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WorksheetsAP Psych Unit 2 Vocab
Total questions: 158
Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What term describes the illusion that a stationary object is moving?
a)
apparent movement
b)
attention
c)
cognition
d)
perception
e)
schema
2.
What cognitive process involves focusing on specific stimuli while ignoring others?
a)
attention
b)
change blindness
c)
top-down processing
d)
schema
e)
perceptual constancy
3.
What type of depth cues require both eyes to perceive depth?
a)
binocular depth cues
b)
monocular depth cues
c)
linear perspective
d)
texture gradient
e)
relative clarity
4.
What kind of processing begins with sensory input and builds up to perception?
a)
bottom-up processing
b)
top-down processing
c)
selective attention
d)
schema
e)
perception
5.
What term refers to the failure to notice a change in a visual stimulus?
a)
change blindness
b)
inattentional blindness
c)
closure
d)
grouping
e)
context
6.
Which Gestalt principle involves seeing complete figures even when part of the information is missing?
a)
closure
b)
similarity
c)
proximity
d)
interposition
e)
context
7.
What phenomenon describes the ability to focus on one voice in a noisy environment?
a)
cocktail party effect
b)
selective inattention
c)
relative clarity
d)
schema
e)
convergence
8.
What is the term for all mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, and remembering?
a)
cognition
b)
attention
c)
perception
d)
perceptual set
e)
closure
9.
Which factor involves the situation or environment that can affect perception?
a)
context
b)
expectations
c)
schema
d)
proximity
e)
visual perceptual processes
10.
Which binocular cue involves the inward movement of the eyes to focus on close objects?
a)
convergence
b)
retinal disparity
c)
linear perspective
d)
texture gradient
e)
relative size
11.
What influences perception based on norms and traditions in society?
a)
cultural expectations
b)
schema
c)
proximity
d)
perception
e)
top-down processing
12.
What allows us to judge distance and perceive the world in 3D?
a)
depth perception
b)
interposition
c)
inattentional blindness
d)
perception
e)
relative clarity
13.
What mental set can influence what we perceive?
a)
expectations
b)
proximity
c)
linear perspective
d)
texture gradient
e)
perceptual set
14.
What provides input from the environment to our senses?
a)
external sensory information
b)
internal prior expectations
c)
schema
d)
selective inattention
e)
grouping
15.
What describes our tendency to separate objects from their background?
a)
figure-and-ground perception
b)
depth perception
c)
perceptual constancy
d)
closure
e)
retinal disparity
16.
Which psychology school emphasizes that the whole is different from the sum of its parts?
a)
Gestalt psychology
b)
cognitive psychology
c)
perceptual set
d)
grouping
e)
schema
17.
What Gestalt principle explains how we organize stimuli into coherent groups?
a)
grouping
b)
perceptual constancy
c)
interposition
d)
context
e)
relative size
18.
What is the failure to notice an unexpected stimulus in plain sight called?
a)
inattentional blindness
b)
change blindness
c)
external sensory information
d)
perceptual set
e)
similarity
19.
What refers to how past experiences affect current perception?
a)
internal prior expectations
b)
linear perspective
c)
perceptual constancy
d)
attention
e)
proximity
20.
Which monocular cue involves one object blocking another to imply depth?
a)
interposition
b)
texture gradient
c)
similarity
d)
perceptual set
e)
schema
21.
What depth cue involves parallel lines appearing to converge with distance?
a)
linear perspective
b)
proximity
c)
interposition
d)
relative clarity
e)
selective attention
22.
What type of depth cues can be perceived with one eye?
a)
monocular depth cues
b)
binocular depth cues
c)
retinal disparity
d)
schema
e)
attention
23.
What is the process of interpreting sensory information from our environment?
a)
perception
b)
cognition
c)
perceptual set
d)
closure
e)
texture gradient
24.
