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FINAL_SSED_Theory

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If E = hc/lambda is the energy of incident photon and Eg is the energy band gap of solid state material then optical absorption will take place when

a)

2E = Eg

b)

E = 0

c)

E < Eg

d)

E >=Eg

e)

None of the above

2.

Luminescence is the phenomenon in which

a)

electrons are induced to drop down to energy states

b)

electrons are made free to accumulate at the surface

c)

electrons are excited to high energy levels by various methods of excitation and these drop to low energy states by producing photons

d)

holes-electrons are neutralized

3.

A photovoltaic metal absorbs a photon of yellow light and immediately emits an ultraviolet photon. This is called

a)

fluorescence

b)

electroluminescence

c)

phosphorescence.

d)

photoluminescence

4.

In LED, the process of emitting photons from a direct semiconductive material is called

a)

photoluminescence

b)

gallium arsenide

c)

electroluminescence

d)

gallium phosphide

5.

The rate of direct recombination in a semiconducting material is determined by

a)

The majority carrier lifetime, which in turn is determined by the minority carrier concentration at thermal equilibrium

b)

The majority carrier lifetime, which in turn is determined by the majority carrier concentration at thermal equilibrium.

c)

The minority carrier lifetime, which in turn is determined by the majority carrier concentration at thermal equilibrium.

d)

The minority carrier lifetime, which in turn is determined by the minority carrier concentration at thermal equilibrium

6.

GaAs is suitable for fabrication of light-emitting diodes because it is

a)

An indirect band gap semiconductor

b)

A direct band gap semiconductor

c)

A wide band gap semiconductor

d)

None of the above

7.

Si is not suitable for fabrication of light-emitting diodes because it is:

a)

An indirect band gap semiconductor

b)

A direct band gap semiconductor

c)

A wide band gap semiconductor

d)

None of the above

8.

Photoconductive effect means

a)

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction

b)

The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction

c)

The conversion of photonic energy to electromagnetic energy

d)

The conversion of an electromagnetic energy to photonic energy

9.

A photoconductive cell is basically a

a)

light emitting diode (LED)

b)

light dependent resistor

c)

photodiode

d)

photoelectric relay

10.

The resistance of an LDR __________ with increasing incident light intensity (assume that optical absorption exists).

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

becomes zero

e)

None of the above

11.

Which of the choices below is another name for a photoconductive cell?

a)

Varicap

b)

Varistor

c)

Photoresistive device

d)

Photodiode

12.

In a semiconductor, diffusion electron current density is ___________

a)

qDn(∂n/∂x)

b)

qDn(∂p/∂x)

c)

–qDp (∂p/∂x)

d)

–qDp (∂n/∂x)

e)

None of the above

13.

In a semiconductor, J, Jp and Jn indicate total diffusion current density hole current density and electron

current density respectively, ∂n/∂x and ∂p/∂x are the electron and hole concentration gradient respectively in x-direction and Dp and Dn are the hole and electron diffusion constants respectively. Which one of the following equations is correct?

a)

Jn = –qDn(∂n/∂x) for electrons

b)

Jp = –qDp(∂p/∂x) for holes

c)

J = –qDp (∂p/∂x) – qDn (∂n/∂x)

d)

None of the above

14.

The Einstein relationship between the diffusion constant Dn and mobility μn for electron is

a)

Dn/muy n = 2kT/q

b)

Dn/muy n = q/kT

c)

Dn/muy n = kT/q

d)

Dn/muy n = kT – Eg

15.

Diffusion constant for electron is ________ to hole

a)

Equal

b)

Greater than

c)

Lesser than

d)

Can’t be determined

16.

The continuity equation shows changes in carrier concentrations due to generation, ______, drift and diffusion

a)

photon emission

b)

recombination

c)

breakdown

d)

doping

17.

What is the continuity equation in words?

a)

Rate of increase = (inflow – outflow) + drift – diffusion

b)

Rate of increase = (inflow + outflow)

c)

Rate of increase = (inflow – outflow)

d)

Rate of increase = (inflow – outflow) + generation – recombination

e)

Rate of increase = (outflow + inflow) + generation – recombination

18.

