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Bio 206 CH:12

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who formulated the central dogma of molecular genetics in 1958?

a)

James Watson

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Gregor Mendel

2.

What is the role of transcription in molecular genetics?

a)

Produces a DNA copy of a gene

b)

Produces an RNA copy of a gene

c)

Produces a polypeptide using mRNA

d)

Stores information in units called genes

3.

What does messenger RNA (mRNA) do?

a)

Stores information in units called genes

b)

Becomes part of a functional protein

c)

A temporary copy of a gene that contains information to make a polypeptide

d)

Produces a polypeptide using mRNA

4.

What is the function of translation in the central dogma?

a)

Produces a DNA copy of a gene

b)

Produces an RNA copy of a gene

c)

Produces a polypeptide using the information in mRNA

d)

Stores information in units called genes

5.

What is the primary function of Messenger RNA (mRNA)?

a)

To carry amino acids to ribosomes

b)

To encode the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

c)

To form the large and small ribosomal subunits

d)

To regulate mRNA stability and translation

6.

Which type of RNA helps form the large and small ribosomal subunits?

a)

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

b)

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

c)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

d)

MicroRNA (miRNA)

7.

What is the role of Transfer RNA (tRNA) in protein synthesis?

a)

To encode the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

b)

To carry amino acids to ribosomes and bind them to mRNA

c)

To form the large and small ribosomal subunits

d)

To regulate mRNA stability and translation

8.

Which type of RNA is involved in regulating mRNA stability and translation?

a)

Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

b)

MicroRNA (miRNA)

c)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

d)

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

9.

Where is Telomerase RNA located and what is its function?

a)

In the ribosome, forming subunits

b)

In the nucleoprotein complex, maintaining telomere length

c)

In the cytoplasm, carrying amino acids

d)

In the nucleus, encoding polypeptides

10.

What does a gene code for?

a)

Proteins

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Lipids

11.

What is the function of a structural gene?

a)

Codes for lipids

b)

Codes for mRNA

c)

Codes for DNA

d)

Codes for carbohydrates

12.

What does a nonstructural gene code for?

a)

mRNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Non-mRNA, such as rRNA

d)

Lipids

13.

What is the role of constitutive genes?

a)

Only active during cell division

b)

Always active

c)

Active only when needed

d)

Inactive in all cells

14.

What is the role of regulated genes?

a)

Always active

b)

Active only when needed

c)

Never active

d)

Active during cell death

15.

What is the role of RNA polymerase during transcription?

a)

It unwinds the DNA double helix.

b)

It synthesizes RNA from a DNA template.

c)

It adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the DNA.

d)

It terminates the transcription process.

16.

Where does the transcription process begin on the DNA strand?

a)

At the terminator.

b)

At the open complex.

c)

At the promoter.

d)

At the transcription bubble.

17.

What is formed at the end of the transcription process?

a)

A new DNA strand.

b)

A completed RNA transcript.

c)

A protein molecule.

d)

A transcription bubble.

18.

What is the sequence of the -10 promoter region in bacterial transcription?

a)

5’-TTGACA-3’

b)

5’-TATAAT-3’

c)

5’-ACAGTT-3’

d)

5’-GCCCAA-3’

19.

What is the sequence of the -35 promoter region in bacterial transcription?

a)

5’-TATAAT-3’

b)

5’-ACAGTT-3’

c)

5’-TTGACA-3’

d)

5’-GCCCAA-3’

20.

What are the components of the core enzyme of RNA Polymerase in bacteria?

a)

α, β, β', ω

b)

α, β, γ, δ

c)

α, β, β', σ

d)

α, β, δ, ω

21.

What additional component is required to form the holoenzyme from the core enzyme in bacterial transcription?

a)

δ (Delta)

b)

σ (Sigma)

c)

γ (Gamma)

d)

ε (Epsilon)

22.

What is the role of the σ factor in the initiation of transcription in bacteria?

a)

It binds to the promoter and forms a closed promoter complex.

b)

It separates the AT base-pairs of the -10 sequence.

c)

It synthesizes the RNA strand.

d)

It terminates the transcription process.