What term describes perceiving objects as constant even when sensory input changes?
a)
perceptual constancy
b)
schema
c)
proximity
d)
visual perceptual processes
e)
retinal disparity
25.
What is the mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another?
a)
perceptual set
b)
change blindness
c)
selective attention
d)
depth perception
e)
perceptual constancy
26.
What Gestalt principle groups nearby objects together?
a)
proximity
b)
similarity
c)
texture gradient
d)
top-down processing
e)
convergence
27.
What monocular cue suggests that hazy objects are farther away?
a)
relative clarity
b)
relative size
c)
grouping
d)
interposition
e)
schema
28.
What cue helps us perceive smaller objects as farther away?
a)
relative size
b)
retinal disparity
c)
closure
d)
schema
e)
cultural expectations
29.
What binocular cue comes from the slightly different views of each eye?
a)
retinal disparity
b)
linear perspective
c)
texture gradient
d)
grouping
e)
perception
30.
What cognitive framework helps organize and interpret information?
a)
schema
b)
perceptual constancy
c)
context
d)
similarity
e)
monocular depth cues
31.
What is the term for focusing conscious awareness on a specific stimulus?
a)
selective attention
b)
selective inattention
c)
inattentional blindness
d)
top-down processing
e)
closure
32.
What describes ignoring some stimuli while attending to others?
a)
selective inattention
b)
selective attention
c)
expectations
d)
perceptual set
e)
external sensory information
33.
What Gestalt principle groups similar items together in perception?
a)
similarity
b)
proximity
c)
interposition
d)
schema
e)
context
34.
What cue makes textures appear finer with increasing distance?
a)
texture gradient
b)
linear perspective
c)
similarity
d)
schema
e)
perceptual set
35.
What processing uses previous experience and expectations to interpret stimuli?
a)
top-down processing
b)
bottom-up processing
c)
selective inattention
d)
relative clarity
e)
schema
36.
What term describes how we organize and interpret visual stimuli?
a)
visual perceptual processes
b)
inattentional blindness
c)
linear perspective
d)
relative size
e)
schema
37.
What is the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus on near or far objects?
a)
accommodation
b)
assimilation
c)
algorithm
d)
availability heuristic
e)
priming
38.
What is a step-by-step procedure that guarantees a solution to a problem?
a)
algorithm
b)
heuristic
c)
accommodation
d)
mental set
e)
schema
39.
What term describes interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas?
a)
assimilation
b)
accommodation
c)
creativity
d)
decision-making
e)
prototype
40.
What heuristic involves estimating the likelihood of events based on how easily they come to mind?
a)
availability heuristic
b)
representativeness heuristic
c)
sunk-cost fallacy
d)
divergent thinking
e)
critical thinking
41.
What is a mental grouping of similar objects, events, or ideas?
a)
concept
b)
accommodation
c)
framing
d)
gambler's fallacy
e)
assimilation
42.
What type of thinking narrows the available solutions to determine the best one?
a)
convergent thinking
b)
divergent thinking
c)
critical thinking
d)
heuristic
e)
functional fixedness
43.
What term is defined as the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas?
a)
creativity
b)
algorithm
c)
concept
d)
assimilation
e)
executive functions
44.
What kind of thinking does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions but rather evaluates them?
a)
critical thinking
b)
gambler's fallacy
c)
concept
d)
schema
e)
priming
45.
What term refers to the process of making choices among alternatives?
a)
decision-making
b)
assimilation
c)
accommodation
d)
convergent thinking
e)
creativity
46.
What kind of thinking expands the number of possible solutions?
a)
divergent thinking
b)
convergent thinking
c)
availability heuristic
d)
executive functions
e)
functional fixedness
47.
What are higher-order cognitive processes involved in planning, decision-making, and regulation?
a)
executive functions
b)
heuristics
c)
priming
d)
concept
e)
sunk-cost fallacy
48.