Four major steps in a planr process: i) lithography, ii) metallization, iii) ion implanation or diffusion, and iv) oxidation. Order of these steps is

a)

i, ii, iii and iv

b)

ii, iii, i, and iv

c)

iii, i, ii, and iv

d)

iv, i, iii, and ii

e)

None of the above

19.

The first step in a planar process of fabrication of p-n junctions is

a)

metallization

b)

oxidation

c)

lithography

d)

ion implanation or diffusion

e)

None of the above

20.

The second step in a planar process of fabrication of p-n junctions is

a)

metallization

b)

oxidation

c)

lithography

d)

ion implanation or diffusion

e)

None of the above

21.

Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by

a)

Thermally generated electrons and holes

b)

Flow of drift current.

c)

Migration of minority carriers across the junction

d)

Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction.

22.

In a p-n junction, to make the depletion region extend prominently into p-region, the concentration of impurities in the p-region must be

a)

Much less than the concentration of impurities in n-region

b)

Much higher than the concentration of impurities in n-region

c)

Equal to the concentration of impurities in n-region

d)

zero

23.

In an unbiased p-n junction, the junction current at equilibrium is

a)

Due to diffusion of minority carriers only

b)

Due to diffusion of majority carriers only

c)

Zero, because equal and opposite drift and diffusion currents for electrons and holes cross the junction

d)

Zero, because no charges cross the junction

24.

In a step pn+ junction, WP is ____________WN

a)

less than

b)

much less than

c)

greater than

d)

much greater than

e)

equal to

25.

There are ______________ existed in a space charge region of an unbiased p-n junction.

a)

electrons and holes

b)

no electrons and holes

c)

positive ions and electrons

d)

no ions

26.

In a step p +n junction, the square of the width of the depletion region is:

a)

Directly proportional to doping in N

b)

Inversely proportional to doping in N

c)

Independent of doping in N

d)

None of the above

27.

The Fermi energy in p–n junction at thermal equilibrium is:

a)

Proportional to distance

b)

Directly increases with the temperature

c)

Invariant with respect to distance

d)

None of the above

28.

The forward current through a semiconductor diode circuit is due to

a)

Minority carriers

b)

Majority carriers

c)

Holes

d)

Electrons

29.

The depletion width of a pn junction _______ when the forward applied voltage increases.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

becomes zero

e)

None of the above

30.

A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature. When the temperature is increased, the forward bias voltage across the PN junction _______________.

a)

remains the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

None of the above

31.

When diode is in forward bias its depletion region gets

a)

larger

b)

narrowed

c)

positive charges

d)

negative charges

32.

The depletion width of pn junction _______ when the reverse applied voltage increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

becomes zero

e)

None of the above

33.

When diode is in reverse bias its depletion region gets

a)

larger

b)

narrowed

c)

positive charges

d)

negative charges

34.

The maximum reverse voltage that can be applied before current surges is called

a)

Reverse recovery time

b)

Maximum junction voltage

c)

Forward voltage

d)

Reverse breakdown voltage

35.

A Zener diode should have:

a)

Heavily doped p- and n-regions

b)

Lightly doped p- and n-regions

c)

Narrow depletion region

d)

Both (a) and (c)

36.

In a Zener diode (with the tunnel breakdown mechanism)

a)

P & N regions are lightly doped

b)

The depletion region is wide

c)

P & N regions are heavily doped

d)

The junction field current is small

37.

Zener breakdown results due to

a)

Strong electric field across the junction

b)

Thermal decomposition

c)

Impact ionization

d)

Emission of free electrons

38.

Avalance breakdown results due to

a)

Strong electric field across the junction

b)

Thermal decomposition

c)

Impact ionization

d)

Emission of free electrons

39.

Consider a voltage regulator diode in reverse breakdown region, breakdown voltage at temperature T1 is V1, at T2 is V2. If T2 >T1 and |V1| > |V2|, the breakdown mechanism of this diode is ________________.

a)

thermal runaway

b)

Zener breakdown

c)

avalanche breakdown

d)

punch throuh

e)

None of the above

40.

