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ATM 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

a)

A. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

b)

B. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

c)

C. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over

d)

D. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over

2.

The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 meters (1000ft)

a)

A. Below flight level 290

b)

B. Below an altitude of 8850 meters (29.000ft)

c)

C. At or below flight level 290

d)

D. At or below flight level 190

3.

Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flight shall not be operated

a)

A. Below FL 200


b)

B. Below minimum flight level


c)

C. Above FL 200


d)

D. Above minimum flight level 


4.

The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the cockpit of the ________ of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference point:

a)

A. Vertical distance


b)

B. Horizontal distance


c)

C. Slant range distance


d)

D. All of above 


5.

Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the reported estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of:

a)

A. ± 05 minutes


b)

B. ± 03 minutes


c)

C. ± 02 minutes


d)

D. ± 04 minutes 


6.

ADS-B is:

a)

A. Automatical Depend Surveillance - Broadcast


b)

B. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast


c)

C. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast


d)

D. None of above 


7.

The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called

a)

A. Essential separation


b)

B. Combined separation


c)

C. Reduced separation


d)

D. Composite separation


8.

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is

a)

A. 20 NM

b)

B. 10 NM

c)

C.5 NM

d)

D. 15 NM

9.

In order to indicate hijacking the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code

a)

A. 7000

b)

B. 7500

c)

C. 7600

d)

D. 7700

10.

The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing is the definition of

a)

A. An Airway


b)

B. A Holding point


c)

C. An Aiming Point


d)

D. A Threshold


11.

Recording tapes of air ground communication shall be normally kept for at least:

a)

A. 30 days

b)

B. 15 days

c)

C. 90 days

d)

D. 10 days

12.

An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by

a)

A. An ATC Unit

b)

 B. 2 ATC Units

c)

C. 3 ATC Units

d)

D. 4 ATC Units

13.

Aeroplane reference field length for code number 2 aerodrome:

a)

A. 800m up to but not including 1200m


b)

B. Less than 800m


c)

C. 1800m and over


d)

D. 1200m up to but not including 1800m 


14.

Clearance limit mean:

a)

A. The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive


b)

B. The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly


c)

C. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance


d)

D. The point at which an aircraft is going to hold


15.

In local routine and special reports and in METAR and SPECI, Cloud amount should be reported using the abbreviations

a)

A. "FEW" (1 to 2 oktas), "OVC" (3 to 4 oktas), "SCT" (5 to 7 oktas) or "BKN" (8 oktas)


b)

B. "BKN" (1 to 2 oktas), "SCT" (3 to 4 oktas), "FEW" (5 to 7 oktas) or "OVC" (8 oktas)


c)

C. "SCT" (1 to 2 oktas), "FEW" (3 to 4 oktas), "BKN" (5 to 7 oktas) or "OVC" (8 oktas)


d)

D. "FEW" (1 to 2 oktas),"SCT" (3 to 4 oktas), "BKN" (5 to 7 oktas) or "OVC" (8 oktas)

16.

In ATFN messages, what is ZQZX?

a)

A. For Area Control Center


b)

B. For a computer facility at Area Control Center


c)

C. For an airport control tower


d)

D. Military Flight Operational Control Center


17.

Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:

a)

A. Only AIP and NOTAM's


b)

B. Only NOTAM's and Circulars


c)

C. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package


d)

D. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC


18.

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights:

a)

A. Air Traffic Control Services


b)

B. Flight Information Services


c)

C. Alerting Services


d)

D. Traffic Advisory Services


19.

If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in-approach, a departing aircraft may take off in any direction until ________ before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

a)

A. 2 minutes

b)

B. 3 minutes

c)

C. 5 minutes

d)

D. 10 minutes

20.

A separation minimum of 2 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by

a)

A. Less than 730 m


b)

B. 730 m


c)

C. Less than 760 m


d)

D. 760 m or more


21.

Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information displayed to controller is accurate shall be _________ out of RVSM airspace:

a)

A. ± 60 m

b)

B. ± 90 m

c)

C. ± 100 m

d)

D. ± 30 m

22.

What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP Vietnam?


a)

A. RWY, SWY, CWY


b)

B. TORA, TODA, ASDA, TODA


c)

C. CWY, SWY


d)

D. TORA, TODA, ASDA, TODA, RWY


23.

The objectives of Airspace Management (ASM) are to

a)

A. Airspace Design


b)

B. Balance Capacity and Demand


c)

C. Provide Separation


d)

D. Provide Capacity


24.

