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Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main goal of processing analytical data?

a)

To collect samples

b)

To identify colors

c)

To reduce measurement error

d)

To weigh samples

e)

To titrate the solution

2.

Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a)

Range

b)

Variance

c)

Mean

d)

Standard deviation

e)

Skewness

3.

The standard deviation is a measure of:

a)

 Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Systematic error

d)

Volume

e)

Mass

4.

What is a significant figure?

a)

Every zero in a number

b)

All non-zero digits and meaningful zeros

c)

Only decimal places

d)

Only whole numbers

e)

Scientific constants

5.

The formula for relative error is:

a)

(True value – Measured value)

b)

(Measured value – True value)/True value

c)

Measured value/True value

d)

Measured value × True value

e)

(True value + Measured value)/2

6.

Accuracy refers to:

a)

Closeness to true value

b)

Repeatability

c)

Reproducibility

d)

Standard deviation

e)

  1. Confidence interval

7.

Which error is caused by faulty instruments?

a)

Random error

b)

Gross error

c)

Systematic error

d)

Operator error

e)

Theoretical error

8.

What is the confidence level for 95% confidence interval?

a)

0.05

b)

0.5

c)

95

d)

5

e)

1

9.

The mean of 2, 4, 6, 8 is:

a)

6

b)

5

c)

4

d)

7

e)

8

10.

If standard deviation is zero, it means:

a)

Results vary widely

b)

Results are random

c)

All results are identical

d)

There is systematic error

e)

Experiment failed

11.

In statistics, n refers to:

a)

Standard deviation

b)

Sample size

c)

Average

d)

Error margin

e)

Tolerance

12.

Which plot is used to detect outliers in data?

a)

Histogram

b)

Pie chart

c)

Box plot

d)

Bar chart

e)

Line graph

13.

Which test is used to compare two means?

a)

F-test

b)

Q-test

c)

T-test

d)

ANOVA

e)

  1. Z-test

14.

A high R² value in linear regression indicates:

a)

Low accuracy

b)

Weak relationship

c)

Strong correlation

d)

High bias

e)

No relationship

15.

What is the use of the Q-test?

a)

Compare means

b)

Detect systematic error

c)

Eliminate outliers

d)

Calculate standard deviation

e)

Determine accuracy

16.

The term "precision" refers to:

a)

Closeness to true value

b)

Degree of reproducibility

c)

Systematic error

d)

Outlier frequency

e)

Sample purity

17.

Which of these is a parametric test?

a)

Mann-Whitney U

b)

Kruskal-Wallis

c)

T-test

d)

Wilcoxon

e)

Chi-square

18.

The F-test is used to compare:

a)

Means

b)

Medians



c)

Variances

d)

Frequencies

e)

 Percentages

19.

What does a p-value < 0.05 indicate?

a)

No difference

b)

Difference not significant

c)

Significant difference

d)

Error in method

e)

Equipment failure

20.

The range is calculated as:

a)

Average – Mean

b)

Max – Min

c)

Mean × Deviation

d)

Max + Min

e)

Deviation²

21.

The main purpose of calibration is:

a)

Coloring samples

b)

Minimizing time

c)

Improving measurement accuracy

d)

Diluting solutions

e)

  1. Sampling faster

22.

A systematic error always:

a)

Varies randomly

b)

Can be averaged out

c)

Repeats consistently

d)

Affects only last digit

e)

  1. Affects random numbers only

23.

The chi-square test is used for:

a)

Comparing means

b)

Testing distribution fit

c)

Checking precision

d)

Finding mean

e)

  1. Regressions

24.

Which statistical term represents data spread?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Variance

e)

  1. Frequency

25.

In normal distribution, 68% of data falls within:

a)

±1 SD

b)

±2 SD

c)

±3 SD

d)

±4 SD

e)

  1. ±0.5 SD

26.

What is the mode in the dataset: 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 2?

a)

No mode

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

27.

