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Worksheets

Prostart 2 Mega Review

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 26hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A group of people,customers/guests, who desire a product or service are called

a)

group.

b)

market.

c)

segment.

d)

community.

2.

The process of communicating a business's message to its market is called

a)

servicing.

b)

presenting.

c)

marketing.

d)

positioning.

3.

What consists of all of the food and services offered by an operation to guests?

a)

Presentation mix

b)

Communication mix

c)

Product-service mix

d)

Contemporary mix

4.

All of the elements that make an operation look unique are a part of the

a)

presentation mix.

b)

communication mix.

c)

Product-service mix.

d)

Contemporary marketing mix.

5.

The ways in which an operation actively tries to reach its desired guests through advertising, are part of the operation's

a)

presentation mix.

b)

communication mix.

c)

product-service mix.

d)

contemporary marketing mix.

6.

The list of steps an operation must take to sell a product or service is called a

a)

marketing plan.

b)

promotion mix.

c)

research report.

d)

mission statement.

7.

Which part of a SWOT analysis identifies the factors outside the operation that could decrease revenues or increase costs?

a)

Strengths

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

d)

Threats

8.

Paying to present or promote an operation's products, services, or identity is called

a)

advertising.

b)

personal selling.

c)

public relations.

d)

direct marketing.

9.

Limited, or short-term, incentives to entice guests to patronize and operation are knows as

a)

advertising.

b)

personal selling.

c)

sales promotions.

d)

direct marketing.

10.

The process by which an operation interacts with the community a large is called

a)

advertising.

b)

personal selling.

c)

public relations.

d)

direct marketing.

11.

The first step in any marketing plan is to

a)

establish objectives.

b)

research the market.

c)

develop a market strategy.

d)

evaluate feedback from customers.

12.

The presentation mix consists of

a)

all the foods and services offered to customers.

b)

the ways an operation actively tries to communicate.

c)

all the elements that make an operation unique.

d)

all the ways an operation actively tries to communicate with its desired customers.

13.

After marketers have completed a thorough research phase, what is the next step?

a)

Develop a market strategy.

b)

Implement the action plan.

c)

Modify the action plan.

d)

Establish objectives.

14.

The way the marketing strategy is put into practice is called the

a)

marketing plan.

b)

action plan.

c)

marketing mix.

d)

public relations mix.

15.

A SWOT analysis focuses on a company's strengths, weakness, opportunities, and

a)

threats.

b)

tasks.

c)

technology.

d)

turnover.

16.

What is the last of the five main components of a marketing plan?

a)

Develop a marketing strategy.

b)

Implement the advertising.

c)

Implement an action plan.

d)

Evaluate/modify the action plan

17.

A marketing plan is the steps marketers must take to sell a product or service.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

In a SWOT analysis for an operation, the 'O" stands for, organization.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

In a SWOT analysis for an operation, the "S" stands for, Strategy.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

In a SWOT analysis for an operation, the "T" stands for, Threats.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

This technique is to cut a piece of meat lengthwise nearly in half so that it opens out and lies flat.

a)

Scallops

b)

Emince

c)

butterflying

d)

offal

22.

This type of connective tissue will break down during the cooking process of meat.

a)

Gristle

b)

Elastin

c)

Sliverskin

d)

Collagen

23.

The grade of meat that measures the edible or usable portion of meat after being trimmed is called?

a)

yield

b)

quality

c)

USDA A

d)

a serving

24.

Thin, boneless cuts of meat that are lightly pounded are called?

a)

scallops

b)

noisettes

c)

tenderloin

d)

medallions

25.

Beef is firmest when it is cooked how well?

a)

Fare

b)

Medium

c)

Well done

d)

Medium well

26.

Fresh meat must be delivered at what temperature or lower?

a)

21 degrees F

b)

31 degrees F

c)

41 degrees F

d)

51 degrees F

27.

What are small, round pieces of meat that are molded by wrapping them in cheese cloth called?

a)

Medallions

b)

Noisettes

c)

Scallops

d)

Tenderloin

28.