23.

What happens after the AT base-pairs of the -10 sequence separate during transcription initiation?

a)

The σ factor binds to the promoter.

b)

A short RNA strand is made.

c)

The transcription process is terminated.

d)

The RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA.

24.

What occurs when the σ factor is released during transcription initiation?

a)

The RNA polymerase forms a closed complex.

b)

The transcription process is terminated.

c)

Elongation begins with the RNA Pol core enzyme.

d)

The DNA strands re-anneal.

25.

What is the role of RNA polymerase during the elongation phase of transcription in bacteria?

a)

It unwinds DNA and uses the template strand to make the RNA transcript.

b)

It synthesizes proteins directly from DNA.

c)

It replicates the entire DNA strand.

d)

It degrades the RNA transcript.

26.

What happens to the DNA after RNA polymerase has passed during transcription?

a)

DNA rewinds behind RNA polymerase.

b)

DNA remains unwound permanently.

c)

DNA is degraded.

d)

DNA forms a double helix with RNA.

27.

What is the direction of chain growth during RNA transcription in bacteria?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

c)

2' to 4'

d)

1' to 3'

28.

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing RNA during transcription in bacteria?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Helicase

29.

During RNA transcription in bacteria, which nucleotide pairs with adenine (A) on the DNA template strand?

a)

Thymine (T)

b)

Cytosine (C)

c)

Uracil (U)

d)

Guanine (G)

30.

What role does a promoter play in bacterial transcription?

a)

It specifies the direction of transcription.

b)

It terminates the transcription process.

c)

It translates RNA into proteins.

d)

It replicates DNA strands.

31.

In bacterial transcription, what can some promoters do with regard to adjacent genes along a chromosome?

a)

Direct transcription in one direction or the opposite direction.

b)

Terminate transcription immediately.

c)

Translate RNA into proteins.

d)

Replicate DNA strands.

32.

What is the role of the ρ protein in the rho-dependent termination mechanism of transcription in bacteria?

a)

It initiates transcription.

b)

It binds to the rho utilization (rut) sequence and moves toward the 3' end of RNA.

c)

It synthesizes RNA.

d)

It degrades RNA.

33.

What causes RNA polymerase to pause during rho-dependent termination?

a)

The presence of a terminator protein.

b)

The formation of a stem-loop due to inverted repeats.

c)

The binding of a repressor protein.

d)

The degradation of RNA.

34.

How does the ρ protein facilitate the release of the RNA transcript in rho-dependent termination?

a)

By synthesizing new RNA.

b)

By binding to the promoter region.

c)

By its helicase activity, separating the RNA-DNA hybrid.

d)

By degrading the DNA template.

35.

What is the role of the rut sequence in mRNA during the Rho-dependent termination of transcription in bacteria?

a)

It serves as the recognition site for Rho protein.

b)

It initiates the transcription process.

c)

It binds to the DNA polymerase.

d)

It terminates the translation process.

36.

What happens when the Rho protein binds to the rut sequence in mRNA?

a)

It moves toward the 3' end of mRNA.

b)

It initiates DNA replication.

c)

It binds to the ribosome.

d)

It starts protein synthesis.

37.

What occurs when RNA polymerase pauses at the termination sequence during Rho-dependent termination?

a)

A stem-loop forms.

b)

DNA unwinds.

c)

Protein synthesis begins.

d)

mRNA is degraded.

38.

What is the final step in the Rho-dependent termination of transcription?

a)

Rho protein releases mRNA and RNA polymerase from DNA.

b)

DNA replication is initiated.

c)

mRNA is translated into protein.

d)

Rho protein binds to the ribosome.

39.

What causes RNA polymerase to pause during the rho-independent termination mechanism in bacteria?

a)

A-U base pairs

b)

Stem-loop region

c)

Poly-A tail

d)

Spacer sequence

40.

