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Project Management Lifecycle Approaches

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The LMN company is managing an extensive IT server upgrade required to improve the overall efficiency of its corporate network. Management is not concerned with the number of deliveries. They want all objectives to improve speed and reduce resources by the end of the project. However, the technological part of the project is complex, and the team believes they may need to use trial and error to build, test, and potentially modify the server before the next project phase. Which project management lifecycle approach best suits the LMN company project description?

a)

Iterative approach

b)

Incremental approach

c)

Predictive approach

d)

Agile approach

2.

The ABC Company needs to develop a new business application to manage employee workload and assignments. The project manager will develop this application internally. There is a high level of debate about what the end goal should look like. The customer has requested frequent deliveries. In addition, numerous change requests will probably occur while the team develops the project. Which project management lifecycle approach best suits the ABC company project description?

a)

Agile approach

b)

Iterative approach

c)

Incremental approach

d)

Predictive approach

3.

The XYZ company is implementing a project to improve its accounts receivable process. The objectives are well defined. All stakeholders agree that a single delivery of the final process and narrative at the end of the project will suffice. There are a few predictive technical challenges, but the thought is that the project objectives will undergo minimum change. Which project management lifecycle approach best suits the XYZ company project description?

a)

Agile approach

b)

Iterative approach

c)

Predictive approach

d)

Incremental approach

4.

The DEF company is developing a new product requested by a key customer. The product specifications are straightforward. There is a low probability that the customer will change them. The customer has asked for project deliverables to be broken into phases to review the final design before development and analyze a prototype before total production is authorized. The customer wants a set testing period before the final launch. Which project management lifecycle approach best suits the DEF company project description?

a)

Iterative approach

b)

Agile approach

c)

Predictive approach

d)

Incremental approach

5.

The team is classifying various project management models as either adaptive or predictive. Which of the following models would most closely meet the definition of adaptive?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Critical path

c)

Critical chain

d)

Kanban

6.

Ralph Stacey developed a method to objectively determine the type of lifecycle to apply to a project. Which of the following two answers are parameters Stacey recommends in making this decision?

a)

Risk exposure

b)

Requirements uncertainty

c)

Personnel capacity

d)

Technical degree of uncertainty

7.

A project sponsor wants to establish an agile methodology to manage certain projects. Which of the following two key roles are essential to the success of this initiative?

a)

Project manager

b)

Program manager

c)

Scrum master

d)

Product owner

8.

A customer requests frequent deliveries during an inventory management upgrade project. Likely, the degree of change impacting the project is low. Which of the following is the best lifecycle choice for this scenario?

a)

Incremental

b)

Agile

c)

Iterative

d)

Predictive

9.

Another project's customer requests a high degree of deliveries. However, the team anticipates the degree of change to be high as well. Which of the following is the best lifecycle choice for this scenario?

a)

Iterative

b)

Predictive

c)

Incremental

d)

Agile

10.

A project manager is overseeing a project and decides to use a Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control Model. Which of the following types of project is manager overseeing?

a)

Lean

b)

Waterfall

c)

Six Sigma

d)

Agile

11.

The project management team is reviewing a variety of organizational types. Which two of the following ways will the project manager be impacted depending on the organization type the team selects?

a)

Contingency reserves

b)

Resource availability

c)

Project manager's authority

d)

Risk appetite

12.

A project manager works in an organization sometimes known as a "silo." In this model, support is minimal and the manager may not be assigned as a project manager. Success in this model is difficult to achieve. Which model fits this scenario?

a)

Weak matrix

b)

Strong matrix

c)

Organic or functional

d)

Project oriented

13.

A project management office (PMO) has a low level of control but does provide best practices, common oversights, and templates. Which type of PMO is this?

a)

Directive

b)

Controlling

c)

Supportive

d)

Informational

14.

A key infrastructure project has failed twice to achieve the desired objectives. For the third attempt, the team modifies their approach to meet the needs of the project. What method did the team use in this scenario?

a)

Revising

b)

Tailoring

c)

Modifying

d)

Updating

15.

