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CBCS Quiz 3

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following accurately describes the uses of HCPCS Level II codes?

a)

Pathology

b)

Drugs

c)

Toxoids

d)

Conscious sedation

2.

A biller and coding specialist should reference which of the following CPT procedure codes to report a CT colonography?

a)

74261

b)

74262

c)

74263

d)

74270

3.

Which of the following describes the criteria for choosing the E/M preventive medicine codes?

a)

Location of service

b)

Medical decision making

c)

Age of the patient

4.

After reviewing the coding specialist is using a laparoscopy which of the following CPT codes should be reported?

a)

58550 - This code describes abdominal hysterectomy with the colpo-uhysterectomy.

b)

58551 - This code describes abdominal hysterectomy without the colpo-uhysterectomy.

c)

58552 - This code describes vaginal hysterectomy with colpo-uhysterectomy.

d)

58670 - This code describes vaginal hysterectomy without colpo-uhysterectomy.

5.

Which of the following ICD-10 codes is a billable code that a coding specialist uses for an encounter for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing?

a)

Z11.3 Encounter for screening for infections with a predominantly sexual mode of transmission

b)

Z21 Asymptomatic human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] infection status

c)

Z11.51 Encounter for screening for human papillomavirus (HPV)

d)

Z71.7 Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) counseling

6.

CPT codes for vaccine administration, and varicella (MMR) vaccine with provider counseling. Which of the following CPT codes should be used?

a)

90460, 90471, 90472, 3

b)

90471, 90472, 90474, 3

c)

90471, 90473, 90474, 3

d)

90471, 90472, 90473, 3

7.

After querying the provider, it is determined that the documentation supports billing and coding hyperglycemia, which of the following ICD-10-CM codes should the specialist use for this condition?

a)

E10.65

b)

E11.9

c)

R73.9

8.

Which of the following Evaluation and Management (E/M) codes is used to report an annual exam for a 40-year-old patient who returns to the office?

a)

99385

b)

99395

c)

99386

d)

99345

9.

Which of the following is the E/M code used to report a worsening patient who was admitted yesterday with straightforward medical decision making?

a)

99234

b)

99238

c)

99221

d)

99232

10.

A billing and coding specialist is preparing a claim for a patient who has chronic tonsillitis. According to the suffix, which of the following is indicated by the tonsillitis?

a)

Abnormal condition

b)

Inflammation

c)

Enlargement

11.

Which of the following CPT modifiers indicates the same provider returns to the operating room for a complication from the initial procedure?

a)

77

b)

78

c)

79

12.

Which of the following ICD-10-CM indicates chronic cholecystitis without obstruction?

a)

K80.00 Calculus of gallbladder with acute cholecystitis without obstruction

b)

K80.10 Calculus of gallbladder with chronic cholecystitis without obstruction

c)

K80.20 Calculus of gallbladder without cholecystitis without obstruction

d)

K83.31 Other choledocholithiasis, unspecified with obstruction

13.

A CPT modifier is appropriate for a cholecystectomy procedure. Which of the following modifiers should be appended to the service?

a)

AA

b)

Q3

c)

QK

d)

QZ

14.

A biller and coder with high acuity claim for a new patient who reports swelling in their ankles. The provider performs an appropriate history and exam. Which of the following evaluation and management (E/M) code should the specialist select?

a)

99283 Emergency department visit with a medically appropriate history and/or examination and high medical decision making.

b)

99203 Office or other outpatient visit for a new patient which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and low level of medical decision making.

c)

99214 Office or other outpatient visit for an established patient which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and moderate level of medical decision making.

d)

99215 Office or other outpatient visit for an established patient which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and high level of medical decision making.

15.

A patient is diagnosed with exudative otitis media. Which of the following is the anatomical location of this condition?

a)

A) Middle ear

b)

B) Inner ear

c)

C) Outer ear

d)

D) Eustachian tube

16.

A patient presents to their provider's office with a sore throat, and the provider diagnoses acute and chronic tonsillitis. Which of the following ICD-10-CM codes should the billing and coding specialist use for this diagnosis?

a)

J02.9, J31.2

b)

J35.01, J31.2, J02.9

c)

J35.01, J31.2

17.

Which of the following HCPCS modifiers indicates the anatomical location of left hand, fifth digit?

a)

F2: HCPCS modifier F2 indicates the anatomical location of left hand, third digit.

b)

F3: HCPCS modifier F3 indicates the anatomical location of right hand, fifth digit.

c)

FA: HCPCS modifier FA indicates the anatomical location of left hand, thumb.

d)

F4: HCPCS modifier F4 indicates the anatomical location of left hand, fifth digit.

18.

Which of the following categories in the ICD-10-CM is used to report a routine prenatal visit with no complications?

a)

Z00 Encounter for general examination without complaint, suspected or reported diagnosis

b)

Z34 Encounter for supervision of normal pregnancy

c)

O09 Supervision of high-risk pregnancy

d)

O80 Encounter for full-term uncomplicated delivery

19.

A billing and coding specialist is coding an initial encounter with a provider. Which of the following ICD-10-CM codes should be used to report a right femur fracture?

a)

S72.001 Fracture of unspecified part of neck of right femur

b)

S72.002A Fracture of unspecified part of neck of left femur, initial encounter for closed fracture

20.

Which of the following CPT® modifiers indicates only the interpretation and report of a radiology service was provided?

a)

26 Professional component

b)

25 Significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional on the same day of the procedure or other service

c)

24 Unrelated evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional during a postoperative period

d)

22 Increased procedural services

21.

Which of the following types of ICD-10-CM codes require the use of 7th character extensions?

a)

Traumatic fracture codes

b)

Personal history codes

c)

Pregnancy complication codes

d)

Dialysis status codes

22.

A provider orders a bedside commode without further details. The supply company has multiple types available, so their billing specialist should use a new order for an extra wide, heavy-duty commode chair. Which of the following HCPCS codes should the specialist use?

a)

E0163 Commode chair, mobile or stationary, with fixed arms

b)

E0165 Commode chair with detachable arms

c)

E0168 Extra wide/heavy duty commode chair

d)

E0171 Commode with seat lift mechanism

23.

A billing and coding specialist is processing a claim for a patient who has hypoglycemia. In the term hypoglycemia, the prefix hypo- means which of the following?

a)

Below

b)

Above

c)

Between

d)

Excessive

24.

Which of the following abbreviations describes the route in which a medication is introduced into the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord?

a)

IM

b)

SC

c)

INH

d)

IT

25.

Which of the following is the correct CPT® code for reporting a superficial repair using tissue adhesive of a 2 cm laceration of the scalp?

a)

12001

b)

12002

c)

12011

d)

12021

26.

Which CPT® code identifies a simple repair of superficial wounds of the scalp measuring 2.5 cm or less?

a)

12001

b)

12031

c)

12051

d)

13120

27.

CPT® code 12031 identifies an intermediate repair of wounds of the scalp measuring 2.5 cm or less. Does this description match the procedural documentation?

a)

True

b)

False

28.

CPT® code 12051 identifies an intermediate repair of wounds of the face measuring 2.5 cm or less. Does this description match the procedural documentation?

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which CPT® code identifies a complex repair of wounds of the scalp measuring 1.0 cm to 2.5 cm?

a)

12001

b)

12031

c)

12051

d)

13120