What effect occurs when the way a question is presented influences decision-making?
a)
framing
b)
concept
c)
mental set
d)
accommodation
e)
schema
49.
What is the inability to see a new use for an object beyond its usual function?
a)
functional fixedness
b)
creativity
c)
priming
d)
divergent thinking
e)
prototype
50.
What is the mistaken belief that past random events affect future outcomes?
a)
gambler's fallacy
b)
heuristic
c)
availability heuristic
d)
critical thinking
e)
executive functions
51.
What are mental shortcuts that speed up decision-making but can lead to errors?
a)
heuristics
b)
algorithms
c)
creativity
d)
accommodation
e)
prototype
52.
What type of memory processing occurs without conscious effort?
a)
automatic processing
b)
effortful processing
c)
retrieval
d)
structural encoding
e)
echoic memory
53.
What component of working memory controls attention and coordinates information?
a)
central executive
b)
phonological loop
c)
semantic encoding
d)
procedural memory
e)
LTP
54.
What type of processing involves encoding based on meaning and deeper understanding?
a)
deep processing
b)
shallow processing
c)
phonemic encoding
d)
sensory memory
e)
iconic memory
55.
What type of sensory memory retains auditory information for a few seconds?
a)
echoic memory
b)
iconic memory
c)
procedural memory
d)
semantic memory
e)
STM
56.
What kind of memory processing requires conscious attention and effort?
a)
effortful processing
b)
automatic processing
c)
procedural memory
d)
LTM
e)
semantic encoding
57.
What is the process of getting information into memory?
a)
encoding
b)
retrieval
c)
storage
d)
attention
e)
central executive
58.
What part of the working memory model temporarily holds and combines information from various sources?
a)
episodic buffer
b)
visuospatial sketchpad
c)
phonological loop
d)
STM
e)
structural encoding
59.
What type of memory involves recollection of specific personal events?
a)
episodic memory
b)
semantic memory
c)
implicit memory
d)
procedural memory
e)
echoic memory
60.
What type of memory involves conscious recall of facts and events?
a)
explicit memory
b)
implicit memory
c)
phonological loop
d)
shallow processing
e)
echoic memory
61.
What type of sensory memory retains visual information for less than a second?
a)
iconic memory
b)
echoic memory
c)
STM
d)
deep processing
e)
semantic memory
62.
What type of memory involves unconscious skills and tasks like riding a bike?
a)
implicit memory
b)
explicit memory
c)
STM
d)
phonological loop
e)
prospective memory
63.
What model proposes that memory retention depends on the depth of processing?
a)
levels of processing model
b)
working memory model
c)
multi-store model
d)
LTP
e)
procedural memory
64.
What memory store has a theoretically unlimited capacity and can last indefinitely?
a)
long-term memory (LTM)
b)
STM
c)
sensory memory
d)
echoic memory
e)
shallow processing
65.
What term refers to the strengthening of synaptic connections through repeated use?
a)
long-term potentiation (LTP)
b)
working memory
c)
semantic memory
d)
phonemic encoding
e)
retrieval
66.
What is the general term for the system that encodes, stores, and retrieves information?
a)
memory
b)
encoding
c)
structural encoding
d)
semantic memory
e)
phonological loop
67.
What model of memory includes sensory memory, STM, and LTM as separate stores?
a)
multi-store model
b)
working memory model
c)
levels of processing
d)
deep processing
e)
semantic encoding
68.
What type of encoding focuses on how words sound?
a)
phonemic encoding
b)
semantic encoding
c)
structural encoding
d)
procedural memory
e)
echoic memory
69.
What component of working memory stores verbal and auditory information?
a)
phonological loop
b)
central executive
c)
visuospatial sketchpad
d)
deep processing
e)
episodic buffer
70.
What type of memory helps with performing tasks like tying shoes or driving?
a)
procedural memory
b)
semantic memory
c)
STM
d)
phonological loop
e)
echoic memory
71.
