wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

First Aid 2025 batch

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who was the originator of First Aid , also considered as 'FATHER OF FIRST AID' ?

a)

St John Ambulance Association

b)

Johann Friedrick August Von Esmarch

c)

Henri Dunat

d)

Grace Ashley -Smith & Lilian Franklin

2.

Who is considered the founder of modern nursing?

a)

Annie Besant

b)

Florence Nightingale

c)

Lilavati Munshi

d)

Sarojini Naidu

3.

Why are punctured wounds from a dog bite often considered more dangerous than simple lacerations?

a)

They bleed more profusely

b)

They are easier to clean with standard irrigation

c)

They can inoculate bacteria deep into tendons or bone

d)

They always require surgical drainage

4.

when assessing an unconscious casualty ,what does the 'A' in the DRSABCD acronym stand for ?

a)

Accident

b)

Airway

c)

Artery

d)

Assessment

5.

What is the recommended compression to ventilation Ratio for adult Cardiopulmonary (CPR) performed by a single rescuer?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

5:1

d)

30:5

6.

in case of severe burn,what is the primary first aid action to take immediately after ensuring the area is safe?

a)

Apply ice directly to the wound

b)

break blisters that form

c)

apply antibiotic ointment

d)

Cool the burn with running tepid water for 20 min

7.

A nurse should educate a patient to monitor for which early sign of localized infection after a dog bite?

a)

Scaling and dryness of the surrounding skin

b)

generalised body aches and chills

c)

Sudden decrease in pain at the wound site

d)

Increased redness ,warmth and purulent dischrge at the site

8.

A casualty is found with a deep wound to the forearm that is bleeding profusely.What is the most effective way to control this bleeding?

a)

wash the wound with soap and water

b)

Apply torniquet immediately

c)

Apply firm,direct pressure to the wound

d)

Elevate the limb only

9.

What is the first steps in the 'Heimlich Maneuver'(Abdominal Thursts) for a responsive adult who is choking and cannot breath?

a)

Start CPR immediately

b)

Force the casualty to drink water to keephim awake and the foreign body

c)

Give 5 back blows bettween the shoulder blades

d)

perform 5 chest thursts

10.

What is the primary purpose of 'recovery position' ?

a)

To make the patient comfortable for sleepinf

b)

To stop internal bleeding

c)

To reduce swelling

d)

to keep the airway open and prevent aspiration

11.

In first aid ,the acronyme RICE is used for treating sprains and strains .what does the 'C' stand for?

a)

COLD

b)

COMPRESSION

c)

CIRCULATION

d)

CAREFUL

12.

what should you do if you suspect a casualty has a spinal injury?

a)

Gently massage the neck to relieve pain

b)

keep the head and neck aligned and minimize movement

c)

Perform a 'log roll' immediately by yourself

d)

move them to a more comfortable chair

13.

A patient is having tonic clonic seizures .What is the correct first aid action?

a)

Restrain their limbs to stop the shaking

b)

Protect the head and time the seizure

c)

place a spoon in their mouth to prevent tongue biting

d)

Administer oral fluids immediately

14.

What does the the 'R' in the RICE acronym for treating soft tissue injuries stand for?

a)

Rest

b)

Reaction

c)

Raise

d)

Reduction

15.

when managing a patient who has ingested a corrosive acid,which action is strictly contraindicated?

a)

Maintaining a patent airway

b)

Inducing vomiting

c)

Diluting with water

d)

monitoring vital signs

16.

In ,mangement of compound (open) fracture ,what is the first aid priority for a nurse ?

a)

giving oral pain medication

b)

applying torniquet

c)

covering the wound with a sterile dressing

d)

Reducing the fracture

17.

which of the following is the correct first aid for a honey bee sting?

a)

Squeezing the stringer out with tweezer

b)

scrapping the stringer off with a flat- edged object

c)

applying hot compress immediately

d)

Applying torniquet above the sting

18.

According to the 'rule of 9' a burn covering the entire right arm and the anterior trunk of an adult represents what percentage of total body surface Area (TBSA)?

a)

27%

b)

13%

c)

36%

d)

18%

19.

If the patient is choking and becomes unconscious ,what is the next step in first aid?

a)

Perform a bling finger sweep

b)

Adminiter back blows only

c)

Continue Heimlinch Maneuver in a sitting position

d)

Lower the patient to the ground and start CPR

20.

What is the primary characteristics of arterial hemorrhage?

a)

Bright blood spurting in time with the pulse

b)

Dark blood flowing steadily

c)

slow even oozing of blood

d)

blood that clots instantly upon exposure to air

21.

What is the first step in first aid management of chemical burn to the eye?

a)

Rubbing the eye to stimulate tear production

b)

Irrigating with copious amounts of clean water for 20 minutes

c)

Applying an eye patch

d)

Neutralising the chemical with an opposite pH solution

22.

A greenstick fracture is most commonly seen in which population?

a)

Professional atheletes

b)

Elderly patients with osteoporosis

c)

post menopausal women

d)

Children

23.

What is the immediate priority for a nurse when a patient presents with a fresh ,bleeding dog bite on the forearm ?

a)

Applying a tight tourniquet above the bite site

b)

administering a tetanus toxoid booster

c)

suturing the wound to prevent scaring

d)

irrigating the wound with soap and running water for 15 minutes

24.

when assessing a dog bite,which clinical finding most strongly suggests an increased risk of infection?

a)

The dog was a domestic pet

b)

The bite is located on the face

c)

The patient is an immunocompromised individual

d)

The wound is superficial

25.

A patient is bitten by a dog of unknown vaccination status. In addition to wound care,what prophylactic measures is specifically aimed at preventing rabies?

a)

complete bed rest for 48 hours

b)

intramascular rabies vaccine and Rabies immunoglobulin(RIG)

c)

Oral amoxicillin- clavunate(AUGMENTIN)

d)

Application of topical iodine and a pressure bandage

26.

which microorganism is most commonly associated with infections following a dog bite ?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Pasteurella multocida

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Clostridium tetani

27.

During the nursing assessment of a dog bite victim what information about the animal is most critical for determining the rabies protocol?

a)

The breed and age of the Dog

b)

The colour and coat condition of the dog

c)

The size of the dog and the force of the bite

d)

whether the attack wasprovoked or unprovoked

28.

What is the recommeneded time duration for scrubbing a dog bite wound with soap and water to maximize the viral deactivation ?

a)

atleast 15 minutes

b)

Exactly 5 minutes

c)

2 minutes

d)

only until bleeding stops

29.

In the context of 'secondary intention ' healing for dog bites ,what should the nurse tell the patient ?

a)

A wound will be left open to heal from the bottom up

b)

The wound must be kept airtight with a plastic

c)

The wound will never scar if left open

d)

The wound will be closed with staples in 2 hours

30.

If Rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) is indicated,where should it ideally be administered?

a)

Injected intothe gluteal muscle (buttocks )

b)

Infiltrated as much as possible around the wound site

c)

intravenously (IV) for rapid distributed

d)

Applied topically to the surface of the dressing

31.

which clinical finding is the primary distinguishing factor between heat exhaustion and heat stroke?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Profuse sweating

c)

Nasea and vomiting

d)

Altered Mental status

32.

When managing a patient with severe hypothermia ,why must the nurse handle the patient very gently during transfer?

a)

To prevent localised frostbite

b)

To prevent skin tears

c)

To avoid triggering ventricular fibrillation

d)

To maintain a high core temperature

33.

In ' BE FAST ' acronym for stroke assessment ,what does the letter 'E' represent ?

a)

Eating difficulty

b)

Eyes (vision loss or blurring)

c)

Emergency call

d)

Ear (hearing loss)

34.

What is the recommended first aid cooling method for a patient suspected of having an exertional heat stroke?

a)

cold water immersion(ice bath)

b)

Evaporative cooling with tepid water and fans

c)

slowly sipping cold water

d)

applying a warm blanket to prevent shivering

35.

A patient is experiencing a stroke and has difficulty speaking and a facial droop . As a nurse ,which position is most appropriate for the patient while waiting for transport ?

a)

Sitting upright with legs dangling

b)

Side -lying (recovery) position on the affected side .

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

prone position

36.

Which of the following describes "passive rewarming" for a patient with mid hypothermia?

a)

Administering warm caffeinated tea

b)

applying electric heating pads to the groin

c)

using a heated IV fluid infusion

d)

Removing wet clothes and covering with dry blankets

37.

Why is it important to determine the 'Time of Last known well" for a stroke patient ?

a)

To document the patient's insurance coverage

b)

To Determine the eligibility for fibriolytic (clot busting) therapy

c)

To calcultae the patien's heart rate

d)

To decide which hospital department the patient will visit

38.

A patient with heat exhaustion is being treated .Which instruction should the nurse give regarding fluid replacement ?

a)

Drink hot coffee to stimulate circulation

b)

Avoid all fluids until seen by a doctor

c)

Drink an electrolyte -rich sports drink or ORS

d)

Drink only plain water in large quantities

39.

What is afterdrop in the context of rewarming a hypothermic patient ?

a)

A sudden spike in blood pressure during rewarming

b)

A skin rash caused by the application of heat

c)

A continued decline in core temperature after rewarming has begun

d)

The loss of consciousness after the patient becomes warm

40.

Which of these is a common symptoms of a stroke affecting the cerebellum?

a)

Loss of balance and coordination

b)

improved memory

c)

increased appetite

d)

Sudden growth spurt