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2.3 -AS

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is aggregate supply (AS)?

a)

Aggregate supply (AS) is the quantity of goods and services that producers are willing and able to supply at a given level of prices in a given time period.

b)

Aggregate supply (AS) is the total amount of money in circulation within an economy.

c)

Aggregate supply (AS) is the total demand for goods and services in an economy at a given time.

d)

Aggregate supply (AS) is the level of government spending in an economy during a specific period.

2.

What is short run aggregate supply (SRAS)?

a)

Short run aggregate supply (SRAS) is the relationship between planned national output (GDP) and the general price level.

b)

Short run aggregate supply (SRAS) is the total value of goods and services produced in an economy over a long period of time.

c)

Short run aggregate supply (SRAS) is the relationship between the unemployment rate and the inflation rate.

d)

Short run aggregate supply (SRAS) is the total amount of money in circulation in an economy.

3.

Which of the following is the main factor causing a shift in SRAS?

a)

Consumer demand

b)

Factor resource cost of supplying goods and services

c)

Government spending

d)

Exchange rates

4.

According to the diagram, what happens when there is a rise in the price level?

a)

Contraction of aggregate supply

b)

Expansion of aggregate supply

c)

No change in aggregate supply

d)

Decrease in real GDP

5.

When a business is not making full use of its available capacity, there are ______ factors of production including land, labour and capital.

a)

spare

b)

fixed

c)

expensive

d)

primary

6.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of shifts in short run aggregate supply?

a)

Changes in resource (input) prices

b)

Business taxes, subsidies, regulations and imported costs

c)

Consumer preferences

d)

Energy costs such as oil, gas, and electricity

7.

The short run AS curve is upward sloping because higher prices for goods and services make output more profitable, enabling businesses to expand their production by hiring extra labour and other resources.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can cause a shift in short run aggregate supply (SRAS)?

a)

Changes in the scale and size of government subsidies to certain industries

b)

Cost of imported components

c)

Changes in consumer preferences

d)

Unexpected supply shocks

9.

A shift from AS1 to AS2 in the short run aggregate supply curve is known as an ______ shift of the short run aggregate supply curve.

a)

inward

b)

outward

c)

vertical

d)

horizontal

10.

Which of the following might cause an inward shift in the short run aggregate supply curve?

a)

A fall in raw material prices

b)

A rise in energy costs

c)

A decrease in unit labour costs

d)

A decline in business regulations

11.

If wages rise in line with productivity, then unit labour costs will not change, and the SRAS will therefore not shift inwards.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

A shift from AS1 to AS3 in the short run aggregate supply curve is an example of what type of shift?

a)

Inward shift

b)

Outward shift

c)

Vertical shift

d)

No shift

13.

External factors from outside a country can have an impact on production costs. One example of such a factor is:

a)

Weather conditions within the country

b)

International oil prices

c)

Local government policies

d)

Domestic labor laws

14.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor affecting the UK economy in the passage?

a)

World oil and gas prices

b)

Import tariffs / quotas

c)

Domestic tourism rates

d)

Foodstuff prices

15.

According to the passage, the UK is a net importer of which of the following?

a)

Oil

b)

Coal

c)

Fresh foods

d)

Automobiles

16.

According to Keynesians, governments will need to intervene, especially using ________, when an economy is in recession.

a)

fiscal policy

b)

monetary policy

c)

trade policy

d)

immigration policy

17.

Match the following Keynesian and Neoclassical views:

a)

Markets will work well, provided that the government does not intervene

1.

Markets do not always work perfectly – prices can be inflexible

b)

The economy is self-correcting, even in recession

2.

Governments will need to intervene, especially using fiscal policy

c)

There is only a trade-off between unemployment and inflation in the short run

3.

There is a trade-off between unemployment and inflation

d)

Unemployment always returns to its 'natural rate'

4.

Unemployment can be persistent

18.

Neo-classical economists use only one aggregate supply curve for both the short run and the long run.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What is the main difference between Keynesian and Neoclassical views on government intervention during a recession?

a)

Keynesians believe government intervention is necessary, especially using fiscal policy, while Neoclassical economists believe the economy is self-correcting and government intervention is rarely needed.

b)

Keynesians believe in minimal government intervention, while Neoclassical economists support aggressive fiscal policy during recessions.

c)

Both Keynesians and Neoclassical economists agree that monetary policy is the only effective tool during a recession.

d)

Neoclassical economists advocate for increased government spending, while Keynesians prefer tax cuts as the primary solution.