What is the memory for tasks or actions you intend to perform in the future?
a)
prospective memory
b)
episodic memory
c)
procedural memory
d)
echoic memory
e)
retrieval
72.
What is the process of accessing information stored in memory?
a)
retrieval
b)
encoding
c)
central executive
d)
deep processing
e)
phonological loop
73.
What type of encoding is based on the meaning of words?
a)
semantic encoding
b)
phonemic encoding
c)
structural encoding
d)
procedural memory
e)
STM
74.
What kind of memory involves facts and general knowledge?
a)
semantic memories
b)
procedural memory
c)
prospective memory
d)
echoic memory
e)
implicit memory
75.
What is the initial, brief recording of sensory information in memory?
a)
sensory memory
b)
STM
c)
LTM
d)
semantic encoding
e)
episodic memory
76.
What type of processing focuses on surface features like structure or appearance?
a)
shallow processing
b)
deep processing
c)
semantic encoding
d)
central executive
e)
phonological loop
77.
What type of memory holds information briefly for immediate use?
a)
short-term memory (STM)
b)
sensory memory
c)
deep processing
d)
prospective memory
e)
episodic buffer
78.
What is the process of retaining encoded information over time?
a)
storage
b)
encoding
c)
retrieval
d)
semantic encoding
e)
STM
79.
What type of encoding focuses on how a word looks or is written?
a)
structural encoding
b)
semantic encoding
c)
procedural memory
d)
echoic memory
e)
central executive
80.
What component of working memory handles visual and spatial information?
a)
visuospatial sketchpad
b)
phonological loop
c)
semantic encoding
d)
shallow processing
e)
episodic memory
81.
What term refers to the system that temporarily holds and manipulates information?
a)
working memory
b)
sensory memory
c)
episodic buffer
d)
semantic memory
e)
structural encoding
82.
What model explains how working memory is structured into components?
a)
working memory model
b)
multi-store model
c)
levels of processing
d)
long-term potentiation
e)
procedural memory
83.
hat type of test measures accumulated knowledge in a specific area?
a)
achievement tests
b)
aptitude tests
c)
intelligence test
d)
standardized tests
e)
stereotype threat
84.
What type of test is designed to predict a person’s future performance?
a)
aptitude tests
b)
achievement tests
c)
IQ test
d)
discrimination
e)
poverty
85.
What is the actual age of a person in years?
a)
chronological age
b)
mental age
c)
intelligence
d)
stereotype lift
e)
validity
86.
What type of validity refers to how well a test measures what it claims to measure?
a)
construct validity
b)
predictive validity
c)
reliability
d)
bias
e)
achievement test
87.
What term refers to unjust treatment of different categories of people or things?
a)
discrimination
b)
poverty
c)
growth mindset
d)
predictive validity
e)
fixed mindset
88.
What term refers to unfair differences in educational outcomes among different groups?
a)
educational inequities
b)
reliability
c)
IQ
d)
test-retest reliability
e)
stereotype lift
89.
What mindset believes intelligence and abilities cannot be changed?
a)
fixed mindset
b)
growth mindset
c)
aptitude tests
d)
construct validity
e)
stereotype threat
90.
What is the observed rise in average IQ scores over generations?
a)
Flynn effect
b)
stereotype lift
c)
achievement tests
d)
discrimination
e)
fixed mindset
91.
What mindset views abilities as improvable through effort and learning?
a)
growth mindset
b)
fixed mindset
c)
stereotype threat
d)
IQ
e)
bias
92.
What term refers to the ability to learn from experience and solve problems?
a)
intelligence
b)
achievement test
c)
personal bias
d)
standardized tests
e)
construct validity
93.
What is a numerical score derived from standardized intelligence testing?
a)
Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
b)
aptitude score
c)
test-retest reliability
d)
Flynn effect
e)
mental age
94.
