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Hematology Quiz 1

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a critical cofactor for delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase during heme synthesis?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iron

c)

Magnesium

d)

Copper

2.

Which of the following signaling pathways is pivotal in thrombopoietin-mediated megakaryocyte differentiation?

a)

JAK-STAT pathway

b)

NF-κB pathway

c)

MAPK pathway

d)

PI3K-AKT pathway

3.

The transcription factor PU.1 is essential for the lineage commitment of:

a)

Megakaryocytes

b)

Myeloid cells

c)

Erythroid cells

d)

Lymphoid cells

4.

In the bone marrow niche, osteoblasts primarily regulate:

a)

Megakaryopoiesis

b)

Granulopoiesis

c)

HSC quiescence

d)

Erythropoiesis

5.

During ineffective erythropoiesis in thalassemia, the predominant cause of apoptosis is dysregulation of:

a)

BCL-2 family proteins

b)

Fas/FasL pathway

c)

Caspase-9 activation

d)

p53 upregulation

6.

Which of the following cell surface receptors mediates hepcidin binding, regulating iron export from enterocytes and macrophages?

a)

Transferrin receptor 1

b)

Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1)

c)

Ferroportin

d)

HFE protein

7.

Which of the following best describes the erythroid maturation stage where hemoglobin synthesis peaks?

a)

Proerythroblast

b)

Basophilic erythroblast

c)

Polychromatic erythroblast

d)

Orthochromatic erythroblast

8.

The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is vital in red cells for the generation of:

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

2,3-BPG

d)

Lactate

9.

What is the principal mechanism leading to neutrophil egress from the bone marrow storage pool into circulation?

a)

Downregulation of CXCR4

b)

Upregulation of G-CSF receptor

c)

Desensitization to SCF

d)

Activation of integrins

10.

Which of the following best explains why mature RBCs are incapable of synthesizing proteins?

a)

Loss of mitochondria

b)

Loss of ribosomes

c)

Loss of Golgi apparatus

d)

All of the above

11.

The primary cause of anemia in anemia of chronic disease is:

a)

Impaired erythropoietin production

b)

Increased RBC destruction

c)

Iron sequestration by macrophages

d)

Hemolysis due to oxidative stress

12.

Which of the following platelet surface receptors is primarily responsible for adhesion to von Willebrand factor?

a)

GPIIb/IIIa

b)

GPIa/IIa

c)

GPIb-IX-V

d)

GPVI

13.

The reticuloendothelial system removes senescent RBCs primarily via:

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Complement-mediated lysis

c)

Hemolysis in liver sinusoids

d)

Mechanical filtration in the kidney

14.

In hemoglobin catabolism, the rate-limiting step for bilirubin conjugation in hepatocytes is mediated by:

a)

Bilirubin oxidase

b)

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

c)

Biliverdin reductase

d)

Heme oxygenase

15.

The storage form of iron in cells is:

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Hemosiderin

d)

Ceruloplasmin

16.

Which of the following describes the function of erythroferrone?

a)

Inhibits erythropoiesis during infection

b)

Suppresses hepcidin to increase iron availability

c)

Stimulates ferroportin synthesis in enterocytes

d)

Inhibits macrophage iron recycling

17.

The late cytoplasmic marker that distinguishes mature megakaryocytes from earlier progenitors is:

a)

CD34

b)

CD41 (GPIIb)

c)

CD61 (GPIIIa)

d)

CD42b (GPIbα)

18.

In which phase of the cell cycle does endomitosis occur in megakaryocytes?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

Between S and M phase without cytokinesis

19.

The rapid turnover of granulocytes is due to their high expression of:

a)

BAX

b)

BCL-2

c)

Caspase-8

d)

FasL

20.

Which of the following plasma proteins preferentially binds free heme during intravascular hemolysis?

a)

Haptoglobin

b)

Hemopexin

c)

Albumin

d)

Transferrin

21.

The Rapoport-Luebering shunt is unique to erythrocytes and is responsible for:

a)

Regeneration of NADPH

b)

Production of 2,3-BPG

c)

Maintaining glutathione in reduced form

d)

Recycling methemoglobin

22.

Which of the following cytokines synergizes with thrombopoietin in stimulating early megakaryocyte progenitors?

a)

IL-3

b)

IL-6

c)

IL-11

d)

SCF (Stem Cell Factor)

23.

The main transcription factor promoting lymphoid lineage commitment is:

a)

PU.1

b)

Ikaros

c)

GATA-1

d)

E2A

24.

During terminal erythroid maturation, the enucleation process involves:

a)

Apoptosis-like programmed cell death

b)

Actin cytoskeleton remodeling via Rac GTPases

c)

Macrophage engulfment of entire erythroblasts

d)

Passive extrusion due to hemoglobin accumulation

25.

Hemoglobin F has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin A because of:

a)

Reduced interaction with 2,3-BPG

b)

Increased heme iron oxidation

c)

Higher levels of nitric oxide binding

d)

Higher cooperativity between subunits

26.

Which of the following explains the high proliferative capacity of hematopoietic stem cells despite DNA damage stress?

a)

High expression of p21

b)

Enhanced DNA repair by homologous recombination

c)

Increased reactive oxygen species production

d)

Constitutive p53 activation

27.

Which of the following statements regarding platelet lifespan is correct?

a)

They are cleared primarily by Kupffer cells in the liver

b)

Apoptosis is mediated by intrinsic mitochondrial pathway

c)

Clearance is solely dependent on spleen macrophages

d)

Platelets do not undergo programmed cell death

28.

Erythropoietin exerts its biological effect by activating:

a)

MAPK and PI3K pathways exclusively

b)

JAK2 and STAT5 signaling

c)

GATA-1 suppression

d)

NF-κB pathway exclusively

29.

The process of hemoglobin switching from fetal to adult type involves suppression of:

a)

BCL11A

b)

KLF1

c)

SOX6

d)

LRF (Leukemia/lymphoma-related factor)

30.

Which of the following is the correct term for the measure of blood cell production relative to peripheral destruction?

a)

Corrected reticulocyte production index

b)

Absolute reticulocyte count

c)

Bone marrow cellularity

d)

Hemoglobin concentration