Marinating tenderizes and make meat more

a)

lean

b)

flavorful

c)

chewy

d)

well-done

29.

In order for the muscle tissue to relax, meat must be aged for at least how many hours?

a)

4 to 20 hours

b)

20 to 48 hours

c)

48 to 72 hours

d)

72 to 96 hours

30.

The highest quality USDA grade of beef is what?

a)

Good

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Prime

31.

When using a meat mallet to soften the fibers of meat is known as?

a)

Tenderizing

b)

Grinding

c)

Marinating

d)

Scoring

32.

When preparing meat to be sautéed, what technique is best?

a)

Tossed in mirepoix

b)

dipped quickly in marinade

c)

scoring the top lightly

d)

dusted lightly with flour

33.

The internal cooking temperature for a large beef roast is __

a)

135 degree F

b)

140 degree F

c)

145 degree F

d)

155 degree F

34.

The quality grade of meat is evaluated by the _to determine its tenderness, juiciness and flavor.

a)

FDA

b)

USDA

c)

UL

d)

CFIA

35.

Cuts of meat that are ready for sale, either primal cuts or fabricated portions, what am I called?

a)

choice cuts

b)

Emince

c)

Offal cuts

d)

Retail cuts

36.

I am a small round , boneless, tender cuts of meat. Also the French word for hazelnuts.

a)

scallop

b)

Noisettes

c)

Prime

d)

Round

37.

True or False? Meat does need to be purchased from meat processing plants that are inspected by the FDA.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

True or False? The two grades for meat are quality grade and choice grade.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Quality Grade measure the flavor characteristics of meat products. Which is not an indicator for this?

a)

juiciness

b)

tenderness

c)

freshness

d)

flavor

40.

Game meat are animals not raised domestically. Which one is not considered "game meat"?

a)

Deer

b)

squirrel

c)

Wild boar

d)

Elk

41.

True or False. Offal is considered to be the feet and hooves of animals.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

True or False. Veal meat is from baby cows processed up to 15 weeks old.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

When aging beef all the following happens to the meat except what?

a)

helps preserve the nutritional value of the meat

b)

Helps lengthen the muscle fibers

c)

Increases tenderness of meat

d)

meat continues to darken & flavor improves

44.

what cooking application is the best method to tenderize large cuts of meat. This will break down collagen & connective tissue.

a)

stewing

b)

braising

c)

both stewing and braising

d)

grilling

45.

Which cooking method is BEST for a cut of meat with a lot of marbling?

a)

Braising

b)

Broiling

c)

Poaching

d)

Stewing

46.

Cream contains far more fat than milk.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Margarine is a manufactured product that is a common butter substitute but contains no milk products.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Unripened cheeses are soft and have a high moisture content.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

By law, liquid, frozen, and shell eggs must be homogenized.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

With one part milk and one part cream, half-and-half technically does not have enough fat in it to be called cream.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Milk that has been heated to destroy harmful bacteria has been

a)

Condensed

b)

Evaporated

c)

Pasteurized

d)

Homogenized

52.

Eggs cooked for immediate service should reach what internal temperature for at least 15 seconds?

a)

135°F (57°C)

b)

145°F (63°C)

c)

155°F (68°C)

d)

165°F (74°C)

53.

Eggs are constantly stirred during which cooking method?

a)

Frying

b)

Shirring

c)

Poaching

d)

Scrambling

54.

A savory egg custard baked in a crust is called a(n)

a)

omelet

b)

quiche

c)

souffle

d)

frittata

55.

The cooking time for hard-boiled eggs is how many minutes?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

10

d)

15

56.

Soufflés are made with egg yolks and whipped

a)

egg yolks

b)

egg whites

c)

whole eggs

d)

dried eggs

57.

Which type of dairy milk is made from milk by removing 60% of the water?

a)

Skim

b)

Evaporated

c)

Condensed

d)

Buttermilk

58.

The process in which dairies make cheese by separating a milk’s solids from its liquid is called

a)

Curdling

b)

Clarification

c)

Pasteurization

d)

homogenization

59.

