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AP Chemistry Thou Shalt Not Forget

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compounds can be separated into elements by ______ changes, and physical changes can separate mixtures.

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

mechanical

d)

nuclear

2.

Filtering separates mixtures based on ______ size.

a)

particle

b)

color

c)

temperature

d)

weight

3.

Distillation separates mixtures based on differences in ______ point.

a)

boiling

b)

melting

c)

freezing

d)

sublimation

4.

Chromatography separates mixtures based on differences in ______.

a)

polarity

b)

temperature

c)

pressure

d)

density

5.

In paper chromatography, the component that is most similar in polarity to the 'mobile phase' moves up the ______.

a)

farthest

b)

least

c)

slowest

d)

shortest

6.

Mass is ______ during chemical and physical changes.

a)

conserved

b)

destroyed

c)

created

d)

lost

7.

When reading a volume of a liquid in a container, you should always estimate one digit past the ______ marking.

a)

smallest

b)

largest

c)

middle

d)

top

8.

Rank the measuring devices from least precise to most precise: beaker, graduated cylinder, volumetric flask, burette.

a)

beaker < graduated cylinder < volumetric flask < burette

b)

burette < volumetric flask < graduated cylinder < beaker

c)

graduated cylinder < beaker < burette < volumetric flask

d)

volumetric flask < burette < beaker < graduated cylinder

9.

Density = ______ / volume.

a)

mass

b)

weight

c)

area

d)

length

10.

The % composition by mass for a pure compound does not ______.

a)

change

b)

increase

c)

decrease

d)

fluctuate

11.

Gas mixtures are ________ because of the constant random motion of the particles.

a)

homogeneous

b)

heterogeneous

c)

colloidal

d)

suspensions

12.

Gases are ________ because of the large spaces between the particles.

a)

compressible

b)

rigid

c)

opaque

d)

dense

13.

Gas pressure is caused by ________ of particles with the walls of the container.

a)

collisions

b)

expansion

c)

fusion

d)

absorption

14.

P and V are inversely related. Doubling the volume of a container will cut the pressure of the gas in half. True or False:

a)

True

b)

False

15.

T and V are directly related. If you heat a balloon, it will expand. True or False: T and V are directly related.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

T and P are directly related. If you heat a rigid container, the pressure of the gas will increase. True or False: T and P are directly related.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is the value of the gas constant R in the equation PV=nRT?

a)

0.08206

b)

8.314

c)

22.4

d)

1.00

18.

One mole of an ideal gas = ________ Liters ONLY at STP.

a)

22.4

b)

18.0

c)

24.0

d)

16.5

19.

Gas pressure and # of moles are directly related. If you double the mole of gas in a container, the pressure will double.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

In the equation Molar Mass = dRT/P, what does 'd' stand for?

a)

density

b)

distance

c)

diameter

d)

deviation

21.

The larger the molar mass of a gas, the slower it moves at a given temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Temperature = ________ Kinetic Energy.

a)

Average

b)

Total

c)

Maximum

d)

Minimum

23.

When collecting a gas by water displacement, P_total = ________ + P_water vapor.

a)

P_dry gas

b)

P_atm

c)

P_liquid

d)

P_partial

24.

Real gases behave most like an ideal gas at high temperature and at low pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Exothermic reactions have a ________ ΔH.

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

zero

d)

undefined

26.

ΔH_rxn = Bonds ________ – Bonds ________.

a)

broken; formed

b)

formed; broken

c)

formed; formed

d)

broken; broken

27.

Breaking bonds is endothermic. Forming bonds is exothermic. True or False: Breaking bonds is endothermic.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

If a reaction is exothermic, then the bonds formed in the products are stronger/more stable than the reactant bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Carbon makes a total of ________ bonds in a compound.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

30.

Match the number of domains to the bond angle.

a)

4 domains

1.

109.5°

b)

3 domains

2.

120°

c)

2 domains

3.

180°

31.

Match the number of domains to the hybrid orbital:

a)

sp3

1.

4 domains

b)

sp2

2.

3 domains

c)

sp

3.

2 domains

32.