What is a method used to assess an individual’s mental capabilities?
a)
intelligence test
b)
achievement test
c)
poverty
d)
Flynn effect
e)
bias
95.
What term refers to the age level at which an individual performs intellectually?
a)
mental age
b)
chronological age
c)
IQ
d)
aptitude tests
e)
test-retest reliability
96.
What refers to an individual's internal assumptions or preferences affecting fairness?
a)
personal bias
b)
discrimination
c)
stereotype threat
d)
systemic issue
e)
reliability
97.
What social condition is linked to reduced access to education and learning resources?
a)
poverty
b)
growth mindset
c)
aptitude tests
d)
predictive validity
e)
test-retest reliability
98.
What type of validity predicts future outcomes from current performance?
a)
predictive validity
b)
construct validity
c)
bias
d)
stereotype lift
e)
procedural memory
99.
What term describes core rules that guide the design and evaluation of psychological tests?
a)
psychometric principle
b)
construct validity
c)
achievement tests
d)
stereotype threat
e)
intelligence
100.
What refers to the consistency of a test in measuring what it’s intended to measure?
a)
reliability
b)
validity
c)
Flynn effect
d)
aptitude tests
e)
educational inequities
101.
What refers to tests that are culturally aware and relevant to diverse learners?
a)
socioculturally responsive
b)
stereotype threat
c)
fixed mindset
d)
construct validity
e)
psychometric principle
102.
What type of reliability is checked by comparing two halves of the same test?
a)
split-half reliability
b)
test-retest reliability
c)
validity
d)
intelligence
e)
stereotype lift
103.
What kind of tests are administered and scored the same way for all participants?
a)
standardized tests
b)
aptitude tests
c)
growth mindset
d)
reliability
e)
personal bias
104.
What phenomenon occurs when positive expectations about a group improve performance?
a)
stereotype lift
b)
stereotype threat
c)
discrimination
d)
fixed mindset
e)
test-retest reliability
105.
What is the risk of confirming a negative stereotype about one’s group?
a)
stereotype threat
b)
stereotype lift
c)
aptitude tests
d)
IQ
e)
predictive validity
106.
What term describes a structural problem in society that affects equal access or outcomes?
a)
systemic issue
b)
personal bias
c)
stereotype lift
d)
fixed mindset
e)
standardized tests
107.
What type of reliability measures how consistent a test is over time?
a)
test-retest reliability
b)
split-half reliability
c)
aptitude test
d)
IQ
e)
stereotype threat
108.
What term refers to how well a test measures what it intends to measure overall?
a)
validity
b)
reliability
c)
bias
d)
aptitude tests
e)
stereotype lift
109.
What term describes how memories can be influenced and altered during retrieval?
a)
constructive memory
b)
encoding failure
c)
repression
d)
tip-of-the-tongue
e)
memory consolidation
110.
What is the inability to recall information due to lack of proper encoding?
a)
encoding failure
b)
source amnesia
c)
proactive interference
d)
forgetting curve
e)
imagination inflation
111.
What describes Ebbinghaus’ pattern of rapid memory loss followed by a leveling off?
a)
forgetting curve
b)
misinformation effect
c)
repression
d)
retroactive interference
e)
encoding failure
112.
What phenomenon involves confusing imagined events with real memories?
a)
imagination inflation
b)
constructive memory
c)
source amnesia
d)
encoding failure
e)
TOT phenomenon
113.
What is the process by which the brain stabilizes and stores long-term memories?
a)
memory consolidation
b)
proactive interference
c)
retroactive interference
d)
repression
e)
imagination inflation
114.
What occurs when misleading information is incorporated into one’s memory of an event?
a)
misinformation effect
b)
repression
c)
TOT phenomenon
d)
constructive memory
e)
source amnesia
115.
What is it called when old information interferes with learning new information?
a)
proactive interference
b)
retroactive interference
c)
encoding failure
d)
forgetting curve
e)
imagination inflation
116.