20.

According to the explanation for the Keynesian aggregate supply curve, when spare capacity is high, what happens to the SRAS curve?

a)

It becomes perfectly inelastic

b)

It will be elastic and a rise in AD can be met easily by increased output

c)

It becomes vertical

d)

It causes immediate inflation

21.

Fill in the blank: The elasticity of the SRAS curve falls as output increases because the amount of ______ declines, there is the possibility of diminishing returns in production, bottlenecks in supply of inputs and components, and resource shortages as the economy approaches full employment.

a)

spare capacity

b)

aggregate demand

c)

government spending

d)

labor unions

22.

What happens to the general price level when AD shifts from AD1 to AD2?

a)

It rises sharply

b)

It falls

c)

It remains the same

d)

It fluctuates unpredictably

23.

Refer to the diagram titled 'Inflationary pressures when the aggregate supply curve has become inelastic.' What is the effect of an outward shift in AD from AD3 to AD4?

a)

No change in price level

b)

Sharp rise in the general price level

c)

Decrease in real GDP

d)

Decrease in price level

24.

When does the economy reach full employment according to the Keynesian aggregate supply curve explanation?

a)

When the AS curve becomes vertical, the economy has reached full employment of factor resources.

b)

When the AS curve is horizontal, the economy has reached full employment of factor resources.

c)

When the AS curve is downward sloping, the economy has reached full employment of factor resources.

d)

When the AS curve shifts to the left, the economy has reached full employment of factor resources.

25.

Define full employment as stated in the worksheet.

a)

The level of employment where everyone who wants a job has a job, except for frictional and structural unemployment.

b)

The situation where there is zero unemployment in the economy.

c)

The level of employment where only voluntary unemployment exists.

d)

The state where all resources are fully utilized.

26.

Refer to the first diagram showing the Keynesian LRAS. What does YFE represent on the Real GDP axis?

a)

The general price level

b)

The full employment level of output

c)

The aggregate demand

d)

The short run aggregate supply

27.

According to the Neo-Classical Long Run Aggregate Supply diagram, what does a rightwards shift in LRAS represent?

a)

A decrease in the economy's productive potential

b)

An increase in the economy's productive potential/capacity

c)

A fall in the general price level

d)

A reduction in aggregate demand

28.

In the Neo-Classical LRAS diagram, Yfe represents the economy's '__________' level of output, i.e., the maximum potential level of output in the long run.

a)

full employment

b)

cyclical

c)

seasonal

d)

nominal

29.

An outwards shift in LRAS causes Yfe to rise, indicating an increase in the economy's maximum potential output. This is referred to as 'long run growth.'

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Refer to the diagram. Which curve represents the Long Run Aggregate Supply?

a)

SRAS

b)

LRAS

c)

Yfe

d)

Real GDP

31.

What does LRAS stand for in economics?

4 lines
32.

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing long-run aggregate supply (AS)?

a)

Technological advances

b)

Changes in relative productivity

c)

Changes in weather patterns

d)

Changes in education and skills

33.

Long run aggregate supply (LRAS) represents the ________ possible output when all factors of production are fully and efficiently employed.

a)

maximum

b)

minimum

c)

average

d)

nominal

34.

Which of the following is an example of higher productivity of labour and capital?

a)

A rise in output per person employed

b)

A decrease in the number of people in paid work

c)

A reduction in capital investment

d)

A fall in technological efficiency

35.

Which factor is described as 'Product and process innovation from research and development and higher rate of increase of business start-ups'?

a)

Capital Investment

b)

Innovation and Enterprise

c)

Growing Population

d)

Stock of natural resources

36.

List two changes that can bring about an increase in a nation's potential GDP.

4 lines
37.

What does an outward shift of LRAS signify in terms of potential output and employment?

a)

An outward shift of LRAS signifies an increase in potential output and employment and signifies real economic growth.

b)

An outward shift of LRAS signifies a decrease in potential output and employment and indicates economic decline.

c)

An outward shift of LRAS signifies no change in potential output or employment, only a change in price level.

d)

An outward shift of LRAS signifies a temporary increase in output but a long-term decrease in employment.

38.

Which of the following is an example of investment in natural capital that can increase long run aggregate supply?

a)

Building new shopping malls

b)

Establishing new mangrove forests

c)

Increasing import tariffs

d)

Reducing education spending

39.

