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End of IB(DP)ESS Course

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

c)

climax community

d)

limiting factors

2.

How does energy enter an ecosystem?

a)

sunlight

b)

soil

c)

animals

3.

One characteristic feature of the tundra is that only the surface thaws in the summer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a permanently frozen subsoil. This characteristic is known as

a)

Hoarfrost

b)

Glaciation

c)

Permafrost

d)

Crystallization

4.

Which of the following processes removes carbon from the atmosphere?

a)

Plant Respiration

b)

Auto and factory emissions

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Animal Respiration

5.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

6.

How do lichens contribute to primary succession?

a)

Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants

b)

Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil

c)

Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria

d)

Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.

7.

What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?

a)

pioneer species

b)

soil

c)

climax community

d)

lichens

8.

Which catastrophic event will most likely have the effect of returning an ecosystem to primary succession?

a)

A tornado

b)

A volcanic eruption

c)

A flood

d)

A drought

9.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

10.

What term could be described as an equilibrium?

a)

pioneer species

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

climax community

11.

What best describes the term succession?

a)

rapid changes that create an ecosystem overnight

b)

gradual changes over time to fully create or restore and ecosystem

c)

forest with the tallest trees

d)

the rate species produce offspring

12.

In the context of IB ESS Topic 2, what is the role of a keystone species in an ecosystem?

a)

A) They are the most abundant species in the ecosystem

b)

B) They have a disproportionately large impact on their environment relative to their abundance

c)

C) They are the primary producers in the ecosystem

d)

D) They are the top predators in the ecosystem

13.

Which of the following is an example of a mutualistic relationship in an ecosystem?

a)

A) A lion hunting a zebra

b)

B) A bee pollinating a flower

c)

C) A parasite infecting a host

d)

D) A bird eating a worm

14.

In an ecosystem, what is the primary function of decomposers?

a)

A) To produce energy through photosynthesis

b)

B) To break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients

c)

C) To compete with primary consumers for food

d)

D) To provide shelter for small animals

15.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
16.

If farmers use a controlled burn to prevent forest fires, what would most likely be the first plants to return?

a)

trees

b)

shrubs

c)

mosses

d)

grasses

17.

Which of the following is the correct aquatic succession stages?

a)

Full ecosystem>trees>shrubs>fish and aquatic animals>plants> water only

b)

Water only>small plants and animals>sediment builds> pond fills with soil

c)

fire>grass>shrubs>trees

d)

bare rock>lichens>grasses>shrubs>trees

18.
An important abiotic factor in ALL ecosystems is the 
a)
ecology
b)
climate
c)
plants
d)
animals
19.
Autotrophs are organisms that
a)
rely on other organisms for their energy & food supply.
b)
consume plant & animal remains and other dead matter.
c)
use energy they take in from the environment to convert inorganic molecules to organic molecules.
d)
obtain energy by eating only plants.
20.
The total mass of living tissue at each trophic level can be shown in a(n)
a)
energy pyramid
b)
pyramid of numbers
c)
biomass pyramid
d)
biogeochemical cycle
21.
Why are food chains, such as the one shown, limited to 4-5 organisms?
a)
There are not more organisms in the ecosystem
b)
Organisms must share resources
c)
Energy transfers are inefficient
d)
They are only limited when organisms are living on land.
22.
According to the food web shown, what would occur if there were a drastic decrease in the squirrel population?
a)
There would be fewer vultures
b)
There would be more nuts and seeds.
c)
There would be fewer vultures & there would be more nuts and seeds.
d)
There would be more grass.
23.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
24.
To measure primary productivity, you can measure carbon dioxide consumption, total carbohydrates produced or ________________.
a)
dissolved oxygen
b)
total proteins produced
c)
light energy entering system
25.
All of the production by photosynthetic organisms in a defined area over a specified time period is known as
a)
Gross Productivity
b)
Net Productivity
c)
Photosynthesis + Respiration
d)
Photosynthesis - Respiration
26.
Which of the following is an appropriate unit of primary productivity
a)
kg/m2
b)
kg/m/day
c)
kJ/m2
d)
kg/m2/yr
27.
The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...
a)
Food and Water
b)
Rain and Sunlight
c)
Temperature and Oxygen
d)
Precipitation and Temperature 
28.

The rain forest soil is

a)

poor and rocky

b)

frozen soil

c)

thick and nutrient rich

d)

thin and nutrient poor

29.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

30.