Asymmetrical molecules = dipoles do NOT cancel = polar molecule; symmetrical = dipoles cancel = nonpolar molecule. True or False: Asymmetrical molecules are polar molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Lattice energy is the energy to break an ionic bond in a compound. Lattice energy increases as the ion's charge increases. True or False: Lattice energy increases as the ion's charge increases.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Obey the ________ rule first when drawing the Lewis Dot Structure.

a)

octet

b)

duet

c)

triple

d)

lone pair

35.

Arrange the following IMF's from weakest to strongest:

a)

London Dispersion

1.

London Dispersion

b)

dipole-dipole

2.

dipole-dipole

c)

hydrogen bonding

3.

hydrogen bonding

d)

ion-dipole

4.

ion-dipole

36.

All molecules contain LD forces, and this force gets stronger as the molecule is larger. True or False: All molecules contain London Dispersion forces.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Boiling point and melting point increase as IMF's increase. True or False: Boiling point increases as IMF's increase.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Molecular solids have low melting/boiling points, and they do not conduct electricity. True or False: Molecular solids do not conduct electricity.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Metallic bonds are between metals, and they ALWAYS conduct electricity, and their hardness varies. True or False: Metallic bonds always conduct electricity.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

In order for a reaction to occur, particles must collide at the correct orientation and with a minimum energy to break bonds. What is the minimum energy called?

a)

Activation energy

b)

Potential energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Bond energy

41.

What is the rate law for an elementary step: A + B → C + D?

a)

Rate = k[A][B]

b)

Rate = k[A]

c)

Rate = k[B]

d)

Rate = k[C][D]

42.

What is the unit for a first order rate constant?

a)

s⁻¹

b)

mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹

c)

mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹

d)

L mol⁻¹

43.

What is the unit for a second order rate constant?

a)

M⁻¹s⁻¹

b)

Ms⁻¹

c)

s⁻¹

d)

M⁻²s⁻¹

44.

Which of the following is linear for a first order reaction?

a)

ln[A] vs time

b)

1/[A] vs time

45.

What is the formula for the half-life of a first order process?

a)

t₁/₂ = 0.693/k

b)

t₁/₂ = k/0.693

c)

t₁/₂ = 2k/0.693

d)

t₁/₂ = 0.693k

46.

A first order reaction has a constant half-life regardless of the initial concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The taller the 'hill' (or activation energy), the (a)   the reaction.

48.

What does the slow step (rate-determining step) dictate in a reaction?

a)

The speed of the reaction and the rate law.

b)

The color of the reactants.

c)

The temperature of the surroundings.

d)

The pressure of the system.

49.

What is the equilibrium constant expression (K_eq) for a reaction?

a)

Keq=[products]x/[reactants]yK_eq = [products]^x / [reactants]^y

b)

Keq=[reactants]x/[products]yK_{eq} = [reactants]^{x} / [products]^{y}

c)

K_eq = [products] + [reactants]

d)

K_eq = [reactants] - [products]

50.

A large K_eq means that there are more ______ at equilibrium.

a)

products

b)

reactants

c)

ions

d)

solvents

51.

If Q < K_eq, the reaction shifts to the ______.

a)

right (towards products)

b)

left (towards reactants)

c)

equilibrium position

d)

reverse direction

52.

Acids donate ______; bases accept ______.

a)

H⁺; H⁺

b)

OH⁻; OH⁻

c)

H⁺; OH⁻

d)

OH⁻; H⁺

53.

The hydronium ion is ______.

a)

H₃O⁺

b)

OH⁻

c)

H₂O

d)

HCO₃⁻

54.

Which of the following is a strong acid?

a)

HNO₃

b)

H₂SO₄

c)

HClO₄

d)

All of the above

55.

What is the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

9

d)

3

56.

The stronger the acid, the ______ its conjugate base.

a)

weaker

b)

stronger

c)

more neutral

d)

more reactive

57.

Acid-base reactions favor the direction of the 'strong side' to the 'weak side.'