The time taken by the diode to operate in the reversed condition from forward conduction.

a)

Maximum power time

b)

Reverse recovery time

c)

Lifetime

d)

Allocated time

41.

The time it takes to turn off a forward-biased diode is called the _________________.

a)

forward recovery time

b)

recombination

c)

reverse recovery time

d)

turn-on time

42.

Reverse recovery time of the diode is computed as the _______ of the storage time and trasition interval from the forward to reverse bias.

a)

sum

b)

product

c)

quotient

d)

difference

43.

Capacitive effects are exhibited by PN junctions when they are

a)

Forward biased

b)

Reverse biased

c)

Either forward or reverse biased

d)

Neither forward nor reverse biased

44.

What is the type of capacitance effect exhibited by the PN junction, when it is reverse biased?

a)

Transition capacitance

b)

Diffusion capacitance

c)

Space charge capacitance

d)

Drift capacitance

45.

What is the type of capacitance effect exhibited by the PN junction when it is forward biased?

a)

Diffusion capacitance

b)

Storage capacitance

c)

Drift capacitance

d)

Transition capacitance

46.

Diffusion or storage capacitance is the term used to refer to

a)

the reverse bias capacitance of a diode

b)

the forward bias capacitance of a diode

c)

the breakdown capacitance of a zener diode

d)

the effective capacitance of a rectifier

47.

The variable capacitance property possessed by the reverse biased PN junction is used to construct a device known as

a)

Zener diode

b)

Varicap

c)

photodiode

d)

Tunnel diode

48.

The sum of the resistance of the neutral p-region and the neutral n-region is called

a)

Junction resistance

b)

Extrinsic resistance

c)

Intrinsic resistance

d)

Bulk resistance

49.

The depletion capacitance, Cj of an abrupt p–n junction with constant doping on either side varies with reverse bias, VR, as:

a)

Cj ~ VR ^3

b)

Cj ~ VR ^–2

c)

Cj ~ VR^ –1/2

d)

None of the above

50.

The normal operating region for a zener diode is the ____________.

a)

forward-bias region

b)

reverse-bias region

c)

zero-crossing region

d)

reverse-breakdown region

51.

Identify the false statement with respect to the Zener diode

a)

Zener diode is needed for voltage regulation

b)

Zener diode is operated in reverse biased condition

c)

Zener diode has similar characteristics to that of an ideal current source

d)

None of the above

52.

A Schottky diode has __________.

a)

Insulator-Semiconductor junction

b)

Semiconductor-Semiconductor junction

c)

Metal-Metal junction

d)

Metal - Semiconductor junction

53.

Schottky diodes are also known as __________.

a)

PIN diodes

b)

hot carrier diodes.

c)

step-recovery diodes

d)

tunnel diodes

54.

The switching speed of a Schottky diode is __________

a)

Lower than p-n junction diode

b)

Same as p-n junction diode

c)

Higher than p-n junction diode

d)

None of the above

55.

The varactor diode is:

a)

Voltage-dependent resistance

b)

Voltage-dependent capacitance

c)

Voltage-dependent inductor

d)

None of the above

56.

In a reverse-biased photodiode with increase in incident light intensity, the diode current _________

a)

Increases

b)

Remains constant

c)

Decreases

d)

None of the above

57.

When a photodiode is reverse biased, and kept in a dark room, the current flowing through the device corresponds to

a)

Zero current

b)

Maximum current the device can hold

c)

Normal current that flows through the device

d)

Reverse saturation current

58.

A photodiode is used in reverse bias because

a)

Majority of electron-hole pairs swept are reversed across the junction

b)

Only one side is illuminated

c)

Reverse current is small compared to photocurrent

d)

Reverse current is large compared to photocurrent

59.

The color emitted by an LED depends mainly on

a)

Type of material used

b)

Type of biasing applied

c)

Recombination rate of charge carriers

d)

Environmental conditions

60.

A MOSFET is sometimes called ____________

a)

MESFET

b)

JFET

c)

IGFET

d)

SCR

e)

None of the above

61.

A MOSFET is sometimes called ____________.

a)

MISFET

b)

JFET

c)

MESFET

d)

SCR

e)

None of the above

62.

A MOSFET is sometimes called _____FET

a)

Open gate

b)

Shorted gate

c)

Metallic gate

d)

Insulated gate

63.

A ________ is considered a voltage controlled device

a)

FET

b)

Diode

c)

BJT

d)

Capacitor

64.

An N-EMOS will have a collection of holes under the gate oxide during

a)

accumulation

b)

depletion

c)

inversion

d)

all of the above

65.

An N-EMOS will have a collection of electrons under the gate oxide during

a)

accumulation

b)

depletion

c)

inversion

d)

all of the above

66.

A MOS capacitor of an N-EMOS is in the accumulation mode. The dominant charge in the channel is due to the presence of

a)

holes

b)

electrons

c)

positively charged icons

d)

negatively charged ions

67.

Which of the following does not affect the threshold voltage of an MOSFET?

a)

Fermi potential

b)

gate-semiconductor work function

c)

drain-to-source voltage

d)

impurities implanted into the channel

68.

The condition for MOS capacitor (N-EMOS) in depletion is

a)

VGS < VFB

b)

VFB < VGS < VTN

c)

VGS > VTN

d)

VGS = 0 V

e)

None of the above

69.

For an N-EMOS, Source and Drain regions are made with ______

a)

n-type semiconductor

b)

p-type semiconductor

c)

intrinsic semiconductor

d)

Metal

70.

For an N-EMOS, substrate (or body) region are made with ______.

a)

n-type semiconductor

b)

p-type semiconductor

c)

intrinsic semiconductor

d)

Metal

71.

For an N-EMOS, the region between Source and Drain regions is ________ region when VGS < VTN

a)

depletion

b)

inversion

c)

breakdown

d)

Ohmic

e)

None of the above

72.

For an N-EMOS, there is the ______ channel between Source and Drain when VGS > VTN.

a)

resistance

b)

water

c)

electron

d)

hole

e)

None of the above

73.

In an N-EMOS, the polarity of the inversion layer is the same as that of the

a)

polarity of the gate electrode

b)

minority carriers in the drain

c)

majority carries in the substrate

d)

majority carries in the source

74.

An N-EMOS is in saturation mode, if VDS increases then the effiective channel length ________.

a)

unchanges

b)

increases

c)

increases a half

d)

decreases

e)

None of the above

75.

A MOSFET is called short-channel MOSFET when its channel length L ______

a)

> 1 micro m

b)

< 1 micro m

c)

= 1 micro m

d)

= 0.5 micro m

e)

None of the above

76.

An N-EMOS is in saturation mode and VDS=const, if channel length L decreases then ID________.

a)

unchanges

b)

increases

c)

increases a half

d)

decreases

e)

None of the above

77.

An N-EMOS is in saturation mode and VDS=const, if gate width W decreases then ID________.

a)

unchanges

b)

increases

c)

increases a half

d)

decreases

e)

None of the above

78.

For an N-EMOS in the saturation mode, the drain current ID

a)

Decreases with increases in VDS

b)

Decreases with decrease in VDS

c)

Increases with increases in VGS

d)

Increases with decrease in VGS

79.

For an N-EMOS with a constant gate-source voltage (VGS > VTN), if the drain-source voltage is increased (more positive) pinch-off would occur for:

a)

high values of drain current

b)

saturation value of drain current

c)

zero drain current

d)

gate current equal to drain current

80.

For an N-EMOS in the pinch-off region as the drain voltage is increased the drain current ___________

a)

becomes zero

b)

abruptly decreases

c)

abruptly increases

d)

remains constant

81.

For small values of drain to source voltage, N-EMOS behaves like a (assume VGS > VTN)

a)

Diode

b)

Capacitor

c)

Inverter

d)

Resistor

82.

An N-EMOS operates as an electronic switch, if MOSFET is in _______ region, then this switch is ON

a)

triode

b)

saturation

c)

cut-off

d)

brerakdown

e)

4 ĐS trên đều sai

83.