__________ primary productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).

a)

Gross

b)

Total

c)

Net

d)

Secondary

31.

Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by

a)

Producer

b)

Parasite

c)

Consumer

d)

Decomposer

32.

The zone at the edge of a lake or ocean which is alternatively exposed to air and immersed in water is called

a)

Pelagic zone

b)

Benthic zone

c)

Littoral zone

d)

Lentic zone

33.

Which of the following leads to a decrease in biodiversity?

a)

introduction of invasive species

b)

prevention of erosion

c)

ecological land use planning

d)

pollution control

34.

The 3 different types of biodiversity (in IB ESS) are; 

a)

Genes, Species, Habitats

b)

Genes, Species, Ecosystems

c)

Species, Habitats, Communities

d)

Biosphere, Genes, Habitats

35.

Which letter represents amplitude? (a)  

Choose from the below words

A

B

C

D

E

36.

Which community has higher species evenness?

a)

Community A

b)

Community B

37.

Which biome is more likely to survive a change in the environment?

a)

High (rich) biodiversity

b)

Low (poor) biodiversity

38.

What is a benefit of in-situ conservation?

a)

It sustains natural environments.

b)

It prevents imminent extinction.

c)

It provides the potential for repopulation.

d)

It allows for the filtering of genetics.

39.

A solution to habitat fragmentation is

a)

building ecosystem ladders

b)

building more zoos

c)

building more islands

d)

building wildlife corridors

40.

Which of the following is a method used to measure biodiversity in an ecosystem?

a)

Quadrat sampling

b)

Carbon dating

c)

Radioactive tracing

d)

Genetic engineering

41.

Which of the following is a real-world application of biodiversity conservation?

a)

Creating wildlife corridors to connect fragmented habitats

b)

Using pesticides to eliminate invasive species

c)

Building dams to control water flow

d)

Introducing non-native species to increase diversity

42.

Which best explains why runoff is important?

a)

It returns water to other locations on Earth

b)

It increases the chance of flooding

c)

It makes evaporation occur faster

d)

It increases condensation

43.

Approximately what percentage of the water on Earth is freshwater?

a)

0.1%

b)

2.6%

c)

50%

d)

97%

44.

What type of pollution comes from cattle ranches that allow livestock to feed along streams

a)

Point

b)

Non-Point

45.

Which of the following is NOT a source of freshwater pollution?

a)

Runoff

b)

Sewage

c)

Industrial discharge

d)

Desalination

46.

Which of the following is a water conservation strategy?

a)

Using aerators to remove pollutants

b)

Drip irrigation and timed showers

c)

Introducing artificial glaciers

d)

Capture fisheries

47.

What is the primary cause of ocean acidification?

a)

A) Increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide

b)

B) Overfishing

c)

C) Oil spills

d)

D) Plastic pollution

48.

In an experiment to measure the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following variables would be most appropriate to manipulate?

a)

A) The concentration of carbon dioxide

b)

B) The amount of oxygen in the air

c)

C) The type of soil used

d)

D) The size of the plant leaves

49.

What is a species?

a)

a group of organisms of the same species living in the same area

b)

a group of similar organisms that can produce offspring

c)

the place where organisms live and provides food, shelter, and other resources an organism needs to survive

d)

all the different organisms living in an area

50.

What is the difference between detritivores and decomposers?

a)

decomposers break down dead material into smaller compounds and detritivores eat dead animals for food

b)

detritivores break down dead material into smaller compounds and decomposers eat dead animals for food

c)

decomposers are animals that eat plants; detritivores are animals that eat other animals

d)

decomposers are producers; detritivores are consumers

51.

What is a carrying capacity?

a)

competition between members of the same species

b)

the maximum population size of a species that can live in a specific environment

c)

competition between members of the different species

d)

resources that limit the growth of a population

52.

What is commensalism?

a)

a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit

b)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

c)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and one benefits

d)

an ecological relationship in which one organism eats another

53.

What is mutualism?

a)

a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit

b)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

c)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and one benefits

d)

an ecological relationship in which one organism eats another

54.

What is predation?

a)

a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit

b)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

c)

a symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and one benefits

d)

an ecological relationship in which one organism eats another

55.

What is a keystone species?

a)

a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause

b)

a species selected for making conservation-related decisions, typically because protecting these species indirectly protects the many other species that make up the ecological community of its habitat

c)

a species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically

56.