What happens to the A-U base pairs during the rho-independent termination mechanism?

a)

They strengthen the RNA-DNA hybrid

b)

They form a double helix

c)

They break, releasing the RNA transcript

d)

They cause the RNA polymerase to bind more tightly

41.

What is the role of the U-rich RNA sequence in the rho-independent termination mechanism?

a)

It strengthens the RNA-DNA hybrid

b)

It causes the RNA polymerase to pause

c)

It is unable to hold the RNA-DNA hybrid together, leading to termination

d)

It forms a double helix with the DNA

42.

What is the sequence found at the +1 position in the promoter region during transcription initiation in eukaryotes?

a)

TATA box

b)

Py₂CAPy₅

c)

DPE

d)

Enhancer

43.

What is the name of the sequence located at the -25 position in the promoter region?

a)

Py₂CAPy₅

b)

DPE

c)

TATA box

d)

Silencer

44.

Which RNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing mRNA, snRNA, miRNA, and telomerase RNA?

a)

RNA Polymerase I

b)

RNA Polymerase II

c)

RNA Polymerase III

d)

RNA Polymerase IV

45.

What is the role of TFIID in transcription?

a)

Binds to RNA polymerase I

b)

Binds to the TATA box and promotes its binding

c)

Acts as a DNA translocase

d)

Phosphorylates the CTD of RNA polymerase II

46.

Which transcription factor is involved in the formation or maintenance of the open complex?

a)

TFIID

b)

TFIIA

c)

TFIIF

d)

TFIIE

47.

What is the function of the mediator complex in transcription?

a)

Binds to the TATA box

b)

Phosphorylates RNA polymerase I

c)

Mediates the effects of regulatory transcription factors

d)

Acts as a DNA translocase

48.

Which RNA polymerase is associated with the production of tRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNA, miRNA, and siRNA?

a)

RNA Polymerase I

b)

RNA Polymerase II

c)

RNA Polymerase III

d)

RNA Polymerase IV

49.

What is the first step in the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes?

a)

RNA Pol II binds to the core promoter.

b)

TFIID binds to the TATA box and DPE.

c)

TFIIH acts as a helicase to form an open complex.

d)

Transcription begins.

50.

Which factor acts as a helicase to form an open complex during transcription initiation?

a)

TFIID

b)

RNA Pol II

c)

TFIIH

d)

GTFs

51.

What happens to the CTD of RNA Pol II during transcription initiation?

a)

It binds to the TATA box.

b)

It gets phosphorylated.

c)

It releases GTFs.

d)

It forms a closed complex.

52.

What is released after the CTD of RNA Pol II gets phosphorylated?

a)

TFIID

b)

RNA Pol II

c)

Mediator and GTFs

d)

TFIIH

53.

What is the role of RNA polymerase II in the transcription termination process in eukaryotes?

a)

It initiates transcription by binding to the promoter.

b)

It stabilizes the DNA double helix.

c)

It transcribes a gene past the polyadenylation signal sequence.

d)

It degrades RNA in a 3' to 5' direction.

54.

In the allosteric model of transcription termination, what causes RNA polymerase II to dissociate from the DNA?

a)

Binding of an exonuclease.

b)

Release of elongation factors or binding of termination factors.

c)

Cleavage of RNA at the promoter.

d)

Stabilization of the DNA double helix.

55.

What is the function of an exonuclease in the torpedo model of transcription termination?

a)

It binds to the 3' end of the DNA.

b)

It stabilizes RNA polymerase II.

c)

It degrades RNA in a 5' to 3' direction.

d)

It initiates transcription by binding to the promoter.

56.

What is the process called where a large RNA transcript is cleaved into smaller pieces, with one or more pieces becoming a functional RNA molecule?

a)

Splicing

b)

5' capping

c)

Processing

d)

Base modification

57.

Which RNA modification involves the cleavage and joining of RNA molecules, allowing an internal segment known as an intron to be removed?

a)

3' polyadenylation

b)

Splicing

c)

RNA editing

d)

Base modification

58.