When an aircraft is being held in flight, when should vertical separation be provided between holding aircraft and enroute aircraft?

a)

A. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding point.


b)

B. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 miles flying time of the holding areas


c)

C. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding areas


d)

D. When the en-route aircraft is within 15 minutes flying time of the holding areas


25.

25. What's air traffic control instruction:

a)

A. The term is used to prefix a message of non-control information when it is relayed to an aircraft by other than an air traffic controller.


b)

B. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit


c)

C. Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.


d)

D. None of above


26.

Transition Level is:

a)

A. The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight


b)

B. 300m (1000ft) above transition altitude


c)

C. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude


d)

D. The lowest flight level that can be given to an arriving aircraft by air traffic unit.


27.

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be:

a)

A. 3 minutes


b)

B. 5 minutes


c)

C. 10 minutes

d)

D. 15 minutes

28.

The order of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network shall be as follows:

a)

A. DD, FF, GG, KK, SS


b)

B. DD, FF, SS, GG, KK

c)

C. GG, KK, SS, DD, FF


d)

D. SS, DD, FF, GG, KK


29.

Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or ADS-B immediately __________ the transfer.

a)

A. Prior to


b)

B. After


c)

C. A and b


d)

D. Request for 


30.

Area control service shall be provided by:

a)

A. An area control centre


b)

B. The unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a control area of limited extent which is designated primarily for the provision of approach control service and where no area control centre is established


c)

C. A and B


d)

D. A or B


31.

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:

a)

A. 30 seconds of UTC at all times


b)

B. 1 second of UTC at all times


c)

C. 1 minute of UTC at all times


d)

D. 10 seconds of UTC at all times

32.

If two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft which shall give the way is:

a)

A. The one that has the other on its left


b)

B. The one that has the other on its right


c)

C. The one that is faster than the other


d)

D. The one that has the other on in sight first 


33.

NOTAM with series C used for:

a)

A. International flight


b)

B. Domestic flight


c)

C. Both of them


d)

D. None of them


34.

CDM will improve ___________ by sharing information and data between airport operators, aircraft operators, ground handlers and air traffic control.

a)

A. Air traffic management


b)

B. Air traffic services


c)

C. Airlines operator


d)

D. All of correct


35.

 ____________ is a semi-prepared surface at the end of a runway designed to reduce the damage if an aircraft lands short or over runs the runway:

a)

A. SWY

b)

B. Runway strip

c)

C. RESA

d)

D. CWY

36.

Your aircraft has track between 90° and 269°, your flight level or altitude must be:

a)

A. odd


b)

B. even


c)

C. none of above


d)

D. odd or even


37.

Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to foreign VIP flights carrying the guests of party and state?

a)

A. Minister of National Defense


b)

B. Civil Aviation Authority of VN


c)

C. Minister of Transport


d)

D. Minister of Foreign Affairs


38.

A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height:

a)

A. Runway strip


b)

B. Runway


c)

C. Clearway


d)

D. Stopway 


39.

In non RVSM, VFR flight is:

a)

A. FL290


b)

B. FL300


c)

C. FL310


d)

D. None of above 


40.

Your aircraft has track between 180° and 359°, your flight level or altitude must be:

a)

A. even


b)

B. odd


c)

C. odd or even


d)

D. none of above


41.

Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR is at least ______ and at a distance of _______ more from the facility.

a)

A. 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)


b)

B. 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)


c)

C. 10 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)


d)

D. 15 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)


42.

At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, airport operation will be restricted:

a)

A. 05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear


b)

B. 15 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation


c)

C. 15 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear


d)

D. 05 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation 


43.

At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP departs, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available:

a)

A. 03 minutes after VIP flight takes off


b)

B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off


c)

C. After VIP flight is airborne


d)

D. None of above

44.

Flight plans shall not be submitted more than _______ before the estimated off-block time of a flight.

a)

A. 48 hours

b)

A. 48 hours

c)

C. 72 hours

d)

D. 120 hours

45.

ATM include search and rescue

a)

A. Definitely

b)

B. True

c)

C. Probably

d)

D. False

46.

The following shall always be read back

a)

A. ATC route clearance


b)

B. Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and backtrack on any runway


c)

C. Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts, transition levels


d)

D. All of above


47.

