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C6 - Application Security

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following attacks is characterized by inserting malicious code into user inputs that are executed by a database?

a)

Directory traversal

b)

Cross-site scripting

c)

SQL injection

d)

Replay attack

2.

What is the main purpose of input validation in web applications?

a)

Improve user interface speed

b)

Prevent cross-site scripting and injection attacks

c)

Speed up database queries

d)

Optimize resource usage

3.

What security mechanism ensures that code has not been altered since it was published by the developer?

a)

Code obfuscation

b)

Code signing

c)

Code commenting

d)

Code reuse

4.

Which type of vulnerability occurs when a web server allows attackers to access files outside the intended directory structure?

a)

Command injection

b)

Directory traversal

c)

Buffer overflow

d)

Blind SQL injection

5.

What software development practice integrates security throughout the entire software lifecycle, including development and operations?

a)

Static code analysis

b)

Continuous deployment

c)

DevSecOps

d)

Waterfall development

6.

Which type of cross-site scripting attack involves malicious scripts stored on a server and executed whenever a user views the affected page?

a)

Reflected XSS

b)

Persistent XSS

c)

DOM-based XSS

d)

Blind XSS

7.

What term refers to running applications in isolated environments to prevent interaction with critical system resources?

a)

Containerization

b)

Sandboxing

c)

Virtualization

d)

Encapsulation

8.

Which of the following best describes a Cross-site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?

a)

An attack that injects malicious code into user input

b)

An attack that exploits a user's trust in a website to execute unauthorized commands

c)

An attack that steals data from the server by exploiting URL parameters

d)

An attack that forces a server to visit malicious URLs

9.

What type of testing method involves executing code with invalid or random data to discover vulnerabilities such as crashes or leaks?

a)

Static analysis

b)

Dynamic analysis

c)

Fuzzing

d)

Regression testing

10.

Which of the following would be the best defense against a session replay attack in web applications?

a)

Secure cookies with the SECURE attribute

b)

Encrypting database communications

c)

Using firewall ACLs

d)

Code reuse practices

11.

Which vulnerability is characterized by inserting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users?

a)

SSRF

b)

XSS

c)

CSRF

d)

TOC

12.

What type of attack occurs when an attacker tricks an authenticated user into submitting a request they didn't intend?

a)

SQL injection

b)

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF/XSRF)

c)

Time-of-Check (TOC)

d)

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

13.

Which vulnerability allows attackers to send malicious requests from the server to internal resources?

a)

SSRF

b)

XSS

c)

API

d)

TOU

14.

What is a race condition vulnerability called that happens when a system checks a value before it is actually used?

a)

TOU

b)

CSRF

c)

TOC

d)

SSRF

15.

The process that describes the stages involved in developing software from design to deployment is known as:

a)

API development

b)

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

c)

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

d)

Server-side scripting

16.

Which of the following refers to a security mechanism placed in front of web servers to monitor and filter traffic?

a)

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

b)

Application Programming Interface (API)

c)

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

d)

Time-of-Use (TOU)

17.

Which method involves analyzing source code for vulnerabilities before the application is deployed?

a)

SSRF

b)

SAST

c)

XSS

d)

CSRF

18.

Which of the following best describes an Application Programming Interface (API)?

a)

A security device used to detect web attacks

b)

A race condition vulnerability

c)

A set of protocols for building and interacting with software applications

d)

A software development model

19.

What vulnerability exists when data checked by a system becomes outdated by the time it is used?

a)

XSS

b)

TOU

c)

SSRF

d)

SDLC

20.

The specific system or product being assessed for security vulnerabilities is known as the:

a)

Application Programming Interface (API)

b)

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

c)

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

d)

Target of Evaluation (TOE)

21.

At which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) should security requirements initially be defined?

a)

Coding

b)

Design

c)

Requirements

d)

Testing

22.

Secure Software Development Life Cycle (Secure SDLC) emphasizes integrating security into:

a)

Only the Testing phase

b)

Every phase of software development

c)

Only the Requirements gathering

d)

Only the Deployment phase

23.

Which of the following describes software assurance best practices?

a)

Adding security controls only after deployment

b)

Ensuring security from initial design through final disposal of software

c)

Performing security tests exclusively during user acceptance testing

d)

Using automated testing exclusively after coding

24.

What is the primary benefit of selecting an appropriate SDLC model for a specific project?

a)

It guarantees zero vulnerabilities in the final product

b)

It reduces the need for testing

c)

It fits the specific workflow and project needs effectively

d)

It eliminates the need for ongoing maintenance

25.

The phase in the SDLC focused on patching, updating, and supporting the software after deployment is known as:

a)

Design

b)

Requirements

c)

Operations and Maintenance

d)

Testing

26.

Which SDLC phase involves formally verifying software functionality with stakeholders and end-users?

a)

Requirements definition

b)

User Acceptance Testing (UAT)

c)

Operations and Maintenance

d)

End of Life/Decommissioning

27.

During which phase of the SDLC would secure coding practices and unit testing typically occur?

a)

Planning

b)

Coding

c)

Requirements definition

d)

Deployment

28.

The process of systematically retiring software at the end of its useful life to ensure security and data protection is referred to as:

a)

Software Assurance

b)

End of Life (EOL)/Decommissioning

c)

Static Application Security Testing

d)

Continuous integration

29.

Continuous integration (CI) within software assurance practices primarily ensures:

a)

Security checks are performed only after production

b)

Code is regularly merged and tested automatically

c)

Development and operations teams remain separate

d)

Manual testing replaces automated testing

30.

A DevSecOps approach ensures:

a)

Developers handle all security concerns independently

b)

Security is treated as a separate team and added after deployment

c)

Security responsibilities are shared throughout development and operations

d)

Operations teams have exclusive control over security measures

31.

Which secure coding practice effectively prevents injection vulnerabilities?

a)

Parameterized queries

b)

Frequent software updates

c)

Encrypting data at rest

d)

Sandboxing applications

32.

Which organization provides widely-used proactive security controls and secure coding guidelines?

a)

NIST

b)

OWASP

c)

IEEE

d)

ISO

33.

SQL Injection attacks typically exploit weaknesses related to:

a)

Unpatched operating systems

b)

Poor input validation

c)

Unencrypted communication channels

d)

Insufficient user authentication

34.

Which type of injection vulnerability involves executing unexpected commands directly on the host system?

a)

SQL injection

b)

Command injection

c)

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

d)

LDAP injection

35.

Cross-site scripting (XSS) primarily targets which aspect of a web application?

a)

Database queries

b)

Authentication credentials

c)

User input fields

d)

Server-side session tokens

36.

What security principle involves validating user input against explicitly permitted values?

a)

Deny listing

b)

Allow listing

c)

Encryption

d)

Encoding

37.

An attacker submits code to a web application that executes additional unintended queries. This is an example of:

a)

Parameter pollution

b)

Session hijacking

c)

SQL injection

d)

Cross-site request forgery

38.

Which type of injection attack involves tricking a web application into requesting malicious resources from internal services?

a)

Command injection

b)

Server-side request forgery (SSRF)

c)

Blind SQL injection

d)

Stored XSS

39.

Dynamic code analysis differs from static analysis in that dynamic analysis:

a)

Reviews source code without execution

b)

Analyzes code only after deployment

c)

Requires code execution with various inputs

d)

Detects logical errors by manual code review

40.

Which secure coding practice reduces the risk of exposing sensitive application details during an error condition?

a)

Detailed error logging

b)

Generic error messaging and handling exceptions securely

c)

Displaying error details in user interfaces

d)

Using encryption during data transmission

41.

Which attack involves stealing an authenticated user's session cookie to impersonate their session?

a)

Cross-site scripting

b)

SQL injection

c)

Session hijacking

d)

Buffer overflow

42.

An attack exploiting URLs containing parameters to gain unauthorized access to data is known as:

a)

Directory traversal

b)

Command injection

c)

Insecure direct object references

d)

Blind SQL injection

43.

What type of attack exploits a user's trust by embedding malicious code into a legitimate website to execute in another user's browser?

a)

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

b)

Directory traversal

c)

Command injection

d)

Denial of Service (DoS)

44.

A vulnerability that allows users to access files or directories stored outside the web application's intended directory is called:

a)

SQL injection

b)

Directory traversal

c)

Cross-site request forgery

d)

Privilege escalation

45.

Which of the following attacks tricks an authenticated user into executing unwanted commands against a web application they trust?

a)

Server-side request forgery (SSRF)

b)

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)

c)

Command injection

d)

Buffer overflow

46.

Which attack occurs when users are unknowingly redirected from a legitimate site to a malicious one due to improperly validated URL redirection?

a)

Privilege escalation

b)

Unvalidated redirects

c)

Cross-site scripting

d)

Session replay

47.

Privilege escalation attacks are primarily designed to:

a)

Execute malicious scripts in a user's browser

b)

Increase the attacker’s permissions on the target system

c)

Redirect legitimate web traffic to malicious sites

d)

Cause denial of service in web servers

48.

Stored (Persistent) XSS differs from Reflected XSS attacks because Stored XSS attacks:

a)

Inject scripts that execute immediately and do not persist

b)

Embed malicious code that remains on a server indefinitely

c)

Depend on real-time user interaction to activate

d)

Target server-side resources directly

49.

Which type of vulnerability would allow an attacker to remotely execute files from a malicious external server?

a)

Local file inclusion

b)

Remote file inclusion

c)

Command injection

d)

Directory traversal

50.

An attacker observes network traffic, captures session tokens, and later uses them to gain unauthorized access. This describes a:

a)

Buffer overflow

b)

SQL injection

c)

Session replay attack

d)

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)

51.

What security control validates user inputs against explicitly allowed characters or values?

a)

Parameterization

b)

Allow listing

c)

Sandboxing

d)

Deny listing

52.

What coding practice involves isolating applications to limit their interactions with other system resources?

a)

Parameterized queries

b)

Input validation

c)

Sandboxing

d)

Secure cookies

53.

Which coding practice involves cryptographically verifying that software updates originate from legitimate developers?

a)

Code reuse

b)

Code signing

c)

Code obfuscation

d)

Static analysis

54.

Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) primarily protect web applications by:

a)

Encrypting all web traffic

b)

Monitoring and filtering malicious HTTP traffic

c)

Automating code deployment

d)

Performing code signing

55.

Which automated practice involves frequently integrating and testing code changes to detect issues early in the development cycle?

a)

Continuous Integration (CI)

b)

Sandboxing

c)

Code signing

d)

Allow listing

56.

Automated orchestration benefits application security primarily by:

a)

Reducing reliance on manual processes and improving consistency

b)

Eliminating the need for code signing

c)

Replacing the role of security teams entirely

d)

Removing the necessity for input validation

57.

Which secure coding practice helps prevent SQL injection vulnerabilities by separating executable statements from user input?

a)

Dynamic analysis

b)

Parameterized queries

c)

Sandboxing

d)

Static analysis

58.

One potential drawback of automation and orchestration in security operations is:

a)

Reduced reaction time to incidents

b)

Increased complexity and technical debt

c)

Elimination of all security vulnerabilities

d)

Decreased ability to scale securely

59.

Which practice ensures developers regularly check code into a shared repository, triggering automatic tests?

a)

Continuous Deployment (CD)

b)

Parameter pollution

c)

Continuous Integration (CI)

d)

Static code analysis

60.

Implementing digital identity, validating inputs, and enforcing access controls are examples of practices recommended by:

a)

ISO 27001

b)

NIST SP 800-53

c)

OWASP Proactive Controls

d)

ITIL Framework

61.

Which component of AAA ensures users prove their identity before accessing system resources?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Administration

62.

A security administrator restricts user access based on job roles. This is an example of:

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Auditing

63.

Tracking user activities and maintaining detailed logs to provide audit trails is primarily the role of:

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Accounting

d)

Access Control

64.

Which protocol provides all three components—authentication, authorization, and accounting—within one integrated framework?

a)

LDAP

b)

RADIUS

c)

Kerberos

d)

SAML

65.

Which of the following is the BEST example of authorization?

a)

Using multi-factor authentication to verify user identity

b)

Allowing only HR employees to access payroll data

c)

Logging user activities for future audits

d)

Encrypting sensitive data during transmission

66.

Ensuring data is not altered in transit or at rest aligns with which aspect of the CIA triad?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Accountability

67.

Encrypting sensitive data primarily addresses which part of the CIA triad?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authorization

68.

Ensuring critical systems remain operational and accessible when needed is an example of protecting:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

69.

A security breach that results in unauthorized disclosure of customer data most directly affects:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

70.

Implementing redundancy and fault-tolerance mechanisms primarily supports which security goal?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Accountability

71.

Non-repudiation ensures that:

a)

Users cannot deny actions they performed

b)

Users have unique logins for system access

c)

Unauthorized users cannot access data

d)

All transactions are encrypted in transit

72.

A gap analysis primarily involves:

a)

Evaluating security measures against industry standards to find deficiencies

b)

Encrypting sensitive data to ensure confidentiality

c)

Testing application code to find vulnerabilities

d)

Authenticating users before granting network access

73.

Which security model operates under the assumption that no internal or external entity should automatically be trusted?

a)

AAA Model

b)

Zero Trust Model

c)

Defense-in-depth

d)

CIA Triad

74.

Requiring employees to use RFID badges for building access is an example of:

a)

Logical security

b)

Physical security

c)

Administrative control

d)

Software assurance

75.

Which practice would best support non-repudiation in an e-commerce system?

a)

Frequent backups of transaction data

b)

Digital signatures on transactions

c)

Multi-factor authentication

d)

Secure storage of passwords

76.

After conducting a gap analysis, the next step an organization should take is:

a)

Immediately replace existing security controls

b)

Ignore findings to reduce operational costs

c)

Prioritize identified deficiencies for remediation

d)

Encrypt all sensitive data immediately

77.

In a Zero Trust architecture, access control decisions are made based primarily on:

a)

Trust level determined by network location

b)

Continual verification of user identity and device posture

c)

A single verification upon user login

d)

Physical location of devices within the building

78.

Implementing biometric access control at a data center entrance directly improves:

a)

Logical authentication processes

b)

Physical security

c)

Data encryption

d)

Non-repudiation of transactions

79.

A security control that records video footage of all entry and exit points primarily supports:

a)

Integrity

b)

Availability

c)

Non-repudiation

d)

Confidentiality

80.

Zero Trust security frameworks typically:

a)

Allow trusted users full access to resources without further checks

b)

Continuously validate access regardless of user location or device

c)

Require physical authentication at every entry door

d)

Depend exclusively on firewall perimeter security