Productivity measures the efficiency of the production process.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

In the long run, what is a major determinant of economic growth and inflation?

a)

Productivity

b)

Government spending

c)

Exchange rates

d)

Population growth

41.

Productivity can be measured by which of the following?

a)

Output per worker employed

b)

Output per person hour

c)

Value added from each extra factor input employed

d)

All of the above

42.

According to the graph 'Labour Productivity in the UK, Output per worker employed, Index (2015=100)', what happened to UK labour productivity growth after the 2008/2009 recession?

a)

It stagnated and was only 1.5% above the 2007 pre-recession peak level by 2019.

b)

It rapidly increased and was 10% above the 2007 pre-recession peak level by 2019.

c)

It declined and was 5% below the 2007 pre-recession peak level by 2019.

d)

It remained unchanged at the 2007 pre-recession peak level by 2019.

43.

What is the productivity gap as described in the text?

4 lines
44.

What is the significance of increased productivity for countries with strong labour productivity growth?

a)

Countries with strong labour productivity growth tend to benefit from high rates of growth and low inflation. Productivity affects other macroeconomic objectives as well.

b)

It leads to a decrease in the standard of living and higher unemployment rates.

c)

It causes persistent trade deficits and increased government debt.

d)

It results in lower investment in technology and infrastructure.

45.

Match the macroeconomic objective with the correct comment on the effect of increased productivity:

a)

Inflation

1.

Lower – unit costs falling, outward shift of aggregate supply if productivity is rising faster than wages

b)

Economic growth (real GDP)

2.

Higher – gains in aggregate supply, expansion of AD

c)

Unemployment

3.

Lower in long run as real GDP growth rises

d)

Balance of trade

4.

Improved – more competitive exports – an injection of aggregate demand into the circular flow

e)

Spare capacity

5.

Rise from extra capacity in short run – we can get more from existing factors of production

46.

List one economic benefit of net inward migration.

4 lines
47.

Which of the following is NOT an economic benefit of net inward migration?

a)

Migrants provide fresh skills

b)

Migrants increase the size of the active labour supply

c)

Migrants increase the cost of public services

d)

Migrants are often a driver of innovation and entrepreneurship

48.

Remittances sent home by migrants add to the GNI of home nations, creating potential for rising exports.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Legal immigrants in work pay taxes and are likely to be net ________ to government finances.

a)

contributors

b)

burdens

c)

liabilities

d)

detriments

50.

Which of the following is a risk or cost from net inward migration?

a)

Positive multiplier effects if migrants find paid work

b)

Remittances sent home by migrants

c)

Social tensions from integrating thousands of extra workers into local areas and regions

d)

Migrants provide fresh skills

51.

List one risk or cost from net inward migration.

a)

Welfare costs: Increasing cost of providing public services.

b)

Decrease in cultural diversity.

c)

Reduction in available workforce.

d)

Lower demand for housing.

52.

Migration may worsen the level of relative poverty in a society.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the evaluation of the effects of labour migration?

a)

The ease with which migrant workers settle into a new country

b)

The dynamic effects of migration, such as gains in innovation

c)

The colour of passports held by migrants

d)

Whether migrants decide to stay in the longer term

54.

The effects of migration are hard to ________.

a)

quantify

b)

ignore

c)

celebrate

d)

predict

55.

The human capital of migrants may be more significant in the long run.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which macroeconomic objective is improved by more competitive exports due to increased productivity?

a)

Inflation

b)

Economic growth

c)

Balance of trade

d)

Business investment

57.

Productivity gains in government help to reduce ________ spending.

a)

state

b)

private

c)

personal

d)

corporate

58.

Which of the following is a positive multiplier effect of net inward migration?

a)

Migrants increase the cost of public services

b)

Migrants add to government tax revenues if they find paid work

c)

Migrants displace domestic workers

d)

Migrants worsen relative poverty

59.

According to the diagram, which of the following is an effect of inward migration on the Labour Market?

a)

Increase in government spending

b)

Increase in the active labour supply which might cause lower unit labour costs for a host country

c)

Human capital helps to generate ideas and products

d)

Rising demand for public services

60.

