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FFM (Ch.5-6-7-8) Quiz_TVM_Interest Rates_Bonds_Risk&Return_

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the future value of $1,000 invested for 3 years at 6% interest compounded annually?

a)

$1,180.00

b)

$1,191.02

c)

$1,200.00

d)

$1,196.00

e)

$1,159.27

2.

The present value of $1,500 received 4 years from now at 8% discount rate is:

a)

$1,103.60

b)

$1,111.12

c)

$1,201.10

d)

$1,289.00

e)

$1,028.88

3.

If interest is compounded quarterly, what is the effective annual rate (EAR) of a nominal 12% annual interest rate?

a)

12.55%

b)

12.00%

c)

12.36%

d)

12.68%

e)

13.10%

4.

The difference between simple and compound interest increases with:

a)

Higher inflation

b)

Lower interest rates

c)

Shorter periods

d)

Longer time and higher interest rates

e)

Declining market rates

5.

What is the present value of an ordinary annuity of $500 received annually for 5 years if the discount rate is 10%?

a)

$2,372.43

b)

$1,895.20

c)

$2,000.00

d)

$2,564.00

e)

$2,190.30

6.

What is the future value of a $200 annuity paid annually for 6 years at 7% interest?

a)

$1,435.62

b)

$1,523.10

c)

$1,638.61

d)

$1,721.30

e)

$1,580.50

7.

An annuity due differs from an ordinary annuity in that payments are:

a)

More frequent

b)

Made at the end of each period

c)

Made at the beginning of each period

d)

Made semi-annually

e)

Deferred

8.

The effective annual rate (EAR) is:

a)

Always equal to nominal rate

b)

Lower when compounding is monthly

c)

Higher than nominal rate if interest is compounded more than once a year

d)

Unrelated to compounding

e)

Used only for loans

9.

The present value of a perpetuity is calculated as:

a)

PV = PMT × n

b)

PV = PMT / (1 + r)^n

c)

PV = PMT / r

d)

PV = FV × r

e)

PV = PMT / (1 + r × n)

10.

Which factor does NOT affect the future value of a lump sum?

a)

The interest rate

b)

The number of periods

c)

The frequency of compounding

d)

Inflation expectations

e)

The initial investment

11.

Which statement is TRUE about time value of money?

a)

A dollar today is worth less than a dollar in future

b)

Present value decreases with lower interest

c)

Future value is independent of compounding

d)

Annuities have same PV regardless of timing

e)

PV of money increases as discount rate decreases

12.

The interest rate that equates the present and future value is called:

a)

Real rate

b)

Coupon rate

c)

Internal rate

d)

Discount rate

e)

Spot rate

13.

If the future value of an investment is known, the present value can be found by:

a)

Multiplying by interest

b)

Discounting

c)

Compounding

d)

Dividing by time

e)

Adding inflation

14.

Which is closest to the future value of $1,000 invested for 2 years at 9% semiannual compounding?

a)

$1,180.56

b)

$1,188.10

c)

$1,196.41

d)

$1,120.50

e)

$1,150.00

15.

The real risk-free rate (r*) represents:

a)

Return including inflation and taxes

b)

Nominal yield minus taxes

c)

Return expected on a riskless security with zero inflation

d)

Rate set by the Federal Reserve

e)

Nominal rate with inflation premium

16.

Which of the following premiums is NOT part of the nominal interest rate?

a)

Default risk premium

b)

Liquidity premium

c)

Inflation premium

d)

Political risk premium

e)

Maturity risk premium

17.

If the real risk-free rate is 2%, and inflation is expected to be 3%, what is the nominal risk-free rate?

a)

5%

b)

6%

c)

1%

d)

2%

e)

3%

18.

The term structure of interest rates is also known as:

a)

Interest rate parity

b)

Duration analysis

c)

The yield curve

d)

Time value analysis

e)

Default structure

19.

A steep upward-sloping yield curve usually indicates:

a)

Interest rates are expected to fall

b)

Investors prefer short-term bonds

c)

Inflation is expected to decrease

d)

Interest rates are expected to rise

e)

Recession is imminent

20.