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What is the formula for the percent ionization of a weak acid?

a)

% ionization = ( [H⁺] / Mₐ ) × 100

b)

% ionization = ( Mₐ / [H⁺] ) × 100

c)

% ionization = ( [OH⁻] / Mₐ ) × 100

d)

% ionization = ( [H⁺] × Mₐ ) × 100

59.

Buffers are created by a _______ + CB (salt) or by a weak base + CA (salt).

a)

weak acid

b)

strong acid

c)

strong base

d)

neutral compound

60.

[H+] = _________.

a)

M_a K_a / [salt]

b)

[salt] / M_a K_a

c)

K_a [salt] / M_a

d)

M_a / K_a [salt]

61.

Adding a common ion to a weak acid (or base) decreases the % ionization.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

M1V1 = M2V2. This is only true at the equivalence point. M1V1 = _________.

a)

M2V2

b)

M1V2

c)

M2V1

d)

V1M1

63.

M1V1 = M2V2. This is not on the formula sheet, but it is extremely useful for dilution calculations. True or False: M1V1 = M2V2 is useful for dilution calculations.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Strong Acid + Strong Base has a pH = ___ at the equivalence point.

a)

7

b)

1

c)

5

d)

9

65.

When pH = pKa, then [HA] = _______.

a)

[A-]

b)

[H+]

c)

[OH-]

d)

[HA] + [A-]

66.

More buffer capacity means more moles of weak acid and CB.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

For 2 ions, Ksp = ________.

a)

x2x^2

b)

2x

c)

x3x^3

d)

x

68.

The larger the 'x' value, the more soluble the salt is.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

If Q > Ksp, a _______ forms.

a)

precipitate

b)

solution

c)

gas

d)

complex

70.

Group 1 cations, NH4+, and NO3- salts are always soluble in water. These are usually the spectator ions in a chemical reaction. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Thermodynamically favorable reactions have a ______ ΔG.

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

zero

d)

undefined

72.

Reactions with -ΔH and +ΔS are always thermodynamically favorable.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Reactions that increase the number of moles of gas have a ______ ΔS.

a)

+

b)

-

c)

0

d)

undefined

74.

If ΔG is negative, then K_eq is ______ than 1.

a)

greater

b)

less

c)

equal

d)

not defined

75.

True or False: ΔH and ΔS are usually given in the same units.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

ΔG = 0 at equilibrium. ΔG = ______ at equilibrium.

a)

0

b)

1

c)

-1

d)

100

77.

The value for R in ΔG° = –RT lnK is ______ J/mol K.

a)

8.314

b)

0.0821

c)

1.987

d)

4.186

78.

Sometimes, a reaction with a -ΔG does not proceed at a measurable rate. They are said to be under 'kinetic control.' High activation energy is a common reason for a process to be under kinetic control. True or False: High activation energy can cause a process to be under kinetic control.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The oxidation number of H is ______ except in a hydride.

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

0

d)

+2

80.

Oxidation always occurs at the anode in both a battery and an electrolytic cell.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Electrons in a battery move away from the ______ and come to the cathode.

a)

anode

b)

cathode

c)

electrolyte

d)

terminal

82.

In a salt bridge, cations flow to the _______.

a)

cathode

b)

anode

c)

electrolyte

d)

salt

83.

While a battery is discharged, the cathode gains mass.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

If you reverse a reaction, the sign of E° cell changes, but if you double a reaction, E° cell DOES NOT change!! True or False: Doubling a reaction changes the value of E° cell.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

E° cell = E° Red (_______) - E° Red (anode).

a)

cathode

b)

electrolyte

c)

salt bridge

d)

solution

86.

The half-reaction with a more positive E° Red takes place at the cathode.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

When adding the two half reactions together, the electrons MUST cancel out.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

ΔG° = ________.

a)

–nFE° cell

b)

nFE° cell

c)

–RT ln K

d)

E° cell / nF

89.

If Q increases, then the voltage (E° cell) of the battery goes down.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Electroplating/Electrolysis Calculation: grams = (Molar Mass of the metal)(amps)(seconds)/(n)(F). Fill in the blank: grams = (Molar Mass of the metal)(amps)(seconds)/( (a)   )(F).