When the drain current ID is plotted against the drain-source base voltage VDS at constant gate-source voltage VGS, this curve is called ___________.

a)

output characteristic curve

b)

input characteristic curve

c)

transfer characteristic curve

d)

linear curve

84.

When the drain current ID is plotted against the gate-source base voltage VGS at constant drain-source voltage VDS, this curve is called ___________.

a)

output characteristic curve

b)

input characteristic curve

c)

transfer characteristic curve

d)

linear curve

85.

On the output characteristic curve of an N-EMOS for VGS > VTN, the pinch-off voltage (VDSsat) is

a)

VGS + VTN

b)

VGS – VTN

c)

–VGS + VTN

d)

–VGS – VTN

e)

None of the above

86.

The drain current of N-EMOS in saturation is given by ID = K(VGS – VTN) 2 where K is a constant. The magnitude of the transconductance gm is ________.

a)

K(VGS – VTN)^2 /VDS

b)

2K(VGS – VTN)

c)

ID/(VGS – VDS)

d)

K(VGS – VTN)^2 /VGS

87.

A BJT has

a)

One PN junction

b)

Two PN junctions

c)

Three PN junctions

d)

Four PN junctions

88.

For a typical transistor, which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

The current IB is approximately equal to the current IE

b)

The current IB is approximately equal to the current IC

c)

The current IC is approximately equal to the current IE.

d)

The sum of the current IC and IE is approximately equal to the current IB.

89.

A _________ is considered a current controlled device.

a)

Diode

b)

FET

c)

BJT

d)

Resistor

90.

In a BJT the region that is very lightly doped and is very thin is

a)

Emitter

b)

Base

c)

Collector

d)

None of these

91.

Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

a)

out of the base lead

b)

into the collector

c)

into the emitter

d)

into the base supply

92.

In a BJT, collector current is controlled by:

a)

collector voltage

b)

base current

c)

collector resistance

d)

all of the above

93.

In a uniformly doped BJT, assume that NE, NB and NC are the emitter, base and collector doping in atoms/cm3, respectively. If the emitter injection efficiency of the BJT is close unity, which one of the following condition is TRUE

a)

NE = NB = NC

b)

NE >> NB and NE > NC

c)

NE = NB and NB < NC

d)

NE < NB < NC

94.

The emitter of the transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a)

has to dissipate maximum power

b)

has to supply the charge carriers

c)

is the first region of transistor

d)

must possess low resistance

95.

For a BJT under saturation condition

a)

IC = βIB

b)

IC > βIB

c)

IC < βIB

d)

IC is independent of all other parameters.

96.

When the emitter junction JE is forward biased while the collector junction JC is reverse biased, the transistor is at ________ region.

a)

cut-off

b)

saturation

c)

[forward] active

d)

breakdown

97.

The most commonly used configuration of an npn BJT as a switch is

a)

Common collector

b)

Common emitter

c)

Common base

d)

Both common base and common collector

98.

The ratio of which two currents is represented by α?

a)

IC and IE

b)

IC and IB

c)

IE and IB

d)

None of the above

99.

The ratio of which two currents is represented by β?

a)

IC and IE

b)

IC and IB

c)

IE and IB

d)

None of the above

100.

If α and β are the current gains in the CB and CE configurations respectively of a BJT, then (β – α)/αβ =

a)

b)

1

c)

2

d)

0.5

e)

None of the above

101.

Consider an N-EMOS in saturation, if the temperature increases, then ID ________.

a)

decreases

b)

decreases by

half

c)

increases

d)

increases a little

e)

None of the above

102.

Which effect leads to curve A?

a)

Short-channel effect.

b)

Narrow-channel effect.

c)

Channel-length modulation.

d)

None of the above

103.

Which effect leads to curve B?

a)

Short-channel effect.

b)

Narrow-channel effect.

c)

Channel-length modulation.

d)

None of the above

104.

Which effect leads to curve C?

a)

Short-channel effect.

b)

Narrow-channel effect.

c)

Channel-length modulation.

d)

None of the above