Inward migration increases pressure on government spending but can also lead to rising _____

a)

tax revenues

b)

unemployment

c)

inflation

d)

interest rates

61.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an effect of inward migration on consumption?

a)

Increase in population size

b)

Rising demand for public services

c)

Lower unit labour costs

d)

If housing stock is fixed, can lead to higher prices and rising rents

62.

Match the following pillars of UK competition policy with their descriptions:

a)

Antitrust and cartels

1.

Investigating mergers between firms to avoid monopoly power

b)

Market liberalisation

2.

Eliminating illegal agreements that restrict competition

c)

State aid control

3.

Introducing competition in previously monopolistic sectors

d)

Merger control

4.

Analysing the role of the state in supporting industries

63.

Which pillar of UK competition policy involves introducing competition or contestability in sectors that have previously been dominated by large monopolistic firms?

a)

Antitrust and cartels

b)

Market liberalisation

c)

State aid control

d)

Merger control

64.

Effective competition policy should help to improve an economy’s _____

a)

LRAS / productive potential

b)

inflation rate

c)

budget deficit

d)

exchange rate

65.

Technological advances can only make existing factors of production more efficient, but cannot stimulate the growth of brand-new industries.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

3D printing is also known as ______ manufacturing.

a)

additive

b)

subtractive

c)

formative

d)

reductive

67.

Cloud based ______ Intelligence is a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS.

a)

Artificial

b)

Natural

c)

Mechanical

d)

Emotional

68.

______ technology is a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS, according to MIT.

a)

Blockchain

b)

Steam engine

c)

Telegraph

d)

Printing press

69.

______ computing is a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS, according to MIT.

a)

Quantum

b)

Analog

c)

Classical

d)

Optical

70.

Custom ______ are a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS, according to MIT.

a)

vaccines

b)

cars

c)

phones

d)

batteries

71.

Nuclear ______ is a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS, according to MIT.

a)

fission

b)

fusion

c)

decay

d)

power

72.

______ technologies are a recent advance in technology that might impact LRAS, according to MIT.

a)

Wearable

b)

Analog

c)

Steam-powered

d)

Rotary

73.

Which of the following is a possible advantage of automation?

a)

Increased job loss

b)

Improved product quality

c)

Higher capital expenditure

d)

Reduced flexibility

74.

Which of the following is a possible advantage of automation?

a)

Shorter working weeks for labour

b)

Job loss for some workers

c)

Initial large capital expenditure

d)

Possible risk of hacking

75.

Which of the following is a possible advantage of automation?

a)

Rising productivity

b)

Job loss for some workers

c)

Initial large capital expenditure

d)

Possible risk of hacking

76.

Which of the following is a possible advantage of automation?

a)

Safer working conditions

b)

Job loss for some workers

c)

Initial large capital expenditure

d)

Possible risk of hacking

77.

Which of the following is a possible advantage of automation?

a)

Lower operating costs for businesses

b)

Job loss for some workers

c)

Initial large capital expenditure

d)

Possible risk of hacking

78.

Which of the following is a possible disadvantage of automation?

a)

Improved product quality

b)

Job loss for some workers

c)

Rising productivity

d)

Safer working conditions

79.

Which of the following is a possible disadvantage of automation?

a)

Initial large capital expenditure by businesses

b)

Improved product quality

c)

Rising productivity

d)

Safer working conditions

80.

Which of the following is a possible disadvantage of automation?

a)

Possibility of reduced flexibility

b)

Improved product quality

c)

Rising productivity

d)

Safer working conditions

81.

Which of the following is a possible disadvantage of automation?

a)

Possible risk of hacking

b)

Improved product quality

c)

Rising productivity

d)

Safer working conditions

82.

Human capital refers to the ______, experience, aptitudes and attitudes of human input into the production process.

a)

skills

b)

machines

c)

buildings

d)

tools

83.

Positive externalities from education and training are usually regarded as generating ______ externalities, because society tends to benefit from having educated citizens.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

private

84.

Specific skills are skills that are specialist and focused on one particular ______ or task.

a)

job

b)

hobby

c)

language

d)

tool

85.

Tertiary education is education beyond ______ education, e.g. college, university.

a)

secondary

b)

primary

c)

elementary

d)

preschool

86.

Transferable skills are skills that can be used in a number of different ______ e.g. literacy, numeracy, IT.

a)

occupations

b)

colors

c)

seasons

d)

animals

87.

Vocational education is known as career or ______ education; this is education that provides practical skills.

a)

technical

b)

historical

c)

artistic

d)

philosophical