Which type of cheese has mold injected or sprayed into the cheese to spread throughout it while it ages?

a)

Blue-Veined

b)

Soft-Ripened

c)

Firm, Ripened

d)

Unripened, Fresh

60.

Which type of plant-based milk is often fortified with vitamins and has a slightly nutty flavor with a rich texture?

a)

Soy

b)

Rice

c)

Almond

d)

Coconut

61.

The membranes that hold the egg yolk in place are called

a)

albumen

b)

shell

c)

chalazae

d)

white

62.

Which type of dairy milk is the least creamy and lowest in calories?

a)

Low fat

b)

Skim

c)

Lactose-free

d)

Whole

63.

Which variety of cheese are Asiago and Parmigiano-Reggiano?

a)

Unripened, fresh

b)

Soft-ripened

c)

Semisoft, ripened

d)

Very hard, ripened

64.

Which cooking method is used to make eggs Benedict and eggs Florentine?

a)

Baking

b)

Frying

c)

Poaching

d)

Simmering

65.

Cheddar and Gruyère are examples of which type of cheese?

a)

Soft-ripened

b)

Firm, ripened

c)

Semisoft, ripened

d)

Very hard, ripened

66.

Milk that has been strained through very fine holes to break down fat and then blended into one fluid has been

a)

pasteurized.

b)

condensed.

c)

homogenized.

d)

evaporated.

67.

Cottage cheese and ricotta are examples of what type of cheese?

a)

Blue-veined

b)

Soft-ripened

c)

Firm, ripened

d)

Unripened, fresh

68.

Frying an egg on the bottom and then turning it over and frying it very lightly on its top side is called

a)

up

b)

basted

c)

over easy

d)

scrambled

69.

What size egg is the largest?

a)

Large

b)

Extra Large

c)

Super Large

d)

Jumbo

70.

Eggs that are cracked open and combined in a container are called

a)

shirred

b)

poached

c)

soft-cooked

d)

pooled

71.

The garde-manger is the person responsible for preparation of which items in the kitchen

a)

Cold food and cold plate presentations

b)

Sandwiches and hot breakfast items

c)

Yeast breads, rolls, and pastries

d)

Stocks, soups, and sauces

72.

Bound salads are made from primary ingredients such as

a)

Fresh greens

b)

Frozen vegetables

c)

Canned fruits

d)

Cooked pastas

73.

A small amount of potato salad would be appropriate as which type of salad

a)

Main course

b)

Intermezzo

c)

Accompaniment

d)

Dessert

74.

The four basic parts of a salad are

a)

Lettuce, meat, cheese, and dressing

b)

Lettuce, garnish, base, and dressing

c)

Base, body, garnish, and olives

d)

Base, body, garnish, and dressing

75.

Which raw enzyme-containing fruit dissolves gelatin?

a)

Pineapple

b)

Cherry

c)

Orange

d)

Plantain

76.

The most appropriate salad green to match with vinaigrette dressing made from walnut oil and balsamic vinegar is

a)

Curly endive

b)

Iceberg

c)

Romaine

d)

arugula

77.

The function of garnish in salad is to be

a)

Decorative

b)

Compliments taste while enhancing appearance

c)

Re-purposing the leftovers

d)

Base for a salad

78.

What dressing should be used in a chicken salad

a)

Emulsified vinaigrette

b)

Vinaigrette

c)

Mayonnaise

d)

Suspension mixture

79.

The binding agent in mayonnaise is

a)

Egg yolks

b)

Cornstarch

c)

Oil

d)

Cream

80.

Which type of menu offers breakfast, lunch, or dinner at any time of day?

a)

california

b)

flex

c)

open kithcen

d)

unlimited

81.

Which is a benefit of choosing to buy a ready-made product?

a)

food costs will decrease

b)

equipment needs will increase

c)

specifications are less likely to be met

d)

the finished dish will be more consistent

82.

which kind of leavener provides product rise when making quick breads?

a)

air

b)

organic

c)

mechanical

d)

chemical

83.