A project manager oversees a project with predefined deliverables that are unlikely to change during the project's course. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Predictive

b)

Agile

c)

Incremental

d)

Iterative

16.

A project manager is assigned to oversee the development of a new web-based application for a client. The client wants to review and provide feedback at each milestone throughout the project, and the manager anticipates a low degree of change to the project scope. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Predictive

b)

Incremental

c)

Iterative

d)

Agile

17.

A project manager uses an iterative lifecycle approach for a software development project requiring significant experimentation and refinement in the design phase. The project team needs to incorporate feedback from users and stakeholders throughout the project. Which of the following defines why the iterative lifecycle is best for this project?

a)

Iterative lifecycles require multiple deliveries and a high degree of change.

b)

Motivate the team.

c)

Iterative lifecycles require periodic deliveries.

d)

Iterative lifecycles require few deliveries but a high degree of change.

18.

A project team is developing a mobile application for a client. The client gives the team a general idea of the application's functionality but is open to making changes based on user feedback throughout the project. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Agile

b)

Iterative

c)

Incremental

d)

Predictive

19.

You are responsible to the internal and external stakeholders of the organization. You must perform with integrity, care, trustworthiness, and compliance. Which principle of project management do these statements represent?

a)

Effectively engage with stakeholders

b)

Focus on value

c)

Be a diligent, respectful, and caring steward

d)

Create a collaborative project team environment

20.

A project manager's ability to respond to changing conditions, along with the ability to absorb impacts and recover quickly, is critical. Which of the following concepts defines these two critical abilities?

a)

Resiliency and adaptability

b)

Adaptability and perseverance

c)

Assertiveness and resiliency

d)

Perseverance and assertiveness

21.

The need to identify key measures, metrics, and standards falls within which of the following Project Management Institute's (PMI) knowledge areas?

a)

Project resource management

b)

Project integration management

c)

Project scope management

d)

Project quality management

22.

A project manager wants to ensure that they understand all key project management principles. How many principles should the manager review?

a)

Ten principles

b)

Eight principles

c)

Twelve principles

d)

Five principles

23.

Which knowledge area requires a project manager to negotiate with organizational functional managers to gain support?

a)

Project procurement management

b)

Project resource management

c)

Project scope management

d)

Project stakeholder management

24.

A project team is implementing a new work-from-home policy. Many meetings will require virtual methods. What are the two key considerations that may impact the success of this new program?

a)

Technology availability

b)

Multiple locations

c)

Various time zones

d)

Employee disabilities

25.

Management assumes individuals are motivated by self-realization, values, and a higher calling. Which management style should a project manager use to influence the team that will cultivate insight and meaning?

a)

Theory Z

b)

Theory Y

c)

Theory X

d)

Theory A

26.

Drexler and Sibbet developed the 7-Step Team Performance Model. Which two stages are essential to this model's success?

a)

Create the team

b)

Reward the team

c)

Motivate the team

d)

Sustainability and performance actions

27.

The ADKAR Model is widely accepted for driving and managing organizational change. Which two of the following steps are in this model?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Desire

c)

Anticipate

d)

Alert

28.

William Bridges developed a three-step transition model that defines the stages of change. Which of the following is the first stage in this model?

a)

The Neutral Zone

b)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

c)

Unfreezing

d)

The New Beginning

29.

Which two of the following choices explain the quality assurance function?

a)

Prevention

b)

Corrective

c)

Uses quality audits

d)

Uses inspections

30.

A key principle in project management states that the ability to absorb impacts and recover quickly is essential. What does the Project Management Institute (PMI) call this ability?

a)

Strength

b)

Adaptability

c)

Flexibility

d)

Resiliency

31.

A team is trying to understand how all process groups work together. They also need to develop and implement an integrated change control process. Which knowledge area are they analyzing?

a)

Project scope management

b)

Project initiation management

c)

Project planning management

d)

Project integration management

32.