Confidence intervals provide information about:

a)

Data range

b)

Probable true value range

c)

Sample purity

d)

Instrument range

e)

  1. Variance

28.

What is an outlier?

a)

Average value

b)

Repeated value

c)

Extreme deviation from the rest

d)

Most common value

e)

  1. Smallest value

29.

What is the full form of RSD?

a)

Random signal deviation

b)

Relative signal difference

c)

Relative standard deviation

d)

Regression standard data

e)

  1. Range standard deviation

30.

Which one is a non-parametric test?

a)

ANOVA

b)

T-test

c)

Kruskal-Wallis

d)

F-test

e)

Z-test

31.

Which test is best for small sample sizes when comparing means?

a)

ANOVA

b)

F-test

c)

T-test

d)

Z-test

e)

Chi-square test

32.

Which value is NOT affected by outliers?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Range

d)

Standard deviation

e)

Variance

33.

The RSD (%) is calculated as:

a)

(SD / Mean) × 100

b)

(Mean / SD) × 100

c)

(Variance / Mean) × 100

d)

(SD × Mean) × 100

e)

  1. (SD + Mean) × 100

34.

What is the purpose of a calibration curve?

a)

To plot temperature

b)

To identify colors

c)

To determine concentration

d)

To find molecular weight

e)

  1. To measure density

35.

A precise but inaccurate method gives results that are:

a)

Close to each other but far from true value

b)

All correct

c)

Random

d)

Equal to true value

e)

Widely scattered

36.

The t-value increases with:

a)

Smaller confidence level

b)

Lower sample size

c)

Higher standard deviation

d)

Larger population

e)

Lower mean

37.

If p > 0.05, the result is:

a)

Statistically significant

b)

Not statistically significant

c)

Invalid

d)

Incorrect

e)

Highly accurate

38.

The main purpose of statistical analysis in analytical chemistry is to:

a)

Eliminate measurements

b)

Create new data

c)

Assess data quality

d)

Reduce sample size

e)

Measure pH

39.

What does the slope of a calibration curve represent?

a)

Concentration

b)

Absorbance

c)

Molar mass

d)

Sensitivity

e)

Volume

40.

Which test is suitable for comparing more than two group means?

a)

T-test

b)

 Z-test

c)

 ANOVA

d)

F-test

e)

Q-test

41.

What is the first step in data processing?

a)

Regression

b)

Graphing

c)

Data collection

d)

Calculating SD

e)

Hypothesis testing

42.

Which is a measure of variability?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Standard deviation

e)

Central limit

43.

In a normal distribution, the shape is:

a)

Asymmetric

b)

U-shaped

c)

Skewed

d)

Bell-shaped

e)

Flat

44.

Which is a non-parametric statistical method?

a)

One-way ANOVA

b)

T-test

c)

Mann-Whitney U

d)

F-test

e)

Z-test

45.

The term “bias” in data means:

a)

Random variation

b)

Systematic deviation

c)

Mean difference

d)

Neutral error

e)

Precision improvement

46.

What is a null hypothesis?

a)

There is an effect

b)

Means are unequal

c)

There is no effect or difference

d)

All groups are different

e)

All data is invalid

47.

Standard deviation helps to measure:

a)

 Accuracy

b)

Repeatability

c)

Deviation from the mean

d)

Exactness

e)

Calibration error

48.

What is the typical shape of data with a high variance?

a)

Narrow peak

b)

Wide spread

c)

Uniform

d)

Bell curve

e)

Flat tail

49.

What is the term for values that appear most often in a dataset?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Range

d)

Mode

e)

Frequency

50.

A data point that is very different from others is called:

a)

 Range

b)

Error

c)

Outlier

d)

Average

e)

Central value

51.

Q-test is used to:

a)

Confirm hypothesis

b)

Detect outliers

c)

Analyze variance

d)

Compare regression lines

e)

Determine sample size

52.