What is the purpose of attaching a 7-methylguanosine cap (m7G) to the 5' end of mRNA?

a)

To increase RNA stability

b)

To assist in RNA splicing and ribosome binding

c)

To remove introns

d)

To add adenine nucleotides

59.

Which modification involves the addition of adenine-containing nucleotides to the 3' end of mRNA?

a)

5' capping

b)

Splicing

c)

3' polyadenylation

d)

RNA editing

60.

What is RNA editing?

a)

The addition of a methyl group to cytosine

b)

The change of the base sequence of an RNA after it has been transcribed

c)

The removal of introns

d)

The addition of a poly-A tail

61.

What are the three main processes involved in converting pre-mRNA to mature mRNA in eukaryotes?

a)

5' capping, RNA splicing, 3' polyadenylation

b)

Transcription, translation, replication

c)

DNA replication, RNA splicing, protein synthesis

d)

RNA editing, DNA repair, protein folding

62.

In prokaryotes, what process follows transcription?

a)

Translation

b)

RNA splicing

c)

DNA replication

d)

5' capping

63.

What is added to the 5' end of mRNA during 5' capping?

a)

7-methylguanosine

b)

Adenine

c)

Thymine

d)

Cytosine

64.

What is one of the functions of 5' capping in mRNA processing?

a)

Export to the cytoplasm

b)

DNA replication

c)

Protein degradation

d)

Lipid synthesis

65.

What is the role of exons in RNA splicing?

a)

Expressed sequence

b)

Intervening sequence

c)

Non-coding sequence

d)

Regulatory sequence

66.

What is the process called that involves the removal of introns and joining of exons?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Splicing

d)

Replication

67.

What is the role of snRNPs in RNA modification?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Splicing

d)

RNA degradation

68.

During the first transesterification in RNA splicing, which part of the branch point A attacks the 5' splice site?

a)

3' oxygen of exon 1

b)

2' oxygen of branch point A

c)

3' oxygen of intron

d)

5' oxygen of exon 2

69.

What structure is formed after the second transesterification in RNA splicing?

a)

Double helix

b)

Lariat

c)

Codon

d)

Anticodon

70.

What is the role of U1 snRNP in RNA splicing?

a)

Binds to the 5' splice site

b)

Binds to the branch site

c)

Binds to the 3' splice site

d)

Binds to exon 2

71.

Which snRNP binds to the branch site during RNA splicing?

a)

U1

b)

U2

c)

U4/U6

d)

U5

72.

What forms a lariat structure during RNA splicing?

a)

Exon 1

b)

Exon 2

c)

The intron

d)

U1 snRNP

73.

Which snRNPs are released after the 5' splice site is cut?

a)

U1 and U2

b)

U1 and U4

c)

U4 and U5

d)

U2 and U5

74.

What happens to the intron after splicing is complete?

a)

It is connected to exon 1

b)

It is connected to exon 2

c)

It forms a lariat and is degraded

d)

It remains in the RNA

75.

What is alternative splicing?

a)

The process of translating mRNA into proteins.

b)

The ability to produce different proteins from the same mRNA by splicing together different combinations of exons.

c)

The replication of DNA into RNA.

d)

The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.

76.

What does the process of alternative splicing allow?

a)

Production of identical proteins from different mRNAs.

b)

Production of different proteins from the same mRNA.

c)

Conversion of proteins back into mRNA.

d)

Replication of mRNA into DNA.

77.

What is the process called that allows a single gene to code for multiple proteins by including or excluding certain exons?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Alternative Splicing

d)

Replication

78.

In the context of RNA modification, what are the segments called that are retained in the final mRNA after splicing?

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

c)

Codons

d)

Anticodons

79.

Which type of exons are always included in the final mRNA regardless of the cell type?

a)

Constitutive exons

b)

Alternative exons

c)

Introns

d)

Codons

80.

What is the process called that allows a single gene to code for multiple proteins by including or excluding certain exons?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Alternative Splicing

d)

Replication

81.