There are a number of meetings that are critical to success when managing an adaptive project. Which two meetings are appropriate for an adaptive project?

a)

Daily standup meeting

b)

Kick-off meetings to gain stakeholder acceptance

c)

Pre-baseline and baseline presentations

d)

Product backlog refinement

33.

One of the 12 Principles of Project Management describes each project as unique, recommends that the project manager avoid a 'Cookie Cutter' approach, and directs managers to adapt their approach to meet the project's needs. Which principle does this describe?

a)

Optimize risk responses

b)

Navigate complexity

c)

Recognize, evaluate, and respond to system interactions

d)

Tailor based on context

34.

The 7-Step Performance Model walks project managers through the process of how to build an effective and high-performing team. Steps 1-4 of this model share stages to create the team. Steps 5-7 share project team sustainability and performance actions. Who developed this 7-Step Performance Model?

a)

David McClelland

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

Douglas McGregor

d)

Drexler and Sibbit

35.

Management assumes all employees work for the sole purpose of income. Managers should influence these team members using a hands-on and top-down management approach. Which of the following management type does this describe?

a)

Theory D

b)

Theory Y

c)

Theory X

d)

Theory Z

36.

Which of the following quality tools provides the horizontal value chain for a process from start to end and is commonly used by Six Sigma for process development and improvement?

a)

Mind mapping

b)

Design for X

c)

Logical data model

d)

SIPOC

37.

The team uses a graphical representation of numerical data over a standard distribution. They determine the mean and analyze how data changes as you move away from the mean on the bell curve. Which tool and technique is the team using?

a)

Design for X

b)

Histogram

c)

Scatter diagram

d)

Affinity chart

38.

William Bridges developed a three-step transition model that defines stages of change. Which of the following is the final stage in this three-step transition model?

a)

Unfreezing

b)

The New Beginning

c)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

d)

The Neutral Zone

39.

Which two of the following choices explain the quality control function?

a)

Uses inspections

b)

Prevention

c)

Corrective

d)

Uses quality audits

40.

A project manager develops a business case to modify an existing product to add functionality that a critical customer requests. The sponsor approves the business case and wants to move on to the project's next phase. Which document does the project manager need to create next?

a)

Project brief

b)

Stakeholder engagement plan

c)

Statement of work

d)

Project charter

41.

What are two benefits the project manager will realize once a sponsor approves the project charter?

a)

Authority

b)

Access to resources

c)

Final scope description

d)

Budget approval

42.

Which of the following is a manager-created document meant for stakeholders who do not require in-depth project detail?

a)

Project charter

b)

Stakeholder register

c)

Business case

d)

Project brief

43.

A project manager is developing a business case to support the automation of a core organizational process. They are following the Project Management Institute (PMI) model. Which of the following elements are not included in a business case?

a)

Project sponsor

b)

Business need

c)

Project justification

d)

Business strategy

44.

The PMI recommends that the value propositions in a project charter address four key areas. These areas include financial, process, employee, and customer benefits. Which model does this four-benefit approach replicate?

a)

Value Analysis Model

b)

Benefits Management Model

c)

Benefits Quadrant Model

d)

Balanced Scorecard Model

45.

A project manager presents a project charter to a sponsor. The sponsor approves the project charter for planning. Which key milestone is met in this scenario?

a)

Interim approval

b)

Pre-baseline

c)

Baseline

d)

Preliminary scope

46.

A project manager defines the roles and responsibilities of the team in a stakeholder register. Which code should the manager use for a team member, who is a subject matter expert (SME), and is responsible for task completion?

a)

RC

b)

CI

c)

RA

d)

AC

47.

Which two statements about a stakeholder register are true?

a)

Stakeholders may have multiple RACI designators.

b)

The project manager completes the stakeholder register before the start of a project.

c)

The project manager should define role definitions on the stakeholder register.

d)

The project manager develops the stakeholder register with the project charter.

48.

