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Final Exam Quiz

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of a Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)?

a)

To store files

b)

To accelerate virtual-to-physical address translation

c)

To increase cache memory size

d)

To replace page tables in virtual memory

2.

What happens when a TLB miss occurs?

a)

The instruction execution halts until the CPU is restarted

b)

The CPU fetches the physical address from main memory and updates the TLB

c)

The page table is disabled, and address translation is skipped

d)

The process is terminated due to a memory error

3.

What best describes the working set of a process?

a)

The entire memory available for the process

b)

The set of pages a process is utilizing

c)

The memory pages shared between multiple processes

d)

The pages stored in swap space

4.

How does the resident set differ from the working set?

a)

The resident set includes only pages currently loaded in RAM

b)

The resident set includes all pages ever accessed by a process

c)

The resident set is only used for file I/O operations

d)

The resident set is always larger than the working set

5.

When does a copy occur in a Copy-On-Write system?

a)

When a process reads shared memory

b)

When a process modifies shared memory

c)

When a process is created

d)

When a process terminates

6.

Which type of memory access is typically the fastest?

a)

Random access

b)

Sequential access

7.

Which of the following is an example of sequential memory access?

a)

Retrieving a specific record from a database index

b)

Searching for a variable in an associative array

c)

Scanning through a linked list stored in memory

d)

Fetching a memory page using a TLB

8.

What is the main function of the DRAM row buffer?

a)

To store frequently accessed data for quick retrieval

b)

To serve as a backup for cache memory

c)

To temporarily hold a row of DRAM before sending it to the CPU

d)

To perform error correction on DRAM contents

9.

What is the difference between hardware and software prefetching?

a)

A) Hardware prefetching is controlled by the CPU, while software prefetching is controlled by the program

b)

B) Software prefetching is always more efficient than hardware prefetching

c)

C) Hardware prefetching requires explicit programming instructions

d)

D) Software prefetching works only in multi-threaded applications

10.

Which of the following is true about swap space?

a)

It is always faster than RAM

b)

It prevents the need for page replacement algorithms

c)

It is typically stored on disk and used when RAM is full

d)

It eliminates the occurrence of page faults

11.

Which of the following helps reduce page faults?

a)

Increasing the CPU clock speed

b)

Reducing the page size

c)

Using more swap space

d)

Increasing RAM size

12.

How does non-contiguous memory allocation improve memory utilization?

a)

By ensuring that each process gets a fixed block of memory

b)

By allowing memory to be allocated in separate chunks, reducing fragmentation

c)

By preventing processes from accessing swap space

d)

By restricting the number of processes that can run simultaneously

13.

Which of the following is an example of non-contiguous memory allocation?

a)

Contiguous file storage on a hard drive

b)

Paging in virtual memory

c)

Fixed-size partitioning in main memory

d)

Direct Memory Access (DMA)

14.

What is the main advantage of using a virtual address space?

a)

It increases the physical memory available to a process

b)

It allows multiple processes to share the same memory addresses without conflict

c)

It removes the need for memory management hardware

d)

It eliminates the need for page replacement algorithms

15.

How does the operating system translate virtual addresses to physical addresses?

a)

Using a hashing function on the virtual address

b)

Through the Memory Management Unit (MMU) and page tables

c)

By directly mapping virtual addresses to physical memory

d)

By storing virtual addresses in swap space

16.

What is the main cause of thrashing in an operating system?

a)

Too many page faults causing excessive disk access

b)

A failure in virtual address translation

c)

Insufficient swap space in the system

d)

A process running out of stack memory

17.

What is a key characteristic of a NUMA architecture?

a)

All processors have equal access time to all memory

b)

Each processor has faster access to its local memory and slower access to remote memory

c)

NUMA systems only support a single CPU

d)

NUMA eliminates the need for memory caching

18.

Which type of applications benefit most from NUMA architectures?

a)

Applications with heavy disk I/O operations

b)

Applications that require frequent network communication

c)

Memory-intensive applications that can be optimized for locality

d)

Lightweight web applications with minimal memory usage

19.