How does an operation determine its food cost?

a)

(closing inventory + supply purchases) - opening inventory

b)

(total supply inventory + supply purchases) - revenue

c)

(opening inventory + purchases) - closing inventory

d)

(opening inventory + labor cost) - closing inventory

84.

In a channel of distribution, wholesalers, suppliers, and distributors are considered to be

a)

caterers

b)

primary sources

c)

retailers

d)

intermediaries

85.

Which ingredients are most likely to be found in a cassoulet?

a)

Oysters and spinach

b)

saurkraut and pork

c)

beans and meat

d)

chicken and rice

86.

the garde manger is the person responsible for preparation of which items in the kitchen?

a)

cold food and cold plate presentation

b)

sandwiches and hot breakfast items

c)

yest breads, rolls, and pastries

d)

stocks, soups, and sauces

87.

How is a panini sandwich prepared?

a)

deep-fried

b)

grilled

c)

open-faced

d)

layered

88.

Bound salads are made from primary ingredients such as

a)

fresh greens

b)

frozen vegetables

c)

canned fruits

d)

cooked pastas

89.

How are menu items calculated by the food percentage method?

a)

item food cost/food cost percentage

b)

contribution margin + food cost

c)

food cost x markup percentage

d)

total nonfood cost + target profit

90.

Which cooking method is best for very lean fish?

a)

grilling

b)

broiling

c)

poaching

d)

baking

91.

which item makes baked goods moist and keep them fresh longer?

a)

eggs

b)

flavoring

c)

flour

d)

fat

92.

the process of breaking down organic material to form fertilizer is known as

a)

conserving

b)

controlling

c)

culturing

d)

composting

93.

a small amount of potato salad would be appropriate as which type of salad?

a)

main course

b)

intermezzo

c)

accompaniment

d)

dessert

94.

What traditional form of breakfast potatoes are shredded or chopped raw before being cooked?

a)

home-fried

b)

hashed brown

c)

french fried

d)

mashed

95.

Why does the cost of food sold NOT equal the cost of actual sold food?

a)

the purchasing manager did not order enough food

b)

end of month inventories were not done correctly

c)

allowances need to be made for waste, employee meals, and promotions

d)

costing of the recipes was done incorrectly

96.

the four basic parts of a salad are

a)

lettuce, meat, cheese, and dresing

b)

lettuce, garnish, base, and dressing

c)

base, body, garnish, and olives

d)

base, body, garnish, and dressing

97.

a profit and loss report is a compilation of which two items?

a)

labor and revenue costs

b)

production and labor costs

c)

sales and revenue

d)

sales and costs

98.

which option shows the correct progression of milk fat content from lowest to highest?

a)

skim, whole, condensed, half and half, heavy cream

b)

low fat, skim, light cream, evaporated, whipping cream

c)

evaporated, condensed, whole, whey, half and half

d)

2%, skim, whole, light cream, heavy cream

99.

an operatin that wants to buy food produced by local sources should

a)

incude local sources that supply in bulk

b)

buy products locally even if the cost is slightly more

c)

start small and look for logical opportunities

d)

include local sources that can provide supplies year round

100.

Which distribution channel does a farmer represent?

a)

intermediary

b)

primary

c)

retailer

d)

distributor

101.

materials that are desirable for composting include

a)

coffee grounds and paper napkins

b)

coffee grounds and fish bones

c)

fish bones and leftover baked goods

d)

leftover baked goods and oils

102.

Offering 2-for-1 appetizers every Friday between 3:00pm and 5:00pm is considered which type of market communication?

a)

sales promotion

b)

public relations

c)

advertising

d)

personal selling

103.

How is the biscuit method for making quick breads different from other methods?

a)

a fat is rubbed or cut into the flour until the mixture is mealy or bumpy in appearance

b)

it contributes increased flavor and richness

c)

all ingredients are added at the same time to create the same texture

d)

mixing produces a stiff batter with a slightly chewier texture

104.

Which raw, enzyme-containing fruit dissolves gelatin?

a)

pineapple

b)

cherry

c)

orange

d)

plantain