A project manager is taking a team vote to decide on the following scenario. There are four groups of stakeholders in the project. Marketing accounts for approximately 40% of the total stakeholder population. As a result, the marketing group will have the final say in the decision-making process. Which of the following describes this process?

a)

Plurality

b)

Autocratic

c)

Unanimity

d)

Majority

49.

A facilitator leads a brainstorming session to generate potential solutions. After the team identifies all possible solutions, the stakeholders must prioritize each for feasibility. The best option is generally regarded as the one that scores the highest. Which decision-making method does this scenario describe?

a)

Wideband Delphi

b)

Multi-criteria decision analysis

c)

Nominal group technique

d)

Voting

50.

Which decision-making method does the project manager facilitate when the decision needs to be confidential?

a)

Multi-criteria decision analysis

b)

Nominal group technique

c)

Voting

d)

Wideband Delphi

51.

A project stakeholder has several reservations about a project but also sees potential. In terms of project support, the project stakeholder is still unsure. How would you classify the current level of commitment of the stakeholder?

a)

R

b)

L

c)

U

d)

N

52.

A project team finalizes a close-hold plan that defines the stakeholders' existing and desired levels of commitment. The team develops strategies to manage these stakeholders. Which of the following plans did the team develop in this scenario?

a)

Project charter

b)

Stakeholder register

c)

Stakeholder engagement plan (SEP)

d)

Project brief

53.

A project manager met with a chief financial officer (CFO). The project under consideration is a new product that provides a revenue stream for approximately four years. The CFO asks for a financial analysis that considers the time value of money. Which financial information should the project manager provide?

a)

NPV

b)

ROIC

c)

IRR

d)

ROI

54.

This financial analysis results in a subjective or objective measure of returns. Company shareholders determine if the project provides greater returns to the shareholders than its costs. There is no calculation involved. Which two of the following financial analyses does this describe?

a)

ROIC

b)

ROI

c)

BCR

d)

EVA

55.

Which of the following describes the estimation technique that involves comparing the current project to similar past projects to estimate the costs?

a)

Budget estimate

b)

Parametric

c)

Bottom-up

d)

Analogous

56.

A critical stakeholder's responsibilities to support a project include ensuring that the project team produces the deliverables and meets the timeline. Which of the following roles should the project manager annotate on the stakeholder register for the stakeholder in this scenario?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

R

d)

I

57.

The project manager has completed the project charter, and the team has just finished a brainstorming session to identify key stakeholders critical to the project's success. Where should the project manager document these stakeholders?

a)

Stakeholder matrix

b)

Stakeholder dictionary

c)

Stakeholder register

d)

Stakeholder log

58.

Which of the following is a weighted method of decision-making in which two or more options are compared and scored?

a)

Nominal Group Technique

b)

Wideband Delphi

c)

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

d)

OARP

59.

A project team employs a voting method where more than 50% of the voting members determine the decision path. Which of the following criterion describes this scenario?

a)

Majority

b)

Unanimity

c)

Unilateral

d)

Plurality

60.

Review the illustration. Which of the following is the name of this tool?

a)

Strategy development table

b)

UNRSL analysis tool

c)

Commitment level matrix

d)

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

61.

There are two projects. Project A has a value of $60,000. Project B has a value of $40,000. You can select only one project, and you decide on Project B. By selecting Project B, you "give up" the chance to gain the value of Project A. Which of the following concepts addresses project trade-offs like the one in this scenario?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Opportunity cost

c)

Straight line

d)

Time value of money

62.

A project manager discovers that cash flow may be increased by applying tax benefits gained from asset depreciation. The project manager purchased a capital asset valued at $20,000 with a depreciable lifecycle of 4 years. How much can the manager claim each year using the straight-line depreciation method?

a)

$7,500

b)

$5,000

c)

$10,000

d)

$20,000

63.

A project has benefits of $100,000. The costs are $50,000. Which is the benefit-cost ratio (BCR) for this scenario?

a)

100%

b)

2.0

c)

0.5

d)

$50,000

64.