In the context of IgM, what does the presence of Exon 5 in mRNA indicate?

a)

It codes for a secreted form of IgM

b)

It codes for a membrane-bound form of IgM

c)

It is not involved in IgM production

d)

It codes for a light chain of IgM

82.

Which part of the mRNA is responsible for coding the transmembrane anchor in IgM?

a)

Exon 3

b)

Exon 4

c)

Exon 5

d)

Exon 6

83.

What is the role of splicing factors in alternative splicing?

a)

They always increase the ability of the spliceosome to recognize splice sites.

b)

They may increase or decrease the ability of the spliceosome to recognize splice sites.

c)

They only decrease the ability of the spliceosome to recognize splice sites.

d)

They have no effect on the spliceosome's ability to recognize splice sites.

84.

What do splicing repressors bind to in RNA splicing?

a)

5' splice sites

b)

3' splice sites (exon included)

c)

3' splice sites (exon excluded)

d)

Both 5' and 3' splice sites

85.

What is the effect of splicing enhancers on splice sites?

a)

They bind to 3' splice sites only.

b)

They bind to 5' splice sites only.

c)

They bind to both 3' and 5' splice sites (exon included).

d)

They prevent the recognition of splice sites.

86.

What is the function of the polyA tail in RNA processing?

a)

It initiates transcription.

b)

It protects RNA from exonucleases.

c)

It degrades RNA.

d)

It removes introns.

87.

How many adenine nucleotides are typically added to form a polyA tail?

a)

≤ 100

b)

≤ 150

c)

≤ 200

d)

≤ 250

88.

Where does endonuclease cleavage occur in relation to the AAUAAA sequence?

a)

10 nucleotides upstream

b)

20 nucleotides downstream

c)

30 nucleotides upstream

d)

40 nucleotides downstream

89.

What is the role of the sigma (σ) factor in bacterial transcription initiation?

a)

It is needed for promoter recognition.

b)

It is involved in RNA splicing.

c)

It adds a 7-methyl-guanosine cap.

d)

It converts cytosine to uracil.

90.

Which component is involved in the elongation phase of transcription in archaea?

a)

Sigma (σ) factor

b)

TFE protein

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

Spliceosome

91.

In eukaryotes, what is the function of the mediator during transcription?

a)

It adds a PolyA tail.

b)

It controls the switch to the elongation phase.

c)

It is needed for promoter recognition.

d)

It converts cytosine to uracil.

92.

What is a common feature of RNA splicing in eukaryotes?

a)

It is rare and self-splicing.

b)

It occurs in protein-coding pre-mRNAs using a spliceosome.

c)

It does not occur.

d)

It involves the release of σ factor.

93.

How does termination of transcription occur in bacteria?

a)

Through the allosteric or torpedo model.

b)

By the release of σ factor.

c)

It is ρ-dependent or ρ-independent.

d)

By adding a 7-methyl-guanosine cap.

94.

What is the primary purpose of a Northern Blot?

a)

To detect specific DNA sequences

b)

To detect specific RNA sequences

c)

To detect specific protein sequences

d)

To detect specific lipid sequences

95.

In a Northern Blot, what is used to hybridize with the RNA on the membrane?

a)

A radioactive protein probe

b)

A radioactive lipid probe

c)

A radioactive nucleic acid probe

d)

A radioactive carbohydrate probe

96.

What type of gel is used in the initial separation of nucleic acids in a Northern Blot?

a)

Polyacrylamide gel

b)

Denaturing agarose gel

c)

Non-denaturing agarose gel

d)

Starch gel

97.

What is the purpose of adding transcriptional proteins to DNA in a band shift assay?

a)

To increase the length of the DNA

b)

To bind to promoter sequences and form a complex

c)

To degrade the DNA

d)

To change the DNA sequence

98.

What does slower migration in a band shift assay indicate?

a)

Lower molecular weight

b)

Higher molecular weight due to protein binding

c)

No change in molecular weight

d)

DNA degradation