Jones tendinitis

34.

Which of these is commonly used to detect a stress fracture of the foot?

a)

X-ray

b)

bone scan

c)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

d)

electrical muscle stimulation

e)

none of these

35.

Which mechanism of injury is the most common for causing ankle sprains?

a)

excessive eversion

b)

extension

c)

excessive inversion

d)

flexion

36.

The distal end of the fibula is referred to as the

a)

lateral malleolus

b)

talus malleolus

c)

medial malleolus

d)

none of these

37.

The Achilles tendon attaches to which of these bones?

a)

talus

b)

calcaneus

c)

metatarsals

d)

midfoot

38.

Which bone in the foot is considered the heel bone proper?

a)

talus

b)

navicular

c)

calcaneus

d)

cuboid

39.

The ankle is stronger on the medial side than on the lateral side due to the extensive ligamentous structure medially.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Most ankle braces are designed to prevent which motions?

a)

inversion

b)

eversion

c)

dorsiflexion

d)

plantarflexion

e)

a and b

41.

An Achilles tendon rupture must be treated with

a)

PRICES

b)

surgery

c)

immobilization

d)

decreased activity

e)

b and c