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Economics Final Exam Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Societies are faced with three basic questions about the production of goods?

a)

what, how, and why

b)

what, where, and when

c)

what, how, and for whom

d)

when, where, and for whom

2.

Which of the following descriptions best explains the meaning of opportunity cost?

a)

The initial cost of starting a new business.

b)

The cost of business failure.

c)

The cost of choosing one alternative over another.

d)

The risk associated with producing a new item.

3.

Which of the factors of production involves taking risks and combining resources to produce a good or service?

a)

Land

b)

Labor

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurs

4.

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a production possibilities frontier?

a)

It predicts the future production of a nation.

b)

It identifies trends in production.

c)

It shows which products are most profitable.

d)

It identifies all possible combinations of goods and services an economy can produce.

5.

Which of these economic systems have the least in common?

a)

Market economy and capitalism

b)

Command economy and socialism

c)

Command economy and capitalism

d)

Free-enterprise economy and market economy.

6.

Which type of economy is the most prevalent in the world today?

a)

Mixed

b)

Market

c)

Command

d)

Traditional

7.

The dollar value of all final goods, services, and structures produced in a country in a year is known as ?

a)
Gross Domestic Product
b)

Gross National Product

c)

Franchise

d)

Profit motive

8.

The struggle among sellers to attract customers by offering the best products at the lowest prices is known as ?

a)

Voluntary exchange

b)

Profit motive

c)

Property rights

d)
Competition
9.

Private property rights give people the incentive to work, save, and .

a)

Purchase

b)

Invest

c)

Compete

d)
Produce
10.

A general rise in the level of prices over time is known as .

a)
Inflation
b)

Deflation

c)

Stagflation

d)

Hyperinflation

11.

When the price of something increases, the quantity demanded .

a)

Increases

b)
Decreases
c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Reverses

12.

Consider the term marginal utility. Which word is the best synonym for marginal?

a)
Useful
b)

Satisfactory

c)

Borderline

d)

Additional

13.

What is the main cause of a change in quantity demanded?

a)

Substitution

b)

Changes in revenue

c)

Change in price

d)

The income effect

14.

Which of the following replaces a costly item with a less costly one?

a)

The substitution effect

b)

The income effect

c)

Change in demand

d)

Consumer taste

15.

Which is a likely complement to a table computer?

a)

DVDs

b)

Movie tickets

c)

Apps

d)

Pencils

16.

For which product is demand likely to be the most elastic?

a)

A product with no substitutes

b)

A product with inadequate substitutes

c)

A product with many adequate substitutes

d)

It is impossible to tell

17.

Which of these best describes the influence of high prices on the behavior of producers?

a)

They are an incentive for producers to produce more.

b)

They are an incentive for producers to buy less.

c)

They encourage producers to modify their supply schedules.

d)

They have no significant overall effect on producers’ behavior.

18.

Which of these is an example of a fixed cost?

a)

Labor

b)

Delivery charge for output

c)

State and local property taxes

d)

Charges for a factory’s electrical use

19.

Which of these is an example of a variable cost?

a)

Raw materials

b)

The interest fees on bonds

c)

State and local property taxes

d)

Charges for a factory’s electrical use

20.

Which term denotes the change in total income when one additional unit of output is added?

a)

Total product

b)

Supply schedule

c)

Change in supply

d)

Marginal revenue

21.

Which of these tends to force the price of an item downward?

a)

A surplus of that item

b)

A shortage of that item

c)

Attainment of an equilibrium price for that item

d)

Attainment of an equilibrium quantity of that item

22.

Which of these tends to force the price of an item upward?

a)

A surplus of that item

b)

A shortage of that item

c)

Attainment of an equilibrium price for that item

d)

Attainment of an equilibrium quantity of that item.

23.

Equilibrium is reached when what occurs?

a)

Quantity supplied equals quantity demanded

b)

There is no change in the quantity supplied

c)

Price increases

d)

Prices are inelastic

24.

What do price ceilings and price floors prevent?

a)

Shortages

b)

Surpluses

c)

Prices reaching equilibrium

d)

Benefits to consumers

25.

Which market structure is defined by a single producer?

a)

Pure competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

26.

Which of the following can cause a market failure?

a)

Too much mobility

b)

Too much competition

c)

Not enough information

d)

Too much information

27.

In the economic term oligopoly, the word part “olig-” probably means?

a)

Few

b)

Single

c)

All

d)

One

28.

When a factory pollutes a river, the resulting water pollution is an example of a ?

a)

Technological monopoly

b)

Public good

c)
Negative externality
d)

Neutral spillover effect

29.

The Sherman Act, the Clayton Act, and the Federal Trade Commission Act were all designed to.

a)

Ensure competition

b)

Promote trusts

c)

Create public goods

d)

Extend mortgages

30.

A business run by a single person is a ?

a)

Partnership

b)

Corporation

c)
Sole proprietorship
d)

Limited liability corporation

31.

When a union negotiates pay and other job-related matters, this is called .

a)
Collective bargaining
b)

Going on strike

c)

Cooperative bargaining

d)

Accessing resources

32.

Which activity is illegal in a state with a right-to-work law?

a)

Joining a union

b)

Denying any qualified worker a job

c)

Requiring a higher hourly rate for overtime hours

d)

Requiring union membership as a condition of employment

33.

Which of the following tactics is used only by management?

a)

Picket

b)

Lockout

c)

Boycott

d)

Negotiation

34.

Which word is a good synonym for the word barter in the term barter economy?

a)

Trade

b)

Borrow

c)

Save

d)

Invest

35.

Which of the following is a basic characteristic of money?

a)

Portability

b)

Durability

c)

Divisibility

d)

All the above

36.

Which of the following is one of the three functions of money?

a)

Portability

b)

Scarcity

c)

Store of value

d)

Divisibility

37.

The Federal Reserve is the nation’s bank.

a)

Only

b)

First

c)

Oldest

d)
Central
38.

When making a risky investment, investors usually demand a .

a)
Higher compensation
b)

Higher selling price

c)

Lower compensation

d)

Lower purchasing price

39.

Which of the following terms describes a strong stock market?

a)

Bull market

b)

Bear market

c)

Spot market

d)

Futures market

40.

What is the main difference between Treasury bonds, Treasury notes, and Treasury bills?

a)

The amount of time for maturity

b)

The interest rate

c)

The minimum purchase requirement

d)

The method of sale

41.

Which of these is an example of an intermediate product?

a)

A new computer monitor sold alone

b)

A secondhand computer monitor sold alone

c)

A computer monitor packaged as part of a new computer system

d)

A computer monitor that has been broken and needs replacement.

42.

A decline in real GDP usually lasting two quarters or more is called a ____?

a)

Recession

b)

Business fluctuation

c)

Peak

d)

Business cycle

43.

A period of recovery from a recession is known as a ____?

a)

An econometric model

b)

A trough

c)

An expansion

d)

A peak

44.

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) was created to ____?

a)

Prevent working people from being exploited by employers

b)

Provide modest bank insurance for depositors

c)

Regulate new companies that were soliciting funds from investors

d)

Help people provide for their own retirement

45.

When the general level of prices rises, the economy is experiencing ____?

a)

Construction

b)

Stagflation

c)

Deflation

d)

Inflation

46.

Which of the following is NOT a form of unemployment?

a)

Underemployment

b)

Long-term unemployment

c)

Frictional unemployment

d)

structural unemployment

47.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of inflation?

a)

Wage-price spiral

b)

Reducing purchasing power

c)

Cost-push

d)

Demand-pull

48.

An effective tax is one that exhibits one or more of the following characteristics.

a)

Equity

b)

Simplicity

c)

Efficiency

d)

All the above

49.

In discussing taxes, what is the opposite of regressive?

a)

Progressive

b)

Flat

c)

Value-added

d)

Alternative

50.

Which of the following is NOT an example of federal mandatory spending?

a)

Social security

b)

National defense

c)

Income security

d)

Medicare

51.

What is the main purpose of a sin tax?

a)

Business investment

b)

Behavior adjustment

c)

Income redistribution

d)

Resource allocation

52.

Fiscal policy may involve ____.

a)

Estimating the GDP

b)

Regulating labor unions

c)

Recognizing an economic problem

d)

Taxing corporations

53.

In the model, GDP = C + I + G + (X – M), “G” stands for ____.

a)

Government spending

b)

Growth

c)

Gross domestic product

d)

General revenue

54.

Which of the following groups does supply-side policy target through stimulation?

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Workers

d)

Government

55.

What do banks do with customer deposits?

a)

They use them to conduct monetary policy.

b)

They use them to enforce wage-price controls.

c)

They keep a portion as legal reserves and loan out a portion at interest.

d)

They use a portion to calculate interest rates and keep a portion as legal reserves.

56.

The Fed’s main tools for conducting monetary policy are:

a)

Open market operations, discount rate, and reserve requirements

b)

Taxation, government spending, and subsidies

c)

Import tariffs, export quotas, and trade agreements

d)

Minimum wage laws, labor unions, and price controls

57.

Which of these is a prominent feature of monetary policy?

a)

Adjusting government expenditures to stimulate the economy

b)

Adjusting tax rates to stimulate the economy

c)

Adjusting interest rates to stimulate the economy

d)

Adjusting discretionary spending to stimulate the economy

58.

What does a domestic protective tariff seek to protect?

a)

Protectionists

b)

Revenue

c)

Free trade

d)

Domestic industries

59.

Country A can produce more coal than Country B. An economist would say that Country A has ____ over Country B.

a)

An export advantage

b)

A comparative advantage

c)

An absolute advantage

d)

A production possibility advantage

60.

The three synonymous terms to describe the U.S. economy system are free enterprise, capitalism, and ______.

a)

Limited government.

b)

Competition

c)

Free market

d)

Economic freedom