The change indicator TEMPO in the TAF used when

a)


A. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast period.


b)

B. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or irregular rate


c)

C. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate


d)

D. The probability that a certain change or value occurs

48.

What does the abbreviation "NOSIG" mean?

a)

A. No report received


b)

B. Not signed by the meteorologist


c)

C. No significant changes


d)

D. No weather-related problems 


49.

What is the correct AFTN address of Tan Son Nhat Approach?


a)

A. VVTSZRZX


b)

B. VVTSZTZX


c)

C. VVTSZDZX


d)

D. VVTSZAZX


50.

 On a precision approach, where does the intermediate approach segment start?


a)

A. FAF

b)

B. IAF

c)

C. MAPt

d)

D. IF

51.

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Light (L) Category, are all aircraft types of:

a)

A. 7600 kg or more


b)

B. 7600 kg or less


c)

C. 10000 kg or more


d)

D. 10000 kg or less 


52.

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter ____ Receiver ____:

a)

A. 1090 MHz - 1090 MHz


b)

B. 1030 MHz - 1090 MHz


c)

C. 1030 MHz - 1030 MHz


d)

D. 1090 MHz - 1030 MHz


53.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

a)

A. 7500, 7600, 7700


b)

B. 7500, 7600, 7777


c)

C. 7555, 7666, 7777


d)

D. None of correct 


54.

Destination alternate aerodrome is:

a)

A. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure


b)

B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route


c)

C. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic


d)

D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing


55.

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?


a)

A. Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing


b)

B. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach


c)

C. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach


d)

D. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing 


56.

Minimum safe altitude ensures (Vietnam rules of the air):

a)

A. At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area


b)

B. At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area


c)

C. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea,


d)

D. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL. 


57.

TODA =

a)

A. TORA +RWY


b)

B. TORA + CWY


c)

C. TORA +SWY


d)

D. TORA 


58.

Approach control service is:

a)

A. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights


b)

B. Service for meteorological and alerting service


c)

C. Air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas


d)

D. Air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic 


59.

"ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX (ARR-HVN 322- VVTS-VVDN 0359). The message informs:


a)

A. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC


b)

B. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC


c)

C. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC


d)

D. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVDN at 03.59 UTC


60.

The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

a)

A. Indicated air speed (IAS)


b)

B. True air speed (TAS)


c)

C. Ground speed (GS)


d)

D. True air speed at 65% power 


61.

Manoeuvring area is:


a)

A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including aprons.


b)

B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxing of aircraft, excluding aprons


c)

C. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.


d)

D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft 


62.

What are the three principal processes of air traffic management?

a)

A. Air traffic services, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management


b)

B. Air traffic control, Airspace management and Air traffic flow management


c)

C. Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance


d)

D. Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance 


63.

In alerting services, "Distress phase" when

a)

A. No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is the later...


b)

B. Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...


c)

C. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...!


d)

D. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft... 


64.

The definition of AIRAC

a)

A. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices.


b)

B. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.


c)

C. A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters.


d)

D. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations.


65.

In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:

a)

A. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R"


b)

B. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter


c)

C. By a letter for 2 parallel runways


d)

D. By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways 


66.

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed as

a)

A. Altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude


b)

B. Flight level at or below the transition altitude


c)

C. Flight level at or below the transition level


d)

D. Altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude


67.

Heading is the direction in which the ___________ axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually expressed in degrees from __________ (true, magnetic, compass or grid).

a)

A. Longitudinal/ north


b)

B. Horizontal/ south


c)

C. Longitudinal/ South


d)

D. Horizontal/ north 


68.

The definition of VFR flight

a)

A. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance


b)

B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules


c)

C. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.


d)

D. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules


69.

Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SC1025 BECMG 1010 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKNOZO = 

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam. What surface wind is forecast?


a)

A. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt


b)

B. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt


c)

C. 140° / 10 kt


d)

D. 250° / 20 kt 


70.

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? 

a)

A. 500 m.


b)

B. 2000 m.


c)

C. Between 500 m and 2000 m.


d)

D. Between 0 m and 1000 m. 


71.

Which following departure sequence is correct?

a)

A. Hospital flight - Commercial flight - Training flight


b)

B. Training flight - Hospital flight - VIP flight 


c)

C. Training flight - VIP flight - Hospital flight


d)

D. Commercial flight - Hospital flight - Training flight

72.