What term describes the unconscious blocking of distressing memories?
a)
repression
b)
source amnesia
c)
constructive memory
d)
misinformation effect
e)
memory consolidation
117.
What is it called when new information interferes with the retrieval of old information?
a)
retroactive interference
b)
proactive interference
c)
encoding failure
d)
constructive memory
e)
repression
118.
What term refers to forgetting the origin of a memory while retaining the content?
a)
source amnesia
b)
misinformation effect
c)
imagination inflation
d)
encoding failure
e)
repression
119.
What phenomenon occurs when a person cannot fully recall a word but feels it's close?
a)
tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) phenomenon
b)
encoding failure
c)
repression
d)
memory consolidation
e)
proactive interference
120.
What type of memory is enhanced when recall occurs in the same environment as learning?
a)
context-dependent memory
b)
state-dependent memory
c)
mood-congruent memory
d)
recognition
e)
testing effect
121.
What is a stimulus that helps trigger the retrieval of a memory?
a)
memory cue
b)
repression
c)
encoding failure
d)
recognition
e)
metacognition
122.
What is the process of accessing information stored in memory?
a)
memory retrieval
b)
encoding
c)
constructive memory
d)
cue-dependent forgetting
e)
mood-congruent memory
123.
What is thinking about one's own thinking processes called?
a)
metacognition
b)
recall
c)
recognition
d)
memory cue
e)
testing effect
124.
What is the tendency to remember information consistent with one’s current emotional state?
a)
mood-congruent memory
b)
state-dependent memory
c)
context-dependent memory
d)
recognition
e)
memory consolidation
125.
What term refers to retrieving information without any cues, like answering an essay question?
a)
recall
b)
recognition
c)
encoding
d)
retrieval cue
e)
testing effect
126.
What memory process involves identifying previously learned information, like on a multiple-choice test?
a)
recognition
b)
recall
c)
repression
d)
mood-congruent memory
e)
testing effect
127.
What is a clue or trigger that helps access stored memories?
a)
retrieval cue
b)
encoding failure
c)
TOT phenomenon
d)
imagination inflation
e)
metacognition
128.
What type of memory is improved when a person's internal state at learning matches that at recall?
a)
state-dependent memory
b)
context-dependent memory
c)
repression
d)
recall
e)
recognition
129.
What effect describes improved memory after retrieving information rather than simply rereading it?
a)
testing effect
b)
recognition
c)
encoding failure
d)
memory cue
e)
metacognition
130.
What is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior?
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
amnesia
c)
retrograde amnesia
d)
sensory memory
e)
working memory
131.
What is the general term for the loss of memory?
a)
amnesia
b)
Alzheimer's disease
c)
long-term memory
d)
infantile amnesia
e)
anterograde amnesia
132.
What type of amnesia involves an inability to form new memories after the onset of amnesia?
a)
anterograde amnesia
b)
retrograde amnesia
c)
infantile amnesia
d)
Alzheimer's disease
e)
autobiographical memory
133.
What is the memory of personal experiences and events called?
a)
autobiographical memory
b)
long-term memory
c)
short-term memory
d)
infantile amnesia
e)
elaborative rehearsal
134.
What refers to the amount of information a system can hold or process at any given time?
a)
capacity
b)
content
c)
duration
d)
process
e)
maintenance rehearsal
135.
What refers to the specific information or data contained within a memory system?
a)
content
b)
capacity
c)
duration
d)
maintenance rehearsal
e)
retrograde amnesia
136.
What refers to how long a memory or information can be retained?
a)
duration
b)
capacity
c)
content
d)
maintenance rehearsal
e)
working memory
137.
What type of rehearsal involves adding meaning or associations to material in order to remember it?
a)
elaborative rehearsal
b)
maintenance rehearsal
c)
short-term memory
d)
sensory memory
e)
anterograde amnesia
138.
What condition involves an exceptional ability to recall personal events from one’s life?
a)
highly superior autobiographical memory
b)
autobiographical memory
c)
infantile amnesia
d)
Alzheimer's disease
e)
elaborative rehearsal
139.
What term refers to the inability to recall early childhood memories?
a)
infantile amnesia
b)
anterograde amnesia
c)
Alzheimer's disease
d)
retrograde amnesia
e)
autobiographical memory
140.
What type of memory involves storing information over extended periods?
a)
long-term memory
b)
short-term memory
c)
sensory memory
d)
working memory
e)
elaborative rehearsal
141.
What type of rehearsal involves repeating information over and over to keep it in working memory?
a)
maintenance rehearsal
b)
elaborative rehearsal
c)
anterograde amnesia
d)
retrograde amnesia
e)
short-term memory
142.
What is the process of keeping information in memory over time?
a)
memory storage process
b)
elaborative rehearsal
c)
maintenance rehearsal
d)
working memory
e)
sensory memory
143.
What type of amnesia involves losing memories of events that occurred before the onset of amnesia?
a)
retrograde amnesia
b)
anterograde amnesia
c)
Alzheimer's disease
d)
autobiographical memory
e)
infantile amnesia
144.
What type of memory lasts only a brief time and holds sensory impressions?
a)
sensory memory
b)
short-term memory
c)
long-term memory
d)
working memory
e)
maintenance rehearsal
145.
What type of memory holds information for a brief period, usually around 20-30 seconds?
a)
short-term memory
b)
sensory memory
c)
long-term memory
d)
working memory
e)
maintenance rehearsal
146.
What type of memory involves holding and processing information temporarily for cognitive tasks?
a)
working memory
b)
short-term memory
c)
sensory memory
d)
long-term memory
e)
elaborative rehearsal
147.
What term refers to organizing information into meaningful groups to aid memory?
a)
category
b)
chunking
c)
massed practice
d)
mnemonic devices
e)
spacing effect
148.
What memory technique involves breaking down information into smaller, more manageable units?
a)
chunking
b)
category
c)
distributed practice
d)
method of loci
e)
serial position effect
149.
What type of practice involves studying over a long period with rest intervals in between?
a)
distributed practice
b)
massed practice
c)
encoding hierarchy
d)
chunking
e)
recency effect
150.
What is the process of transforming sensory input into a form that can be stored in memory?
a)
encoding
b)
chunking
c)
method of loci
d)
serial position effect
e)
mnemonic devices
151.
What type of memory organization involves arranging information in a ranked or ordered system?
a)
hierarchy
b)
category
c)
chunking
d)
distributed practice
e)
mnemonic devices
152.
What type of practice involves cramming information all at once without breaks?
a)
massed practice
b)
distributed practice
c)
encoding hierarchy
d)
spacing effect
e)
recency effect
153.
What mnemonic technique involves associating information with visual images and locations?
a)
method of loci
b)
chunking
c)
primacy effect
d)
mnemonic devices
e)
recency effect
154.
What are tools or strategies used to improve memory retention?
a)
mnemonic devices
b)
massed practice
c)
category
d)
primacy effect
e)
spacing effect
155.
What effect describes the tendency to remember the first items in a list better than others?
a)
primacy effect
b)
recency effect
c)
serial position effect
d)
spacing effect
e)
chunking
156.
What effect describes the tendency to remember the most recent items in a list?
a)
recency effect
b)
primacy effect
c)
serial position effect
d)
spacing effect
e)
mnemonic devices
157.
What phenomenon refers to the combined influence of both the primacy and recency effects?
a)
serial position effect
b)
massed practice
c)
method of loci
d)
spacing effect
e)
mnemonic devices
158.
What effect suggests that spreading out study sessions over time improves long-term retention?
a)
spacing effect
b)
massed practice
c)
recency effect
d)
encoding hierarchy
e)
category
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