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Organizational Behavior Final Exam – Review

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organizational behavior is the study of:

a)

How individuals and groups act within organizations and how their behavior affects performance.

b)

The financial performance of organizations and their profit trends.

c)

Customer satisfaction in business-to-business environments.

d)

Legal compliance and corporate regulation practices.

2.

Jenny believes Ben's success at work is mostly due to his high salary and favorable conditions. Her viewpoint represents which perspective?

a)

Internal perspective

b)

External perspective

c)

Interactive perspective

d)

Cultural perspective

3.

Attribution theory helps explain how individuals:

a)

Work with authority figures in teams

b)

Assign reasons to other people's behaviors

c)

Adapt to technological changes

d)

Evaluate corporate branding strategies

4.

Assuming an employee is lazy without considering other factors like workload is an example of:

a)

Confirmation bias

b)

Attribution reversal

c)

Fundamental attribution error

d)

Self-serving bias

5.

Self-serving bias means an individual will typically:

a)

Take credit for success but blame external causes for failures

b)

Own both success and failure equally

c)

Blame others for their mistakes consistently

d)

Ignore feedback from coworkers

6.

What is the main focus of organizational behavior as a field of study?

a)

The study of individual and group behavior within organizations

b)

The analysis of economic trends

c)

The development of new technologies

d)

The management of financial resources

7.

If someone believes an employee succeeds because of external benefits like salary, they are using which perspective?

a)

Internal perspective

b)

External perspective

c)

Interactive perspective

d)

Cultural perspective

8.

Attribution theory is primarily concerned with:

a)

Assigning team responsibilities.

b)

Explaining how people determine the causes of behavior.

c)

Learning new job skills.

d)

Deciding how rewards are distributed.

9.

A manager assuming laziness without considering workload is showing:

a)

Confirmation bias

b)

Fundamental attribution error

c)

Self-serving bias

d)

Attribution reversal

10.

Self-serving bias occurs when someone:

a)

Credits success to internal traits and blames failures on external factors.

b)

Accepts blame for all mistakes.

c)

Attributes behavior entirely to external causes.

d)

Treats success and failure equally.

11.

To reduce attribution errors, managers should:

a)

Avoid giving feedback altogether.

b)

Seek input from various sources before judging performance.

c)

Assume all problems stem from personal flaws.

d)

Reward only perfect performance.

12.

Which workplace example illustrates nonverbal communication?

a)

Sending a company-wide memo.

b)

Setting back-to-back meetings.

c)

Smiling and nodding during a presentation.

d)

Asking a question by email.

13.

Why is nonverbal communication important when expressing emotions at work?

a)

It ensures grammar is correct.

b)

It helps communicate feelings that may not be spoken.

c)

It eliminates the need for verbal expression.

d)

It is more formal than verbal cues.

14.

Which action best demonstrates emotional intelligence in the workplace?

a)

Avoiding issues to meet deadlines.

b)

Venting frustrations without a filter.

c)

Helping a stressed coworker with tasks.

d)

Refusing to speak up during conflict.

15.

When an employee becomes defensive after critical feedback, a manager should:

a)

Continue without acknowledging the reaction.

b)

Match their frustration level.

c)

Pause and validate the employee's emotions.

d)

Call HR immediately.

16.

Which is an example of positive reinforcement in the workplace?

a)

Assigning more training to underperformers.

b)

Praising an employee for excellent customer service.

c)

Reducing job responsibilities after mistakes.

d)

Removing bonuses for poor results.

17.

Why is positive reinforcement often more effective than punishment?

a)

It avoids all confrontation.

b)

It boosts morale and encourages good behavior repetition.

c)

It focuses on correcting mistakes only.

d)

It discourages accountability.

18.

What is a major advantage of using 360-degree feedback?

a)

It restricts feedback to upper management.

b)

It provides insights from multiple organizational levels.

c)

It simplifies performance ratings.

d)

It avoids customer evaluations.

19.

A drawback of 360-degree feedback is that it:

a)

Can increase workload and create bias concerns.

b)

Ignores supervisor input.

c)

Avoids behavioral feedback.

d)

Is only for frontline workers.

20.

Which is a major risk of team-based incentives?

a)

They may reward team members who didn’t contribute equally.

b)

They reduce group loyalty.

c)

They discourage project work.

d)

They lead to individual conflict only.

21.

A hybrid incentive plan involves:

a)

Giving everyone the same bonus.

b)

Combining team and individual performance metrics.

c)

Basing pay only on tenure.

d)

Avoiding measurable goals.

22.

Which situation represents a common workplace stressor?

a)

Clear instructions and policies.

b)

Receiving conflicting expectations from coworkers.

c)

Predictable work hours.

d)

Optional training sessions.

23.

A good strategy to prevent job-related stress is:

a)

Removing autonomy.

b)

Increasing employee control and decision-making opportunities.

c)

Cutting employee benefits.

d)

Avoiding performance reviews.

24.

Giving workers more input into how they do their jobs is an example of:

a)

Job enrichment.

b)

Stress enhancement.

c)

Micromanagement.

d)

Job simplification.

25.

To evaluate stress interventions, organizations should track:

a)

Stock prices and costs only.

b)

Absenteeism, satisfaction, and performance.

c)

Leadership turnover rates.

d)

The number of HR complaints filed.

26.

Which definition best describes interpersonal communication?

a)

One-way emails sent by leadership.

b)

Two or more people sharing messages and understanding.

c)

Large-scale corporate presentations.

d)

Internal marketing materials.

27.

In communication, 'perceptual screens' act to:

a)

Encrypt messages for security.

b)

Boost message clarity.

c)

Filter messages through personal and cultural experience.

d)

Translate written messages to speech.

28.

What is a goal of reflective listening?

a)

Disagree respectfully.

b)

Understand and acknowledge the speaker's meaning.

c)

Quickly offer solutions.

d)

Change the speaker's viewpoint.

29.

What makes two-way communication more effective than one-way communication?

a)

It is faster.

b)

It allows for questions and clarification.

c)

It requires less training.

d)

It removes emotional content.

30.

What distinguishes a work team from a group?

a)

Work teams share responsibility and goals.

b)

Work teams operate more casually.

c)

Groups are more productive.

d)

Groups work more closely together.

31.

Which stage of Tuckman's model is known for conflict and disagreement?

a)

Forming

b)

Storming

c)

Norming

d)

Performing

32.

In the Norming stage, team members:

a)

Establish collaboration and clarify roles.

b)

Challenge leadership.

c)

Disband the group.

d)

Avoid accountability.

33.

What characterizes the Performing stage in Tuckman's model?

a)

Low productivity and confusion.

b)

Effective collaboration and productivity.

c)

Constant reorganization.

d)

Strict oversight by the leader.

34.

Which phase includes final reflections and closure?

a)

Forming

b)

Adjourning

c)

Storming

d)

Reforming

35.

Which assumption underlies the Rational Decision-Making Model?

a)

Decisions are based mostly on emotions and instincts.

b)

All possible options can be assessed with full and accurate information.

c)

Choices are made using quick mental shortcuts.

d)

The first reasonable option is always selected.

36.

Decisions made under the Bounded Rationality Model are most affected by:

a)

A complete and logical data set.

b)

External social pressure like groupthink.

c)

Limited data, time constraints, and use of mental shortcuts.

d)

Extensive research and data evaluation.

37.

The main purpose of the Z Model is to:

a)

Simplify the number of steps required in decision-making.

b)

Increase the speed of all decisions.

c)

Incorporate logic, emotion, information, and future possibilities.

d)

Remove subjectivity entirely from decision-making.

38.

Which is a possible challenge of using the Z Model?

a)

It lacks emotional depth.

b)

It demands large amounts of information.

c)

It takes time and depends on personal insight.

d)

It encourages poor decision quality.

39.

How would you best define referent power?

a)

Authority tied to a formal title or position.

b)

Expertise gained through years of training.

c)

The influence gained through admiration and personal appeal.

d)

The right to offer bonuses and promotions.

40.

What type of power is used when a supervisor threatens to withhold a bonus due to poor performance?

a)

Legitimate power

b)

Expert power

c)

Coercive power

d)

Referent power

41.

Which type of power tends to be the most effective in shaping employee behavior and motivation?

a)

Coercive power

b)

Legitimate power

c)

Expert and referent power

d)

Reward power

42.

The 'zone of indifference' concept suggests that:

a)

Employees will blindly follow all orders.

b)

Employees will comply with requests they view as within acceptable authority.

c)

Only negative consequences ensure compliance.

d)

Leaders should avoid issuing any directives.

43.

In Kelley's followership model, which type is both proactive and independent?

a)

Dependent thinker with low engagement.

b)

Active contributor with independent thinking.

c)

Unengaged but independent thinker.

d)

Dependent thinker with high engagement.

44.

What makes 'Alienated Followers' different from other followership types?

a)

They never challenge leadership decisions.

b)

They participate without thinking critically.

c)

They are disengaged but think for themselves.

d)

They always take leadership roles.

45.

Which followership type is highly involved but lacks critical reflection?

a)

Effective followers

b)

Alienated followers

c)

Yes people

d)

Sheep

46.

How would 'Yes People' likely respond to a questionable leadership decision?

a)

They would raise concerns and suggest better alternatives.

b)

They would wait for more clarity before acting.

c)

They would go along with the decision without question.

d)

They would try to correct it privately.

47.

In a situation where a leader implies unethical actions, an effective follower would likely:

a)

Comply without question.

b)

Ignore the situation.

c)

Challenge the leader or refuse to comply.

d)

Seek personal gain from the situation.

48.

Which of the following is NOT considered a core component of job design in the Job Characteristics Model (JCM)?

a)

Skill variety

b)

Task significance

c)

Social recognition

d)

Autonomy

49.

What does the Motivating Potential Score (MPS) help determine?

a)

An employee's salary level.

b)

How likely someone is to get promoted.

c)

How motivating a job is based on its core features.

d)

How coworkers view the employee's value.

50.

Which job design method focuses on reducing physical fatigue and accommodating human limitations?

a)

Scientific management

b)

Ergonomics

c)

Job rotation

d)

Sociotechnical systems

51.

What would be the best way to improve a job that lacks autonomy, according to job design theory?

a)

Offer job shadowing opportunities.

b)

Allow employees to make more of their own work-related decisions.

c)

Reduce direct feedback.

d)

Limit planning involvement.

52.

According to the social information-processing approach, how do peer opinions impact job satisfaction?

a)

They determine promotions and pay raises.

b)

They shape how employees experience and evaluate their roles.

c)

They define job duties.

d)

They make job redesign unnecessary.

53.

Which of the following illustrates Schein’s three levels of organizational culture?

a)

Mission, values, and performance goals

b)

Artifacts, espoused values, and basic assumptions

c)

Ethics, structure, and strategy

d)

Vision, structure, and regulations

54.

Which leadership behavior is a common way to strengthen organizational culture?

a)

Changing marketing campaigns

b)

Acting as a role model for desired values and behaviors

c)

Modifying company dress codes

d)

Choosing specific tech platforms

55.

Why is transforming an organization's culture usually a challenge?

a)

It’s fast and low-cost.

b)

Culture is rooted in deep-seated beliefs and habits.

c)

Leaders often prefer transparency.

d)

Employees usually welcome constant change.