The default risk premium compensates for:

a)

Inflation

b)

Time value of money

c)

The possibility that a borrower may not repay

d)

Federal Reserve interventions

e)

Tax impacts

21.

Which of the following bonds would likely have the HIGHEST interest rate?

a)

Treasury bond

b)

Municipal bond

c)

Corporate junk bond

d)

AAA-rated corporate bond

e)

TIPS

22.

If the real rate is 2%, the inflation premium is 4%, and default and liquidity premiums are each 1%, what is the approximate nominal rate?

a)

8%

b)

6%

c)

7%

d)

9%

e)

5%

23.

Which statement about liquidity premium is true?

a)

It is higher for Treasury bonds

b)

It is added when assets are easily tradable

c)

It is zero for all securities

d)

It compensates for lack of marketability

e)

It applies only to equities

24.

Which is NOT a factor that influences market interest rates?

a)

Expected inflation

b)

Central bank policy

c)

Tax rates

d)

Supply and demand for funds

e)

Risk-free real rate

25.

A flat yield curve suggests:

a)

Long-term rates are higher

b)

Short-term rates are higher

c)

Interest rates are expected to stay constant

d)

Default risk is very high

e)

Strong economic growth

26.

The yield on long-term securities is usually:

a)

Lower due to lower risk

b)

Higher due to greater inflation and maturity risks

c)

The same as on short-term

d)

Controlled by corporations

e)

Negative in real terms

27.

The Fisher effect explains the relationship between:

a)

Nominal and real GDP

b)

Nominal interest rate, real interest rate, and inflation

c)

Bond ratings and yield

d)

Money supply and velocity

e)

Capital gains and tax rates

28.

What happens to bond prices if interest rates rise?

a)

Prices increase

b)

Prices remain the same

c)

Prices decrease

d)

Prices rise initially, then fall

e)

Prices double

29.

Which interest rate is MOST relevant to investors in long-term corporate bonds?

a)

Prime rate

b)

Discount rate

c)

Nominal rate on Treasury bills

d)

Yield to maturity (YTM)

e)

Repo rate

30.

investors in long-term corporate bonds?

a)

Prime rate

b)

Discount rate

c)

Nominal rate on Treasury bills

d)

Yield to maturity (YTM)

e)

Repo rate

31.

A bond's par value is:

a)

The market price of the bond

b)

The coupon payment

c)

The value paid at maturity

d)

The yield to maturity

e)

The book value

32.

The coupon rate is defined as:

a)

Annual interest divided by par value

b)

Interest divided by market price

c)

Interest compounded semiannually

d)

Maturity value

e)

Risk-adjusted rate of return

33.

A bond with a call provision allows the issuer to:

a)

Sell bonds to new investors

b)

Exchange it for equity

c)

Redeem the bond before maturity

d)

Increase the interest rate

e)

Defer interest payments

34.

A sinking fund provision benefits:

a)

The government

b)

The bond issuer

c)

The underwriters

d)

The bondholders

e)

Credit rating agencies

35.

A bond selling at a premium has a:

a)

Market price below par

b)

Coupon rate less than the yield

c)

Coupon rate greater than its yield

d)

Zero interest rate

e)

High default risk

36.

A bond's yield to maturity (YTM) is:

a)

The annual coupon payment

b)

The return earned if held to maturity

c)

The reinvestment rate

d)

The rate used to discount dividends

e)

The inflation rate

37.

If market interest rates rise, the price of an existing bond will:

a)

Increase

b)

Remain unchanged

c)

Decrease

d)

Rise initially, then fall

e)

Be unaffected

38.

Which of the following would MOST LIKELY be true for a zero-coupon bond?

a)

It pays annual interest

b)

It is always sold at par

c)

It sells at a discount

d)

It has high liquidity risk

e)

It is callable only at maturity

39.

Which bond has the MOST price volatility?

a)

Short-term, high-coupon bond

b)

Long-term, high-coupon bond

c)

Long-term, low-coupon bond

d)

Short-term, zero-coupon bond

e)

Treasury bill

40.