What is the primary advantage of a computer cluster?

a)

It reduces the need for RAM in individual machines

b)

It allows multiple computers to work together for higher performance and reliability

c)

It eliminates the need for an operating system

d)

It ensures all computations are performed on a single node

20.

What is firmware?

a)

A) A type of volatile memory used for temporary storage

b)

B) The software responsible for booting and managing low-level hardware operations

c)

C) A high-level application installed on an operating system

d)

D) The main storage system of a computer

21.

How is firmware typically stored in modern computers?

a)

On the hard drive for quick access

b)

In a removable USB drive

c)

In non-volatile memory like ROM, flash memory, or EEPROM

d)

In the system’s RAM

22.

What is a key difference between BIOS and UEFI?

a)

A) BIOS supports larger drives and a graphical interface, while UEFI does not

b)

B) UEFI is the newer standard that supports larger storage devices and a modern interface

c)

C) BIOS is used only in Linux, while UEFI is used only in Windows

d)

D) UEFI does not require firmware, while BIOS does

23.

What does the POST process check during computer startup?

a)

It verifies that the system has passed a security audit

b)

Each processor has faster access to its local memory and slower access to remote memory

24.

If a computer fails to pass the POST test, what typically happens?

a)

The operating system is automatically reinstalled

b)

The BIOS/UEFI automatically fixes the problem

c)

The computer produces beep codes or error messages indicating the issue

d)

The computer continues booting without any problem

25.

In computing, what does latency refer to?

a)

The total storage capacity of a memory system

b)

The delay between a request and the response

c)

The maximum speed at which data can be transmitted

d)

The amount of cache memory available

26.

Which of the following typically has the lowest latency?

a)

Accessing data from a register

b)

Accessing data from an HDD

c)

Transferring data over a network

d)

Loading a file from cloud storage

27.

What does bandwidth measure in computing?

a)

The amount of time it takes to complete a task

b)

The maximum data transfer rate of a network or memory system

c)

The size of the cache in a CPU

d)

The latency of a system

28.

Which factor can increase the effective bandwidth of a system?

a)

Reducing the CPU clock speed

b)

Increasing the memory bus width or clock frequency

c)

Disabling hardware prefetching

d)

Using a slower storage device

29.

What is the most commonly used cache replacement policy in modern processors?

a)

First-In, First-Out (FIFO)

b)

Least Recently Used (LRU)

c)

Random Replacement

d)

Optimal Page Replacement

30.

How does a high cache miss rate affect system performance?

a)

It improves performance by reducing memory latency

b)

It increases memory access time since more data is retrieved from slower memory

c)

It has no impact since all data will eventually be loaded into cache

d)

It decreases CPU power consumption

31.

What is a key characteristic of a write-through cache?

a)

Data is written to both the cache and main memory immediately

b)

Data is written only to cache, with main memory updated later

c)

It does not store frequently accessed data

d)

It is slower than write-back cache due to its non-volatile nature

32.

Why is a write-back cache generally faster than a write-through cache?

a)

It eliminates the need for main memory updates

b)

It reduces memory writes by delaying updates to main memory

c)

It forces all data to be written to disk immediately

d)

It allows the CPU to bypass cache memory

33.

What is an example of scalability?

a)

Removing servers to a cluster

b)

Increasing the number of clusters in a network

c)

Creating backup copies of data

d)

Using the GPU for vector processing

34.

In a distributed computing system, what is a node?

a)

A specialized CPU cache for fast memory access

b)

A single computing unit that participates in a network or cluster

c)

A fixed storage location in a hard disk

d)

A thread of execution within a process

35.

Which of the following is an example of a node in a computing system?

a)

A transistor in a CPU

b)

A core in a multicore processor

c)

A single computer in a high-performance cluster

d)

A block of memory in RAM

36.

In a shared memory system, how do processors communicate?

a)

By exchanging messages over a network

b)

By reading and writing to the same memory space

c)

By sending electrical signals directly between CPUs

d)

By using a special caching mechanism

37.

What is a potential drawback of a shared memory system?

a)

It requires a complex message-passing interface

b)

It does not allow multiple processes to access the same data

c)

It can suffer from memory contention and synchronization issues

d)

It eliminates the need for any form of inter-process communication

38.

How do processors communicate in a distributed memory system?

a)

By reading and writing to shared memory

b)

By using message passing over a network

39.

Which of the following is an advantage of distributed memory systems over shared memory systems?

a)

They eliminate the need for memory synchronization

b)

They can scale to a larger number of processors more efficiently

c)

They require less complex communication mechanisms

d)

They automatically share data without explicit message passing

40.

What is the main difference between serial and parallel execution?

a)

Serial execution runs instructions one after another, while parallel execution runs multiple instructions simultaneously

b)

Serial execution is always faster than parallel execution

c)

Parallel execution only works on a single processor

d)

Serial execution is used exclusively in supercomputers

41.

Which of the following is an example of parallel execution?

a)

A) A single-threaded program executing on a single-core processor

b)

B) A multi-threaded program running on a multi-core processor

c)

C) A sequential program running on a quantum computer

d)

D) A CPU executing a single instruction at a time

42.

What is a key difference between parallel processing and pipelining?

a)

A) Parallel processing divides tasks among multiple processors, while pipelining processes multiple stages of an instruction simultaneously

b)

B) Pipelining is only used in GPUs, while parallel processing is used in CPUs

c)

C) Parallel processing requires shared memory, while pipelining does not

d)

D) Pipelining can only execute one instruction at a time

43.

Why is pipelining commonly used in modern CPUs?

a)

It allows multiple instructions to be executed simultaneously at different stages

b)

It reduces the need for branch prediction

44.

Which classification in Flynn’s taxonomy describes a system where multiple processors execute different instructions on different data?

a)

SISD

b)

SIMD

c)

MISD

d)

MIMD

45.

What type of architecture is commonly used in modern GPUs?

a)

SISD

b)

SIMD

c)

MISD

d)

MIMD

46.

What is the primary advantage of a multicore processor?

a)

It eliminates the need for RAM

b)

It can execute multiple threads or processes in parallel

c)

It replaces cache memory

d)

It increases power consumption without improving performance

47.

Which of the following statements is true about multicore processors?

a)

They always double the performance with each added core

b)

They allow multiple cores to share cache and memory resources

c)

They execute only one program at a time

d)

They eliminate the need for parallel programming

48.

What is a key characteristic of an SMP system?

a)

Each processor has its own separate memory and does not share with others

b)

All processors share a single memory space and operate under a single OS

c)

SMP systems only support single-core CPUs

d)

SMP does not require any form of synchronization between processors

49.

What is an advantage of SMP systems?

a)

They provide easy scalability with minimal performance bottlenecks

b)

They allow efficient memory sharing among processors

c)

They eliminate the need for an operating system

d)

They guarantee perfect linear speedup with more processors

50.

What is the defining feature of an MPP system?

a)

It uses a single processor with a large amount of RAM

b)

It consists of many independent processors working in parallel

c)

It can only execute a single instruction at a time

d)

It does not require an operating system

51.

What type of applications typically benefit from MPP systems?

a)

Simple web browsing

b)

High-performance computing tasks like weather modeling and scientific simulations

c)

Running a single-threaded script

d)

Low-power embedded systems

52.

Which of the following is NOT a common IPC mechanism?

a)

Message passing

b)

Shared memory

c)

Interrupts

d)

Pipes

53.

What is a potential drawback of using shared memory for IPC?

a)

It requires more CPU power than message passing

b)

It cannot be used for communication between processes

c)

It requires synchronization mechanisms to prevent race conditions

d)

It eliminates the need for scheduling

54.

What does an opcode represent in an instruction?

a)

A) The part of an instruction that specifies the operation to be performed

b)

B) The memory address of an instruction

55.

Which of the following is an example of an opcode?

a)

ADD

b)

0xFF01

c)

42

d)

ALU

56.

What is an operand in an instruction?

a)

The portion of the instruction that defines what operation to execute

b)

The data or memory address on which the operation acts

c)

A reserved area of memory for storing variables

d)

The clock cycle required to execute an instruction

57.

In the instruction ADD R1, R2, #5, what is the immediate operand?

a)

R1

b)

R2

c)

#5

d)

ADD

58.

What is the main difference between LGA (Land Grid Array) and PGA (Pin Grid Array) sockets?

a)

LGA sockets have pins on the motherboard, while PGA sockets have pins on the CPU

b)

LGA sockets are only used in AMD processors

c)

PGA sockets are found in mobile devices

d)

PGA sockets are soldered onto the motherboard

59.

Which of the following is a drawback of PGA sockets?

a)

The CPU is permanently attached to the motherboard

b)

The pins on the CPU are fragile and can bend easily

c)

They do not allow for CPU cooling solutions

d)

They are not used in modern processors

60.

In the Little Man Computer (LMC) model, what does the accumulator register do?

a)

Stores the address of the next instruction

b)

Holds the result of arithmetic and logical operations

c)

Contains the opcode of an instruction

d)

Stores program instructions

61.

Which register typically holds the address of the next instruction to be executed?

a)

Program Counter (PC)

b)

Accumulator (A)

c)

Instruction Register (IR)

d)

Stack Pointer (SP)

62.

What is a key difference between Von Neumann and Harvard architectures?

a)

Von Neumann uses separate memory for instructions and data, while Harvard shares memory

b)

Harvard architecture separates memory for instructions and data, while Von Neumann uses a single memory

c)

Von Neumann is used exclusively in GPUs

d)

Harvard architecture does not allow parallel processing

63.

What is a major drawback of the Von Neumann architecture?

a)

It requires multiple clock cycles to execute an instruction

b)

It suffers from the "Von Neumann bottleneck" due to shared memory access for code and data

c)

It cannot support high-speed processors

d)

It requires separate caches for instructions and data

64.

What is a key characteristic of a combinational circuit?

a)

It has memory elements to store past inputs

b)

Its output depends only on the current input values

c)

It executes in a sequential manner

d)

It requires clock cycles to function

65.

Which of the following is an example of a sequential circuit?

a)

Half-adder

b)

Multiplexer

c)

Counter

d)

Logic gate

66.

What is a limitation of a half-adder?

a)

It can only add signed numbers

b)

It does not consider carry-in from previous stages

c)

It requires a clock signal to function

d)

It cannot handle binary addition

67.

How does a full adder differ from a half adder?

a)

A full adder can subtract, while a half adder cannot

b)

A full adder has two inputs, while a half adder has three

c)

A full adder includes a carry-in bit to handle multi-bit addition

d)

A full adder is a type of sequential circuit

68.

What is the primary purpose of a Karnaugh Map?

a)

To store memory addresses

b)

To simplify Boolean algebra expressions

c)

To perform floating-point arithmetic

d)

To convert binary to decimal

69.

What is the main advantage of using Karnaugh Maps?

a)

They allow direct conversion between instruction sets

b)

They provide a visual method to minimize logical expressions

c)

They improve CPU clock speed

d)

They replace truth tables in all cases

70.

What happens when an arithmetic overflow occurs in an ALU?

a)

The result exceeds the number of bits available for storage

b)

The ALU resets and re-executes the operation

c)

The CPU stops executing further instructions

d)

The program terminates immediately

71.

Which of the following conditions would indicate an overflow in two’s complement addition (choose 2)? A) Adding two positive numbers results in a negative number B) Adding a positive and negative number results in zero C) Adding two negative numbers results in a positive number D) Adding two odd numbers

a)

A) Adding two positive numbers results in a negative number

b)

B) Adding a positive and negative number results in zero

c)

C) Adding two negative numbers results in a positive number

d)

D) Adding two odd numbers