What is a flagship or 'charismatic' species?

a)

a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause

b)

a species selected for making conservation-related decisions, typically because protecting these species indirectly protects the many other species that make up the ecological community of its habitat

c)

a species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically

57.

What is an umbrella species?

a)

a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause

b)

a species selected for making conservation-related decisions, typically because protecting these species indirectly protects the many other species that make up the ecological community of its habitat

c)

a species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically

58.

Layer of reactive gas at 20-30km above the Earth (15-20km at the poles) absorbing UV radiation

a)

Greenhouse Gases

b)

Troposphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Ozone Layer

59.

Which agreement allowed for a reduction, and eventual elimination, of CFC production and use?

a)

Montreal Protoccol

b)

Kyoto Protoccol

c)

Paris Agreement

d)

Minamata convention

60.

Location of the large whole in the ozone.

a)

Antarctica

b)

Artic

c)

Iceland

d)

Africa

61.

How do CFCs affect ozone production?

a)

UV radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

b)

Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

c)

UV radiation frees a fluorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

d)

Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks down ozone.

62.

The main gas component of the current atmosphere is

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Argon

e)

Water vapour

63.

What is a secondary pollutant?

a)

A pollutant which has undergone a physical or chemical change

b)

A pollutant which has been emitted from a direct source

c)

A pollutant which has a direct effect on emission

d)

A pollutant which affects producers

64.

What is a primary pollutant?

a)

A pollutant which has undergone a physical or chemical change

b)

A pollutant which has been emitted from a direct source

c)

A pollutant which has a direct effect on emission

d)

A pollutant which affects producers

65.

What has the highest albedo?

a)

the oceans

b)

Ice in the Arctic or Antarctic

c)

the ground

d)

roads

66.

 Layer we live in and breathe


​ ​ ​ ​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Troposphere
Stratosphere
Mesosphere
Thermosphere
Exosphere
67.
What percentage of the earth's atmosphere is oxygen?
a)
78%
b)
28%
c)
71%
d)
21%
68.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
69.

How many oxygen atoms does a molecule of ozone contain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

70.

Which are effects of UV radiation on living organisms? select ALL that are true.

a)

It can cause cataracts.

b)

It can cause mutation in DNA.

c)

It can disrupt food chains by causing harm to photosynthetic organisms.

d)

It can cause organisms to overheat.

71.

Bad ozone (tropospheric) disrupts photosynthesis which can effect primary producers including phytoplankton.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Using solar and wind power help reduce acid rain

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Smog or ground ozone forms in the troposphere. Which pollutants are most responsible for photochemical smog or ground ozone?

a)

sulfur and particulate matter

b)

volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and nitrogen oxides

c)

carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

d)

none of these answers are correct

74.

The carbon dioxide released in 1980 was equal to 19.48 gigatons, while 33.31 were released in 2010. Calculate the percent increase of CO2 from 1980 to 2010

a)

1.71%

b)

71.00%

c)

58.48%

d)

41.9%

75.

Which is NOT a benefit of wind energy?

a)

low or no emissions

b)

requires small or reduced land use

c)

low operational and maintenance costs

d)

renewable source of power

76.

What statement about solar energy is true?

a)

requires a small amount of space

b)

it is not considered expensive to setup or maintian

c)

there are no harmful metals or gases used during manufacturing of solar panels

d)

solar energy can be intermittent (not consistent)

77.

Which method of energy can be affected by drought?

a)

Wind

b)

Hydropower

c)

Biofuels

d)

Nuclear

78.

Which of the following substances is fuel used in nuclear power plants?

a)

peat

b)

wood

c)

uranium

d)

coal

79.

What is the accurate definition of climate change mitigation?

a)

The efforts to reduce or prevent the expected effects of climatic change

b)

The efforts to reduce or prevent build-up of GHGs in the atmosphere

c)

The efforts to reduce or prevent Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

The efforts to reduce or prevent CFC in the atmosphere

80.

Which is not true about geothermal energy?

a)

minimal environmental impact

b)

low start-up costs

c)

very efficient production of energy

d)

geothermal reservoirs are naturally replenished

81.

Erosion is a process where

a)

organic matter is broken down into smaller parts, usually by living organisms

b)

rock is broken down into soil and small grains

c)

soluble nutrients and minerals are drained from soil through water action

d)

soil/rock is moved from one surface to another by wind/water/glaciers

82.

In which horizon is most of the HUMUS?

a)

Horizon A

b)

Horizon B

c)

Horizon C

d)

Horizon D or R

83.