Which of the following estimation techniques uses regression analysis and learning curve techniques to multiply the quantity of work performed times the productivity rate?

a)

Expert

b)

Top-down

c)

Parametric

d)

Bottom-up

65.

The project manager normally provides the rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate in the project charter. What is the range for a ROM estimate?

a)

-5%/+10%

b)

-25%/+25%

c)

-25%/+75%

d)

-10%/+10%

66.

The scope baseline includes which two of the following documents?

a)

Scope statement

b)

Network diagram

c)

WBS dictionary

d)

Scope management plan

67.

A project work package has an optimistic estimated completion time of nine days. The team calculates the most likely duration to be twelve days for completion time. There is a chance of a pessimistic outcome of eighteen days. Using the three-point averaging method, which is the best duration estimate for this project?

a)

Thirty-nine days

b)

Twelve days

c)

Thirteen days

d)

Thirteen and a half days

68.

A project manager completes the pre-baseline presentation, and the project sponsor approves the project charter. Which area should the team begin planning first?

a)

Project cost management

b)

Project scope management

c)

Project schedule management

d)

Project quality management

69.

Which two of the following are process-oriented plans that share methods and general planning guidance?

a)

Scope statement

b)

Cost management plan

c)

Requirements management plan

d)

Network diagram

70.

A project manager oversees a project that will remodel a critical portion of its manufacturing facility. The project manager is informed that several permits will be required before construction begins. What type of dependency is the team encountering in this scenario?

a)

External dependency

b)

Mandatory dependency

c)

Discretionary dependency

d)

Internal dependency

71.

A project manager reviews a document produced by a business analyst that describes the product vision, how the product supports organizational objectives, product features, timelines, and recommended project lifecycles. This document will guide project initiation and planning. Which of the following documents matches this description?

a)

Project charter

b)

Product roadmap

c)

Scope statement

d)

Traceability matrix

72.

A project manager wants to ensure the project's deliverables conform to the customer's requirements and are fit for use. Which of the following support plans should the project manager use?

a)

Resource Breakdown Structure

b)

Quality Management Plan

c)

Risk Management Plan

d)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

73.

A project team member wants to see the project's material and equipment requirements. Which of the following support plans will show the team member a visual representation of the project's needs broken down into small components?

a)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

b)

Resource Breakdown Structure

c)

Communications Management Plan

d)

Procurement Management Plan

74.

Which support plan does the project manager develop during support planning that must receive approval from the sponsor? This plan ensures the right information is shared with all stakeholders in a timely manner.

a)

Risk Management Plan

b)

Quality Management Plan

c)

Communications Management Plan

d)

Resource Breakdown Structure

75.

A project manager must develop a support plan to identify, evaluate, and manage positive and negative events that may impact a project. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop?

a)

Risk Management Plan

b)

Communications Management Plan

c)

Resource Breakdown Structure

d)

Procurement Management Plan

76.

The project customer has asked the project manager to ensure that the organization can acquire the project deliverables from external sources they need in a timely and cost-effective manner. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop to identify and procure the products and services the project requires to reach completion?

a)

Procurement Management Plan

b)

Quality Management Plan

c)

Resource Breakdown Structure

d)

Risk Management Plan

77.

The project team needs to assess the project stakeholder's current levels of commitment to develop strategies to raise the stakeholder's level of commitment even higher. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop to identify and evaluate the stakeholder's commitment levels and develop strategies to gain commitment?

a)

Communications Management Plan

b)

Risk Management Plan

c)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

d)

Procurement Management Plan

78.

A project manager requires contractor support. The project team does not have the technical expertise needed to build a deliverable internally. The manager sends out a Statement of Work describing the functionality required. The manager realizes that this contract will likely place risk on the buyer. What type of contract will the project manager initiate once a seller is selected?

a)

Time and material

b)

Cost reimbursement

c)

Statement of Work (SOW)

d)

Fixed price

79.

The sponsor approves the project charter, and the project manager publishes the stakeholder register. Which planning process should the team address first?

a)

Schedule

b)

Quality

c)

Cost

d)

Scope

80.

The project team is planning the scope and are working on a document that shows the detail and attributes of each work package supporting the project. These attributes are broken into specific tasks. Which document is under development in this scenario?

a)

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

b)

Scope statement

c)

Project charter

d)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

81.

Which two of the following components are part of the overall scope baseline?

a)

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

b)

Scope statement

c)

Scope management plan

d)

Requirements management plan

82.

The project management team develops a comprehensive network diagram to support the project. Which two of the following choices would be featured on a network diagram in this scenario?

a)

Task descriptions

b)

Critical path

c)

Resource costs

d)

Work package durations

83.

A project team analyzes all costs and determines a few indirect costs. Which item would fall under this category?

a)

Material purchases

b)

Company-funded training

c)

Equipment acquisitions

d)

Contingency reserves

84.

A project manager estimates project cost with an optimistic cost of $22,000, a most-likely cost of $28,000, and a pessimistic cost of $40,000. Applying the PERT method of three-point estimation, which cost estimate should the project manager use?

a)

$28,000

b)

$29,000

c)

$30,000

d)

$40,000

85.

Plans and timing to support deliverable inspections and verify newly produced deliverables are included in which plan?

a)

Quality management plan

b)

Quality assurance plan

c)

Project measurement plan

d)

Quality control plan

86.

What is the CV for the following scenario? EV = $3,000 PV = $2,800 AC = $2,700

a)

+$300

b)

-$200

c)

-$300

d)

+$200

87.

What is the SPI for the following scenario? EV = $3,000 PV = $2,800 AC = $2,700

a)

0.96

b)

1.11

c)

1.07

d)

1.04

88.

Using the following choices, fill in the two blanks in the statement. A manager schedules the project kick-off meeting after _______ approval of the project management plan. The meeting strives to gain ________ acceptance.

a)

sponsor, project team

b)

stakeholder, sponsor

c)

project team, sponsor

d)

sponsor, stakeholder

89.

Many project managers worry about managing the triple constraints. The Project Management Institute (PMI) refers to this as the project manager's triangle. Which of the following two constraints apply to this description?

a)

Risk

b)

Scope

c)

Cost

d)

Communications

90.

The project management framework is divided into five distinct phases: initiate, plan, execute, monitor, control, and close. How does the PMI refer to these phases?

a)

Project steps

b)

Project phase gates

c)

Project process groups

d)

Project lifecycles

91.

The project management framework developed by the PMI lists forty-nine specific processes. Where do the majority of these processes fall within the framework?

a)

Monitor and Control

b)

Plan

c)

Initiate

d)

Execute

92.

The ABC Company recently implemented a Project Management Office (PMO). The initial plan is for this PMO to provide information, standard templates, and guidance to the firm's project managers. What type of PMO does this scenario describe?

a)

Supportive

b)

Controlling

c)

Directive

d)

Informational

93.

The PMI breaks project management lifecycles into adaptive and predictive categories. Which two project management models fall under the predictive category?

a)

Agile

b)

Six Sigma

c)

Scrum

d)

Waterfall

94.

A team plans to implement an agile model to support certain projects in an organization. Where will the team maintain and document all requirements?

a)

In the scope backlog

b)

In the scope management plan

c)

In the product backlog

d)

In the scope statement

95.

Ralph Stacey developed an analysis matrix to determine the optimal lifecycle to choose to implement a project. What are the two criteria Stacey recommends to make this decision?

a)

Requirements uncertainty

b)

Technical degree of uncertainty

c)

Overall risk exposure and score

d)

Scheduling volatility

96.

A project sponsor reviewed a list of key roles supporting an agile project. He notices that the list includes more than one role. What role is not included on the agile supporting role list?

a)

Development team

b)

Scrum master

c)

Project manager

d)

Product owner

97.

Which two of the following options are formal phases in the PMI project management lifecycle?

a)

Implement

b)

Initiate

c)

Manage

d)

Execute

98.