A bond's price risk is highest when:

a)

The bond is close to maturity

b)

Coupon payments are large

c)

Time to maturity is long and coupon is low

d)

Market interest rates are falling

e)

The bond is callable

41.

Reinvestment risk refers to:

a)

Not earning the YTM due to lower reinvestment rates

b)

Bond not being repaid

c)

Bankruptcy risk

d)

Callable bonds only

e)

Delayed interest payments

42.

A bond rating reflects:

a)

The price volatility

b)

The interest rate sensitivity

c)

The likelihood of default

d)

The time to maturity

e)

The coupon frequency

43.

The clean price of a bond:

a)

Includes accrued interest

b)

Excludes accrued interest

c)

Is equal to par always

d)

Is the yield to maturity

e)

Includes premium or discount only

44.

A bond's current yield is defined as:

a)

Coupon rate × market price

b)

Coupon ÷ par

c)

Coupon ÷ market price

d)

YTM - capital gain yield

e)

Nominal yield

45.

Which bond feature typically leads to a LOWER required rate of return?

a)

Subordination

b)

Callable

c)

Convertible

d)

Long maturity

e)

Zero-coupon

46.

Stand-alone risk is best measured by:

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Standard deviation

d)

Market risk premium

e)

Duration

47.

The coefficient of variation (CV) is used to measure:

a)

Return per dollar invested

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Risk per unit of return

d)

Interest rate sensitivity

e)

Asset liquidity

48.

The risk-return trade-off implies:

a)

Higher risk always leads to higher returns

b)

Higher returns can be achieved without risk

c)

Investors require higher returns for higher risk

d)

Diversification increases risk

e)

Low-risk assets outperform in long term

49.

Beta measures:

a)

Firm-specific risk

b)

Interest rate sensitivity

c)

Total risk

d)

Market or systematic risk

e)

Credit risk

50.

A stock with β = 1.5 is:

a)

Less risky than the market

b)

Risk-free

c)

Equal in risk to market

d)

More volatile than the market

e)

Not affected by market changes

51.

If a stock has a beta of 0.8, it is expected to:

a)

Be more volatile than the market

b)

Have the same return as the market

c)

Be less risky than the market

d)

Be risk-free

e)

Have a higher return than the market

52.

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) estimates required return as:

a)

Return = β × (rm - rf)

b)

Return = rf + β(rm - rf)

c)

Return = rm - β(rf)

d)

Return = rf + σ

e)

Return = α + β

53.

If the market risk premium is 6% and the risk-free rate is 3%, what is the expected return of a stock with β = 1.2?

a)

7.2%

b)

9.0%

c)

10.2%

d)

11.5%

e)

10.8%

54.

Which of the following best reduces diversifiable risk?

a)

Investing in long-term bonds

b)

Buying risk-free securities

c)

Holding a diversified portfolio

d)

Selecting high-beta stocks

e)

Investing in only one industry

55.

Systematic risk can:

a)

Be eliminated by diversification

b)

Be reduced by investing in a single stock

c)

Not be diversified away

d)

Be avoided through derivatives

e)

Be ignored by investors

56.

Which of the following is NOT part of the CAPM equation?

a)

Beta

b)

Risk-free rate

c)

Expected market return

d)

Standard deviation

e)

Market risk premium

57.

If the risk-free rate increases and beta stays constant, the required return will:

a)

Stay the same

b)

Decrease

c)

Increase

d)

Double

e)

Go to zero

58.

A stock with negative beta:

a)

Moves in the same direction as the market

b)

Is impossible in practice

c)

Moves opposite to the market

d)

Is always risky

e)

Cannot be priced by CAPM

59.

Which risk is relevant in a well-diversified portfolio?

a)

Unsystematic risk

b)

Firm-specific risk

c)

Idiosyncratic risk

d)

Market risk

e)

Currency risk

60.

The Security Market Line (SML) shows:

a)

The trade-off between beta and alpha

b)

All possible portfolios

c)

The relationship between risk (beta) and required return

d)

The risk-return trade-off of one firm only

e)

The efficient frontier