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paediatric vision

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An infant born at 30 weeks gestation develops a zone II, stage 3 ROP with plus disease. What is the appropriate treatment?

a)

Observation

b)

Cryotherapy

c)

Intravitreal bevacizumab

d)

Laser photocoagulation

2.

At what age does the OKN response become symmetric?

a)

Birth

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

1 year

3.

Which visual acuity test is most appropriate for a non-verbal 18-month-old?

a)

Snellen Chart

b)

Sheridan-Gardiner Test

c)

Cardiff Cards

d)

ETDRS chart

4.

An 8-year-old has visual acuity of 6/6 OD and 6/60 OS. No strabismus or ocular pathology. Cycloplegic refraction: +0.50 OD, +4.00 OS. Diagnosis?

a)

Isometropic amblyopia

b)

Anisometropic amblyopia

c)

Functional amblyopia

d)

Deprivation amblyopia

5.

Which test is most sensitive in detecting small-angle strabismus in children?

a)

Cover-uncover test

b)

Alternate cover test

c)

Hirschberg test

d)

Worth four-dot test

6.

For maximum effectiveness, occlusion therapy in severe amblyopia (VA worse than 6/36) is recommended for:

a)

2 hours/day

b)

4 hours/day

c)

6 hours or more/day

d)

Only weekend patching

7.

A 6-year-old has poor school performance, normal ocular health, and fluctuating attention. Suspect:

a)

Amblyopia

b)

Cortical visual impairment (CVI)

c)

Convergence insufficiency

d)

Asthenopia

8.

In a child with cerebral palsy, which visual dysfunction is most commonly associated?

a)

Cataract

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Cortical visual impairment

d)

Esotropia

9.

Teller acuity cards assess visual acuity using:

a)

Picture recognition

b)

Preferential looking

c)

Fixation disparity

d)

Matching symbols

10.

A 7-year-old has a constant right hypertropia worse in left gaze and right head tilt. Most likely diagnosis:

a)

Superior oblique overaction

b)

Right superior oblique palsy

c)

Inferior rectus underaction

d)

Brown syndrome

11.

A child with esotropia present only at near and a high AC/A ratio should be managed with:

a)

Bifocals

b)

Plus add lenses for near

c)

Occlusion therapy

d)

Prisms

12.

A 3-year-old with light sensitivity, nystagmus, and iris transillumination defects likely has:

a)

Cone dystrophy

b)

Oculocutaneous albinism

c)

Achromatopsia

d)

Aniridia

13.

The most common ocular manifestation of shaken baby syndrome is:

a)

Hyphema

b)

Retinal hemorrhages

c)

Cataract

d)

Optic disc coloboma

14.

In pediatric patients, atropine penalization is primarily used in:

a)

Unilateral myopia

b)

Amblyopia therapy

c)

Post-RK vision rehab

d)

Glaucoma

15.

A child with bilateral ptosis, poor Bell's phenomenon, and lagophthalmos may have:

a)

Marcus Gunn jaw-winking

b)

Congenital myasthenic syndrome

c)

Horner syndrome

d)

Blepharophimosis

16.

The ideal method to detect early retinal pathology in preverbal children is:

a)

Fundus photography

b)

Electroretinography (ERG)

c)

OCT

d)

Fluorescein angiography

17.

A newborn with corneal clouding, high IOP, and buphthalmos should be evaluated for:

a)

Retinoblastoma

b)

Leukocoria

c)

Primary congenital glaucoma

d)

ROP

18.

What is the most appropriate initial test to assess visual function in a blind-appearing infant with normal eyes?

a)

Funduscopy

b)

Visual Evoked Potential (VEP)

c)

ERG

d)

OCT

19.

A 6-year-old presents with progressive loss of central vision, and fundus reveals pisciform flecks. Diagnosis?

a)

Cone dystrophy

b)

Stargardt disease

c)

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

d)

Juvenile X-linked retinoschisis

20.

The most effective method to test visual fields in a cooperative 6-year-old is:

a)

Confrontation fields

b)

Kinetic perimetry (Goldmann)

c)

Automated 30-2

d)

Amsler grid

21.

A 4-year-old with prior history of oxygen therapy in NICU presents with dragged macula and peripheral scarring. Diagnosis?

a)

Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy

b)

Retinopathy of prematurity

c)

Incontinentia pigmenti

d)

Coats disease

22.

A child with advanced retinitis pigmentosa is most likely to benefit from:

a)

LASIK

b)

Atropine therapy

c)

Orientation and mobility training

d)

Contact lenses

23.

A child has microphthalmia, cataract, and hearing loss. Which congenital infection is most likely?

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Toxoplasmosis

c)

Rubella

d)

Cytomegalovirus

24.

In infants with delayed visual maturation (DVM), the most appropriate management is:

a)

Immediate patching

b)

Corrective lenses

c)

Observation and follow-up until ~6 months

d)

Start steroids

25.

A 3-month-old infant is not fixating or following. Fundus, VEP, and ERG are all normal. Likely diagnosis:

a)

Leber’s congenital amaurosis

b)

Delayed visual maturation

c)

Achromatopsia

d)

Bilateral optic atrophy

26.

Which systemic feature most strongly correlates with bilateral congenital cataracts?

a)

Congenital heart disease

b)

Metabolic disorders (e.g., galactosemia)

c)

Neuroblastoma

d)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

27.

The DEM test primarily evaluates which of the following visual functions?

a)

Accommodation

b)

Visual acuity

c)

Visual field

d)

Oculomotor skills and visual-verbal integration

28.

A child performs well on vertical subtests but poorly on the horizontal subtest with a high ratio. This pattern most likely indicates:

a)

Visual acuity deficiency

b)

Oculomotor dysfunction (Type II)

c)

Visual neglect

d)

Convergence insufficiency

29.

The DEM test is most appropriate for children aged:

a)

2–4 years

b)

4–6 years

c)

6–13 years

d)

13–18 years

30.

In the DEM test, the "ratio" is calculated by dividing:

a)

Vertical time / Horizontal time

b)

Horizontal time / Vertical time

c)

Number of errors / Vertical time

d)

Test A score / Test B score