The PMI stresses the impact that organization models can have on a project and the team. They define three distinct matrix models. In one of the models, the project manager enjoys power more than the functional manager, can make decisions on the allocation of resources, has a great deal of control, and can utilize their project management skills on the projects. Which matrix model does this describe?

a)

Weak Matrix Model

b)

Strong Matrix Model

c)

Balanced Matrix Model

d)

Standard Matrix Model

99.

A team is performing a cost of quality study and analyzing costs of non-compliance against costs of compliance. Which two costs are non-compliance?

a)

Verification costs

b)

Warranty claims costs

c)

Reworks costs

d)

Training costs

100.

A product owner is analyzing the transition model for change due to changes happening on the project. Some people's productivity is dropping due to frustration or confusion. Others seem to be motivated, creative, and passionate. What stage of the transition model is the team in?

a)

The Neutral Zone

b)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

c)

Transition

d)

The New Beginning

101.

Current ABC Company management assumes employees are motivated from within. They use a more personal coaching style to influence the team. What is this management style?

a)

Theory X

b)

Theory W

c)

Theory Y

d)

Theory Z

102.

When managing the virtual team, which skill is most critical to success?

a)

Communications

b)

Influencing

c)

Motivation

d)

Coaching

103.

A project manager wants to create a learning environment where the team can attain new skills and grow, provide continual performance feedback, and communicate effectively to manage issues as they occur. Which knowledge area should the project manager consult for guidance?

a)

Resource management

b)

Integration management

c)

Communications management

d)

Quality management

104.

A project manager reviews critical financial metrics. Which two of the following metrics are not impacted by the time value of money?

a)

IRR

b)

ROI

c)

NPV

d)

Payback

105.

A project manager will need to acquire some key materials which the project will fund. How should the project manager categorize these costs?

a)

Indirect costs

b)

Reimbursable costs

c)

Contingency costs

d)

Direct costs

106.

A project manager analyzes key project stakeholders and develops strategies to ensure desired commitment levels are met. What plan did the project manager develop?

a)

RACI chart

b)

 Resource register

c)

Stakeholder engagement plan

d)

Stakeholder register

107.

Which of the following is true regarding the stakeholder register?

a)

The project manager completes the stakeholder register before publishing a project charter

b)

The project manager updates the stakeholder register throughout the project.

c)

The project manager accomplishes the stakeholder register in the planning process group.

d)

The project manager uses the stakeholder engagement plan to fill out the stakeholder register.

108.

A project sponsor uses a fast-decision-making method where an individual makes all the decisions. However, there are risks associated with this method. Which decision-making method is the sponsor using?

a)

Autocratic

b)

OARP

c)

   Unanimity

d)

  Plurality

109.

Bethany schedules a project kick-off meeting. What are the two primary purposes of this meeting?

a)

To gain stakeholder acceptance

b)

To formally enter the executing phase

c)

To gain sponsor approval

d)

To introduce the project charter

110.

A team recently completed Earned Value analysis of a project. The CPI was .91. The SPI was 1.06. What is the status of this project?

a)

Ahead of schedule and ahead of budget

b)

Ahead of schedule but behind budget

c)

Behind on schedule and behind on budget

d)

Behind on schedule but ahead of budget

111.

A project manager develops a simple “how-to” plan that provides process and direction to the team on how to define, develop, monitor, control, and validate the project schedule. Which of the following plans is being described?

a)

  Schedule process plan

b)

    Schedule model

c)

Schedule management plan

d)

Schedule critical path analysis

112.

A project manager and team are currently developing support plans for the overall project management plan. Which two of the following plans should the manager place in the support planning folder?

a)

Quality management plan

b)

Communications management plan

c)

Cost management plan

d)

Scope management plan

113.

The project team completes scope planning and develops a document that is said to be the most detailed version of the scope. Which document did the team produce?

a)

Scope management plan

b)

Project scope statement

c)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

d)

Project network diagram