Mean = (Σx)/n is used to calculate:

a)

Standard deviation

b)

Range

c)

Average

d)

Mode

e)

Error

53.

Which measure is best when data is skewed?

a)

Mean

b)

Mode

c)

Median

d)

Range

e)

Standard deviation

54.

If variance is high, then:

a)

Data is consistent

b)

Data is close to mean

c)

Data is spread out

d)

Data has low deviation

e)

Data is normal

55.

The F-test compares:

a)

Means

b)

Variances

c)

Errors

d)

Confidence intervals

e)

T-values

56.

What is a correlation coefficient used for?

a)

Mean difference

b)

Normality test

c)

Strength of relationship

d)

Outlier detection

e)

Significance test

57.

The 3σ rule in normal distribution refers to:

a)

68%

b)

95%

c)

99.7%

d)

50%

e)

75%

58.

An analytical blank is used to:

a)

Increase concentration

b)

Reduce pH

c)

Eliminate background noise

d)

Dilute the analyte

e)

Confirm outliers

59.

The expression (x̄ ± tσ/√n) represents:

a)

Confidence interval

b)

Mean

c)

 Variance

d)

Outlier detection

e)

Mode

60.

In hypothesis testing, a Type I error means:

a)

Accepting a true null

b)

Rejecting a false null

c)

Rejecting a true null

d)

Accepting a false null

e)

No decision

61.

What does ANOVA test for?

a)

Differences between two medians

b)

Relationship between variables

c)

Differences between group means

d)

Sample purity

e)

Signal noise

62.

What is the full name of the T-test?

a)

Trial test

b)

True test

c)

Student's t-test

d)

Test of tolerance

e)

Triangular test

63.

Which of the following is not a source of systematic error?

a)

Instrumental drift

b)

Poor calibration

c)

Random noise

d)

Environmental conditions

e)

Improper standards

64.

Which of the following is not a source of systematic error?

a)

Instrumental drift

b)

Poor calibration

c)

Random noise

d)

Environmental conditions

e)

Improper standards

65.

What is the degrees of freedom (df) in a t-test with 5 samples?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

e)

0

66.

What is the null hypothesis in an ANOVA test?

a)

 At least one mean is different

b)

All means are equal

c)

Means are random

d)

No relationship exists

e)

Variance is zero

67.

Which factor affects the width of a confidence interval?

a)

Sample size

b)

Unit of measurement

c)

Instrument brand

d)

Titration speed

e)

Chemical used

68.

When should a non-parametric test be used?

a)

Always

b)

When data are normally distributed

c)

When data do not meet parametric assumptions

d)

Only for large samples

e)

For calibration curves

69.

What type of graph is commonly used in regression analysis?

a)

Histogram

b)

Bar chart

c)

Scatter plot

d)

Pie chart

e)

Dot matrix

70.

Which of the following is a non-statistical error?

a)

Human error

b)

Standard deviation

c)

Confidence interval

d)

P-value

e)

Hypothesis test

71.

Which measure best represents central tendency when outliers are present?

a)

Mean

b)

Range

c)

Mode

d)

Median

e)

Variance

72.

What is the term for the square of standard deviation?

a)

Mean

b)

Mode

c)

Variance

d)

Error

e)

Median

73.

If data is symmetric and bell-shaped, it is:

a)

Biased

b)

Normal distribution

c)

Logarithmic

d)

Random

e)

Skewed

74.

What does “repeatability” refer to?

a)

Agreement of measurements in different labs

b)

Variability under different conditions

c)

Same method and conditions

d)

Change over time

e)

Calibration steps

75.

What is the purpose of a replicate measurement?

a)

Save reagents

b)

Reduce errors

c)

Confirm identity

d)

Measure purity

e)

Improve precision

76.

Which of the following is NOT a central tendency measure?

a)

Mean

b)

Mode

c)

Standard deviation

d)

Median

e)

None

77.

