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EMS103 CHAP 11-15

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should:

a)

wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

b)

enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care.

c)

have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance.

d)

leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people.

2.

When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is least important?

a)

Patient’s weight

b)

Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

c)

Type of surface onto which the patient fell

d)

Height of the fall

3.

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook?

a)

Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision

b)

Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

c)

Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool

d)

Patient with a suspected infectious disease

4.

Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up?

a)

A news media helicopter hovering overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

b)

The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.

c)

A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park.

d)

A vehicle collision involving a tractor-trailer that appears to be empty.

5.

At what point is the scene size-up complete?

a)

Upon stabilization of the c-spine

b)

When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

c)

At the end of the call

d)

When the number of patients has been determined

6.

Which of the following best describes blunt-force trauma?

a)

An object penetrates soft tissue but cannot penetrate bone.

b)

An object strikes the body but does not penetrate the body tissues.

c)

A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

d)

An object that is not sharp penetrates the body due to the amount of force used.

7.

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver’s seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion?

a)

Neck injury

b)

Abdominal injuries

c)

Fractures of the lower extremities

d)

Chest injury

8.

Which of the following is not determined in a scene size-up?

a)

Chief complaint

b)

Potential hazards to the EMS crew

c)

Need for additional resources

d)

Mechanism of injury

9.

An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following?

a)

Cavitating trauma

b)

Penetrating trauma

c)

Impaling trauma

d)

Puncturing trauma

10.

At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?

a)

After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact

b)

As you approach the scene in the ambulance

c)

When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance

d)

When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence

11.

You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should:

a)

consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.

b)

remove the bystanders from the scene.

c)

park downwind from the tanker truck.

d)

park about 50 feet from the truck.

12.

You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation?

a)

Reflective triangles

b)

Yellow crime scene tape

c)

Flashing lights on the ambulance

d)

Flares

13.

Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision?

a)

Hazardous materials

b)

Other emergency vehicles

c)

Electrocution

d)

All of the above

14.

At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone?

a)

The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions.

b)

The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.

c)

The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions.

d)

There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

15.

Which law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree?

a)

Law of kinetic energy

b)

Second law of motion

c)

Newton's law of moving energy

d)

Law of inertia

16.

Which of the following is not a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?

a)

Wind direction

b)

Fire

c)

Presence of hazardous materials

d)

Amount of equipment needed

17.

Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?

a)

The patient took the up-and-over pathway, striking her head on the windshield.

b)

The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

c)

The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.

d)

The patient took the down-and-under pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.

18.

You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:

a)

putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.

b)

using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire.

c)

borrowing turnout gear from the fire department.

d)

remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out.

19.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:

a)

a neurosurgery center.

b)

an urgent care center.

c)

a trauma center.

d)

the closest hospital.

20.

Which of the following situations will not require additional resources at the scene?

a)

A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

b)

A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine

c)

A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected

d)

A 300-pound woman complaining of chest pain

21.

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed collision. During your primary assessment it is discovered that he is not moving, does not appear to have adequate respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done first?

a)

Check the patient's carotid pulse.

b)

Control the bleeding with direct pressure.

c)

Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations.

d)

Open the airway.

22.

Which of the following describes the chief complaint?

a)

Overall impression of the patient's condition

b)

Reason why the patient summoned EMS

c)

Events immediately preceding the call for EMS

d)

All of the above

23.

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status?

a)

24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain

b)

3-year-old child with a fever and cough

c)

92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side

d)

50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

24.

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to an adult patient?

a)

The normal respiratory rate is faster.

b)

Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.

c)

The normal pulse rate is slower.

d)

An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction.

25.

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment?

a)

The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli.

b)

The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

c)

External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient.

d)

Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients.

26.

Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Digestive

c)

Choking

d)

Anaphylaxis

27.

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general impression?

a)

Looking for visual clues

b)

Detecting odors

c)

Listening for unusual sounds

d)

All of the above

28.

Which of the following is not assessed during the breathing phase of the primary assessment?

a)

The presence of respirations

b)

The pulse oximetry reading

c)

The respiratory rate

d)

The depth of respiration

29.

In EMS, what does mental status refer to?

a)

Any history of mental illness that the patient may have

b)

The patient's general level of intelligence

c)

The patient's level of awareness of his surroundings

d)

None of the above

30.

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of consciousness?

a)

Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest; placing a folded towel under the back of the head if necessary

b)

Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated

c)

Placing the head and neck in a neutral position; using a folded towel under the shoulders if necessary

d)

Hyperextension of the neck; placing a pillow under the back if necessary

31.

A patient whose mental status can be described as verbal is able to:

a)

respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles.

b)

tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is.

c)

talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions.

d)

respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

32.

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient?

a)

5 seconds

b)

less than 2 seconds

c)

3 seconds

d)

1 minute

33.

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should:

a)

feel for a pulse.

b)

expose his chest.

c)

open his airway.

d)

ask him if he is okay.

34.

Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next?

a)

Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

b)

Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine.

c)

Determine the presence of a carotid pulse.

d)

Ask if the patient has pain anywhere beside her ankle.

35.

Which of the following is not performed during the airway phase of the primary assessment?

a)

Obtaining the respiratory rate

b)

Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

c)

Suctioning

d)

Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

36.

The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the following?

a)

Patient's level of responsiveness

b)

Patient's chief complaint

c)

Patient's transport priority

d)

EMT's general impression of the patient's condition

37.

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked?

a)

At the carotid artery

b)

At the radial artery

c)

At the femoral artery

d)

At the brachial artery

38.

Which term refers to the EMT's initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint?

a)

Primary assessment

b)

Scene size-up

c)

Secondary assessment

d)

General impression

39.

Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant?

a)

Shaking the child

b)

Pinching the earlobe

c)

Flicking the soles of the feet

d)

Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles

40.

Which of the following patients is a high priority for transport?

a)

Adult male with sharp lower back pain

b)

Adult male with difficulty breathing

c)

Adult male with dull abdominal pain

d)

Adult male with a headache

41.

A device that uses wavelengths of light to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called a(n):

a)

end tidal CO2 meter.

b)

capnographer.

c)

sphygmomanometer.

d)

pulse oximeter.

42.

In which of the following situations would it be preferable to determine blood pressure by palpation rather than by auscultation?

a)

The patient has a low systolic blood pressure.

b)

There is no place for the patient to sit or lie down.

c)

There is too much noise to use a stethoscope.

d)

The patient is less than 3 years old.

43.

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should:

a)

begin chest compressions.

b)

apply the pulse oximeter.

c)

attempt to find the carotid pulse.

d)

listen for heart sounds.

44.

When pupils are dilated, they are:

a)

smaller than normal.

b)

irregularly shaped.

c)

elliptical or elongated in shape.

d)

larger than normal.

45.

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds?

a)

Complete airway obstruction

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Tongue blocking the airway

d)

Fluids in the airway

46.

The normal range for blood glucose is between 70 mg/dL and:

a)

110 mg/dL.

b)

100 mg/dL.

c)

90 mg/dL.

d)

120 mg/dL.

47.

You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient’s pulse?

a)

Pulse 20, weak, and regular

b)

Pulse 40 and weak

c)

Pulse 40, weak, and irregular

d)

Pulse 20 and weak

48.

What are the three ways to take blood pressure?

a)

Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

b)

Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure monitor, and heart monitor

c)

Auscultation, palpation, and osculation

d)

Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

49.

Which of the following best describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff?

a)

Covering two-thirds of the upper arm

b)

Covering the patient’s elbow

c)

Midway between the elbow and shoulder

d)

One inch below the armpit

50.

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, what body process does the 120 measure?

a)

Diastolic blood pressure; when the right ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the veins

b)

Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the arteries

c)

Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the veins

d)

Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the arteries

51.

When taking blood pressure manually, the cuff should be inflated to what point?

a)

Until the Velcro starts to crackle

b)

Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg

c)

30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears

d)

Until the patient says it hurts

52.

Which of the following is not a cause of unequal pupils?

a)

Fright

b)

Stroke

c)

Artificial eye

d)

Eye injury

53.

If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed?

a)

4 seconds

b)

5 seconds

c)

2 seconds

d)

3 seconds

54.

Your patient is warm, dry, pink, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation?

a)

102 percent

b)

95 percent

c)

98 percent

d)

91 percent

55.

A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT.

a)

complete

b)

partial

c)

random

d)

incomplete

56.

Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following?

a)

Vital sign

b)

Symptom

c)

Complaint

d)

Diagnosis

57.

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light?

a)

Fluttering

b)

No effect

c)

Constriction

d)

Dilation

58.

Which of the following is the best way to assess a patient's skin temperature?

a)

Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen.

b)

Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.

c)

Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.

d)

Place your cheek against the patient's forehead.

59.

You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You should:

a)

use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead.

b)

move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

c)

find another site to measure her blood pressure.

d)

continue to take her blood pressure in the arm.

60.

Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every:

a)

20 minutes.

b)

15 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

5 minutes.

61.

Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through problems, but which of the following will they have in common?

a)

Dislike of ambiguity

b)

Organization of data in their head

c)

Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone

d)

Strong foundation of knowledge

62.

While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to diagnosis?

a)

The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient's presentation.

b)

Due to the limited time spent with the patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis.

c)

The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient.

d)

The EMT must perform a patient assessment to begin the process of forming a diagnosis.

63.

Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In fact, every time you ask a question, the patient’s mother answers. What should you do next?

a)

Have your partner interview the mother in the next room.

b)

Tell the mother to leave the room.

c)

Ask the mother to please be quiet.

d)

Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient.

64.

Mr. Hughes is a 49-year-old man complaining of chest pain. To find out about the quality of his chest pain, which of the following questions is most appropriate?

a)

Are you having pain anywhere beside your chest?

b)

On a scale of 0 to 10, with 10 being the worst, how would you rate your level of pain?

c)

Can you describe how the pain in your chest feels?

d)

Does anything make the pain worse?

65.

Which of the following describes skepticism about one thing causing another?

a)

Illusory correlation

b)

Representativeness

c)

Confirmation bias

d)

Availability

66.

What is the feeling of bone ends rubbing together called?

a)

Edema

b)

Crepitation

c)

Orthopnea

d)

Rhonchi

67.

_______ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious.

a)

Red flags

b)

Yellow cards

c)

Warning bells

d)

Green lights

68.

You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his concerns?

a)

Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation.

b)

Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias.

c)

Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

d)

Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring.

69.

An EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which way?

a)

The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety.

b)

The EMT is working with limited resources.

c)

An EMT's focus is on life threats first.

d)

Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis.

70.

When you begin interviewing your patient, he tells you that he has not felt well for several months, ever since he had his gallbladder removed. He goes on to tell you that he cannot get his wife to schedule a doctor's appointment for him and when she remembers to call, the office is always closed. Which of the following is the best way to proceed?

a)

Ask him for a list of his medications.

b)

Ask him why he decided to call 911 today.

c)

Begin your assessment of his vital signs.

d)

Try to call his doctor to schedule an appointment.

71.

Which of the following is one advantage of using heuristics?

a)

It slows the process of diagnosis.

b)

It allows you to treat the patient during diagnosis.

c)

It speeds up the process of diagnosis.

d)

It provides a more accurate diagnosis.

72.

You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and often goes unresponsive due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient's sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field diagnosis?

a)

Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took.

b)

You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice.

c)

Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

d)

Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong.

73.

You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient's unresponsiveness?

a)

Check the patient's blood glucose to rule out hypoglycemia.

b)

Examine the patient for signs of trauma.

c)

Perform a stroke scale on the patient.

d)

Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.

74.

Your patient is a 15-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is not appropriate during the focused exam?

a)

Assessing her mental status

b)

Looking at the use of her accessory muscles

c)

Checking her pupils for reactivity to light

d)

Listening to her lung sounds

75.

While assessing the past medical history of a 68-year-old male patient involved in a fall from a 4-foot stepladder, you use the acronym SAMPLE. What does the A refer to?

a)

Assessment

b)

Acute

c)

Auscultate

d)

Allergies

76.

When using the memory aid SAMPLE, which of the following would you do to determine L?

a)

Ask, "When was the last time you took your medicine?"

b)

Look at the patient's pupils.

c)

Listen to the patient's lung sounds.

d)

Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?"

77.

Mrs. Butler is a 66-year-old woman who is complaining of chest pain. Which of the following questions would be best in helping you determine if the pain is radiating?

a)

Does anything make the pain better or worse?

b)

Are you having pain in your arm?

c)

Are you having pain anywhere beside your chest?

d)

Are you experiencing any other symptoms?

78.

The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as:

a)

diagnostic thinking.

b)

critical thinking.

c)

clinical thinking.

d)

differential thinking.

79.

You have responded for a patient with shortness of breath. He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the last few hours. You ask if he has taken anything to help his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as:

a)

results of a physical exam.

b)

relevant past medical history.

c)

part of the SAMPLE history.

d)

the history of present illness.

80.

A description of a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the following?

a)

Red flag

b)

Clinical decision

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Critical thinking

81.

You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the following?

a)

Call the ALS unit to determine their ETA before deciding your next step.

b)

Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.

c)

Perform a detailed physical exam.

d)

Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam.

82.

For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate?

a)

A 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate

b)

A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing

c)

A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son

d)

A 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he "didn't seem like himself today"

83.

In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information?

a)

Baseline vital signs

b)

Patient's medical history

c)

Detailed physical exam

d)

Focused physical exam

84.

Where might you find a patient's medical alert identification jewelry?

a)

Bracelet

b)

Ankle bracelet

c)

Necklace

d)

All of the above

85.

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid assessment, you should look for clear drainage coming from the patient's _______ indicating a serious injury.

a)

mouth

b)

eyes

c)

ears

d)

rectum

86.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who complains of "twisting her ankle" when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is not appropriate?

a)

Secondary assessment

b)

Providing emotional support, if necessary

c)

Detailed physical exam

d)

Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain

87.

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag in place to collect digestive waste?

a)

Colostomy

b)

Stoma

c)

Tracheostomy

d)

Priapism

88.

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes?

a)

Tracheostomy

b)

Stoma

c)

Crepitation

d)

Pneumothorax

89.

You are assessing a patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask him?

a)

How fast was the vehicle going?

b)

Have you been in a crash before?

c)

How much fuel is in your car?

d)

Why were you in such a hurry?

90.

The term priapism means _______ and may be found in injuries of the _______.

a)

abnormal pulsation; abdomen

b)

a persistent penile erection; spine

c)

unequal pupils; brain

d)

a painful muscle spasm; spine

91.

The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following best describes this finding?

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Paradoxical motion

c)

Intercostal retractions

d)

Flutter segment

92.

If a patient complains of abdominal pain localized to a specific area of the abdomen, which of the following techniques should be used to assess the abdomen?

a)

Palpate the area at the beginning and end of the exam.

b)

Do not palpate the painful area.

c)

Palpate the painful area first.

d)

Palpate the painful area last.

93.

You are assessing a 21-year-old female who was assaulted by an unknown person. She is complaining of abdominal pain. As you perform a rapid assessment of her abdomen, you should check for all of the following except:

a)

Distention.

b)

Firmness.

c)

Contusions.

d)

Bowel sounds.

94.

Which of the following is another term for trauma?

a)

Injury

b)

Medical problem

c)

Illness

d)

Suffering

95.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle crash to find a middle-aged man on a long spine board being cared for by first responding firefighters. He appears to be bleeding from his head and he is unconscious. You should check the car for:

a)

A bent steering wheel or starred windshield.

b)

Insurance information or identification.

c)

A deployed passenger-side air bag.

d)

Personal items too valuable to leave on-scene.

96.

What does distention refer to when describing your patient's abdomen?

a)

Larger than normal

b)

Harder than normal

c)

Softer than normal

d)

Having a sunken-in appearance

97.

Which of the following is not a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment?

a)

To assess the extent of injuries

b)

To provide a basis for care during transport

c)

To detect injuries that may become life threatening

d)

To focus care on specific injuries

98.

You are assessing a 76-year-old male patient who has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene size-up and primary assessment. What should you do next?

a)

Reassessment

b)

Focused history assessment

c)

Secondary assessment

d)

Ongoing assessment

99.

When assessing a patient who has been stabbed, which of the following information should the EMT gain first?

a)

Angle at which the knife entered the patient

b)

Size and type of the knife

c)

Make and model of the knife

d)

Owner of the knife

100.

What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breathe or be placed on a ventilator?

a)

Priapism

b)

Tracheostomy

c)

Stoma

d)

Distention