When would a groundwater aquifer become unsustainable?

a)

When more water is extracted than is replenished

b)

When the zone of replenishment is higher than the extraction point

c)

When more water is replenished than is extracted

d)

When the groundwater becomes lower than the well head

84.

Agriculture uses a large amount of water, but which crop uses the most water to produce 1 kg of food?

a)

wheat

b)

rice

c)

beef

d)

chicken

85.

Agriculture uses a large amount of water, but which crop uses the most water to produce 1 kg of food?

a)

wheat

b)

rice

c)

beef

d)

chicken

86.

Water security is...

a)

the safe water being available to some of the population

b)

the capacity of a population to safeguard sustainable access to adequate quantities of safe water for life

c)

having water supplies available without conflict

d)

the capacity of a population to supply themselves with adequate water economically and politically to be able to develop

87.

What is the primary focus of IB ESS Topic 8 in terms of environmental science?

a)

A) Biodiversity and conservation

b)

B) Human systems and resource use

c)

C) Climate change and energy

d)

D) Pollution management

88.

In the context of IB ESS Topic 8, which of the following best describes the concept of 'ecological footprint'?

a)

A) The total area of land and water needed to produce the resources consumed and to assimilate the wastes generated by a population

b)

B) The amount of carbon dioxide emissions produced by an individual or group

c)

C) The diversity of species within a given ecosystem

d)

D) The rate at which renewable resources are replenished

89.

Which of the following is a key concept in understanding human population dynamics as discussed in IB ESS Topic 8?

a)

A) Carrying capacity

b)

B) Photosynthesis

c)

C) Plate tectonics

d)

D) Electromagnetic spectrum

90.

Eutrophication is:

a)

the decrease in oxygen content of water due to an explosion of decomposers

b)

an important energy flow in the nitrogen cycle

c)

a process used to purify water

d)

the gradual improvement of water quality in lakes and rivers

91.

Biochemical oxygen demand is measured in

a)

percent (%)

b)

parts per billion (ppb)

c)

milligrams per liter (mg/L)

d)

grams per liter (g/L)

92.

An example of 'Altering human activity that produces the pollution' to prevent eutrophication of water bodies is

a)

Banning the use of phosphate based detergents

b)

Replace chemical fertilizer with organic matter (i.e. compost)

c)

Treat runoff to remove nutrients before it enters the water body

d)

Pump air through the water body to increase dissolved oxygen levels.

93.

Two different factories release effluent into different initially clean rivers.:Factory A adds 3000 L per day with a BOD of 10 mg per LFactory B adds 1200 L per day with a BOD of 20 mg per LWhich statement correctly explains which factory is adding the most pollution resulting in the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)?

a)

Factory A because it adds more pollution per day

b)

Neither, because the river takes it away, so preventing the pollution from increasing.

c)

Factory A because it adds more volume

d)

Factory B because the effluent has a higher BOD

94.

An example of 'Clean up and restoration' to deal with eutrophication is

a)

Pump air through the water body to increase dissolved oxygen levels.

b)

Banning the use of phosphate based detergents.

c)

Plant buffer zones between the fields and water courses to absorb the excess nutrients.

d)

Treat runoff to remove nutrients before it enters the water body.

95.

In the context of environmental systems, what does the term 'resilience' refer to?

a)

The ability of an ecosystem to resist changes

b)

The speed at which an ecosystem recovers from disturbance

c)

The diversity of species within an ecosystem

d)

The productivity of an ecosystem

96.

Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback mechanism in climate change?

a)

Increased cloud cover reflecting sunlight

b)

Melting ice reducing albedo and increasing absorption of heat

c)

Increased plant growth absorbing more CO2

d)

Ocean currents redistributing heat

97.

Which of the following is a primary factor contributing to the urban heat island effect?

a)

Increased vegetation

b)

High albedo surfaces

c)

Concentration of buildings and infrastructure

d)

Proximity to water bodies

98.

soil storages include (select all that apply)

a)

leaching

b)

water

c)

nutrients

d)

air

e)

organisms

99.
In which answer choice are the soil particles arranged in order from LARGEST to SMALLEST?
a)
Silt, sand, clay
b)
Silt, clay, sand
c)
Clay, silt, sand
d)
Sand, silt, clay
100.

Demand for freshwater is increasing, which if these factors IS NOT causing this increase?

a)

industrialisation

b)

fishing technology advancement

c)

human population increase

d)

irrigation of agriculture