The outlier test that uses the ratio of gap to range is:

a)

T-test

b)

Q-test

c)

F-test

d)

Z-test

e)

U-test

78.

What is the minimum sample size for reliable statistics?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

e)

30

79.

The larger the sample size, the:

a)

Lower the mean

b)

Lower the standard deviation

c)

Higher the variance

d)

Narrower the confidence interval

e)

Greater the error

80.

The slope in Beer-Lambert Law calibration curve corresponds to:

a)

Absorbance

b)

Path length

c)

Molar absorptivity

d)

Concentration

e)

Time

81.

What does the p-value represent?

a)

Test statistic

b)

Mean error

c)

Probability of observing results if null is true

d)

True results

e)

Significance level

82.

The 95% confidence level means that:

a)

You are 95% sure your result is right

b)

95% of your data is accurate

c)

There's a 5% chance the true value is not in the interval

d)

5% of values are outliers

e)

31.   95% chance of failure

83.

Which software is commonly used for statistical data analysis?

a)

Word

b)

Power point

c)

Excel

d)

Paint

e)

Notepad

84.

Which of the following is most sensitive to outliers?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Frequency

e)

Standard deviation

85.

A correlation coefficient (r) of -1 indicates:

a)

No correlation

b)

Weak correlation

c)

Positive correlation

d)

Perfect negative correlation

e)

No data

86.

A regression line is used to:

a)

Calculate frequency

b)

Measure central tendency

c)

Predict values

d)

Detect outliers

e)

Analyze skewness

87.

The median is the:

a)

Highest value

b)

Most common value

c)

Middle value

d)

Lowest value

e)

Value with maximum frequency

88.

Which test compares more than two population variances?

a)

T-test

b)

Q-test

c)

F-test

d)

Z-test

e)

Regression

89.

What does "robustness" mean in analytical method validation?

a)

Speed

b)

Cost

c)

Resistance to changes in parameters

d)

Sensitivity to instruments

e)

Level of automation

90.

Confidence level of 99% corresponds to what alpha (α) level?

a)

0.01

b)

0.05

c)

0.1

d)

0.005

e)

1.00

91.

The term “sensitivity” refers to:

a)

Instrument cost

b)

Ability to detect small differences

c)

Calibration slope

d)

Volume of solvent

e)

Ph stability

92.

Which of the following is used to assess method accuracy?

a)

Calibration curve

b)

Standard addition

c)

Signal-to-noise ratio

d)

Reagent blank

e)

Slope calculation

93.

What does linear regression estimate?

a)

Sample purity

b)

Noise level

c)

Relationship between two variables

d)

Method sensitivity

e)

Signal intensity

94.

If R² = 1 in a linear regression, it means:

a)

No correlation

b)

Weak correlation

c)

Perfect linear fit

d)

Nonlinear relationships

e)

Negative slope

95.

The term "LOD" refers to:

a)

Length of determination

b)

Limit of detection

c)

Line of division

d)

Level of data

e)

Logarithm of deviation

96.

What does "LOQ" stand for in analytical chemistry?

a)

Line of quantification

b)

Limit of quantification

c)

Level of questioning

d)

Log of quality

e)

Law of quantifying

97.

What is the most common cause of random error?

a)

Incorrect calibration

b)

Equipment malfunction

c)

Environmental fluctuations

d)

Analysts bias

e)

Improper storage

98.

What does a high RSD (%) indicate?

a)

High precision

b)

Low precision

c)

High accuracy

d)

Strong calibration

e)

Stable system

99.

The purpose of method validation is to:

a)

Save time

b)

Reduce costs

c)

Ensure method reliability

d)

Skip standard preparation

e)

Minimize reagents

100.

Which test would you use to identify significant difference between two sets of measurements?

a)

ANOVA

b)

F-test

c)

Q-test

d)

T-test

e)

Regression

101.

What is the area under a probability distribution curve equal to?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

Infinity

d)

Mean

e)

SD

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