When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QFE altimeter setting, it shall indicate

a)

A. Altitude


b)

B. Elevation


c)

C. Flight level


d)

D. Height


73.

Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated Universal Time?

a)

A. CUT


b)

B. GMT


c)

C. UTC


d)

D. COUT 


74.

The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

a)

A. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office


b)

B. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.


c)

C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower


d)

D. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower 


75.

A Standard Instrument Arrival is known as a:

a)

A. SDP


b)

B. STAR


c)

C. SIA


d)

D. SID 


76.

A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of:

a)

A. 30 minutes


b)

B. 45 minutes


c)

C. 60 minutes


d)

C. 60 minutes


77.

The definition of Altitude

a)

A. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level


b)

B. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals


c)

C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum


d)

D. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL)


78.

The abbreviation OCA means

a)

A. Obstacle Confirmation Altitude


b)

B. Obstruction Collision Altitude


c)

C. Obstruction Clearance Altitude


d)

D. Obstacle Clearance Altitude


79.

In NOTAM format, the LOWER/UPPER limit shall be expressed in

a)

A. Altitude

b)

B. Flight level

c)

C. Height

d)

D. Elevation

80.

When the aircraft is __________ miles from the threshold on final approach, speed control should not be applied:

a)

A. 5

b)

 B. 3

c)

C. 10

d)

D. 4

81.

Instrument meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, ____________ the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions:


a)

A. equal to or less than


b)

B. better than


c)

C. equal to or better than


d)

D. less than


82.

Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hours prior to and until ______ hours after the ETA, ETD indicated in the permission

a)

A. 6

b)

B. 24

c)

C. 12

d)

D. 18

83.

Who shall provide ANS at Vietnam?

a)

A. ICAO

b)

B. Minister of national defense

c)

C. VATM

d)

D. Minister of transport

84.

We can distinguish types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within

a)

A. 25 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line


b)

B. 10 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line


c)

C. 15 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line


d)

D. 5 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line 


85.

Information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as dove

a)

A. NOTAM 


b)

B. AIP amendments 


c)

C. AIP supplements


d)

D. AIC 


86.

On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. This is called:

a)

A. Base turn


b)

B. Procedure turn


c)

C. Reverse procedure


d)

D. Racetrack 


87.

The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass, or grid):

a)

A. Bearing

b)

B. Track

c)

C. Heading

d)

D. Course

88.

When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the longitudinal separation minima must be ____________ when the level is crossed:

a)

A. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same type


b)

B. 10 minutes


c)

C. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same Mach number


d)

D. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed


89.

The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of?

a)

A. 14 days

b)

B. 42 days

c)

C. 28 days

d)

D. 56 days

90.

__________ shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below:

a)

A. Military aircraft


b)

B. Emergency aircraft


c)

C. VIP aircraft


d)

D. Hospital aircraft 


91.

Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?


a)

A. V

b)

B. Y

c)

C. Z

d)

D. I

92.

The ratio of an aircraft's true air speed to the speed of the sound is

a)

A. CAS

b)

 B. TAS

c)

C. Mach Number

d)

D. Relative Wind

93.

Alerting service shall be provided

a)

A. For all aircraft provided with air flight information service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference


b)

B. For all aircraft provided with alerting service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference


c)

C. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference


d)

D. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference 


94.

While flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as:

a)

A. Flight level


b)

B. Altitude


c)

C. Height 


d)

D. It depends upon what is set on the altimeter


95.

Expected approach time is

a)

A. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay will leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing


b)

B. The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircraft expects to leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing 


c)

C. The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will commence its approach for landing


d)

D. All the above 


96.

In non RVSM airspace, an aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR mode C derived level information indicates

a)

A. 29300 ft


b)

B. 29600 ft 


c)

C. 29500 ft 


d)

D. 29400 ft 


97.

VFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with

a)

A. Instrument Flight rules + General rules


b)

B. Visual Flight rules + General rules


c)

C. Instrument Flight rules


d)

D. Visual Flight rules 


98.

What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?

a)

A. +15 k

b)

B. +20 kt

c)

C. +25 kt

d)

D. + 10 kt

99.

Who has final authority of an aircraft

a)

A. The operator of the aircraft


b)

B. The manufacturer


c)

C. The controller


d)

D. The pilot in command


100.

An aircraft is maintaining FL150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70.  It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL140 or below can be expected?

a)

A. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL140

b)

B. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL130


c)

C. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL120


d)

D. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL70