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WorksheetsFRIDAY WEEKLY EXAM - 2nd Gr. Level (30/05/2025)
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 2hrs 24mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
As per IS 456:2000, for a beam with effective depth 'd', the maximum spacing of shear reinforcement shall not exceed which of the following?
a)
0.75d or 300 mm, whichever is less
b)
d or 450 mm, whichever is less
c)
0.87d or 250 mm, whichever is more
d)
1.25d or 500 mm, whichever is less
2.
Which failure criterion determines the rivet value in a riveted connection, considering both shear and bearing capacities?
a)
Maximum of shear and bearing strength
b)
Minimum of shear and bearing strength
c)
Average of shear and bearing strength
d)
Ratio of shear to bearing strength
3.
For a column with unsupported length 3.5 m and least lateral dimension 200 mm, classify it based on slenderness ratio.
a)
Short Column
b)
Intermediate Column
c)
Slender Column
d)
Pedestal
4.
In a fillet weld, which geometric property governs the strength calculation, and what is its relationship with weld size 'S'?
a)
Leg length, equal to S
b)
Effective throat, equal to 0.707S
c)
Face width, equal to 1.414S
d)
Root width, equal to 0.5S
5.
In a two-way slab supported on all sides, torsion reinforcement is provided primarily to resist:
a)
Bending moments
b)
Temperature stresses
c)
Torsional moments at corners
d)
Vertical deflection
6.
Which of the following staircases is best suited when the total width available is twice the width of a single flight?
a)
Dog-legged stair
b)
Quarter-turn stair
c)
Geometrical stair
d)
Open well stair
7.
In a fillet weld, which of the following governs the effective strength calculation?
a)
Root width
b)
Leg length
c)
Weld length
d)
Effective throat thickness
8.
Assertion (A): Spiral staircases are suitable for places with limited space and less traffic. Reason (R): Spiral stairs require more plan area due to curvature.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
9.
Which type of beam is ideal when the depth is restricted and there is a reversal of bending moment?
a)
Singly Reinforced Beam
b)
T-Beam
c)
L-Beam
d)
Doubly Reinforced Beam
10.
According to IS 456, what is the maximum permissible spacing for vertical stirrups in RCC beams?
a)
0.75d or 300 mm, whichever is less
b)
d or 240 mm, whichever is less
c)
d or 450 mm, whichever is less
d)
0.75d or 450 mm, whichever is more
11.
Which type of admixture helps in reducing the water content by up to 30% and is ideal for pumpable concrete?
a)
Air entraining admixture
b)
Accelerator
c)
Superplasticizer
d)
Retarder
12.
Which of the following is considered a short column as per slenderness ratio?
a)
Slenderness ratio < 12
b)
Slenderness ratio > 50
c)
Slenderness ratio > 120
d)
Slenderness ratio < 32
13.
The minimum number of longitudinal bars in a circular RCC column should be:
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
14.
In an RCC lintel, the main steel reinforcement should be placed at:
a)
Top
b)
Bottom
c)
Center
d)
Any position
15.
Assertion (A): Spiral reinforcement in columns provides better earthquake resistance.
Reason (R): It confines the core and prevents lateral buckling of longitudinal bars.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
16.
Match the IS codes with the correct applications:
A. IS 800 B. IS 875 C. IS 808 D. IS 2062
1. Rolled steel section dimensions 2. General construction in steel 3. Structural steel material specification 4. Loads on buildings and structures
Choose the correct match:
a)
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
b)
A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
c)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d)
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
17.
Determine the throat thickness of a fillet weld with a size of 8 mm.
a)
5.66 mm
b)
4.5 mm
c)
7.5 mm
d)
6.25 mm
18.
Match the following estimates with their appropriate use:
A. Preliminary Estimate B. Revised Estimate C. Supplementary Estimate D. Detailed Estimate
1. Estimate for newly proposed work 2. Estimate when actual cost exceeds sanctioned cost 3. Estimate based on detailed drawing, specifications 4. Estimate for additional items not in original work
Choose the correct match:
a)
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
b)
A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
c)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
d)
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
19.
Assertion (A): Revised estimates are required when expenditure exceeds by more than 10%.
Reason (R): It ensures that administrative approval is obtained again for the excess.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
20.
Assertion (A): Plinth area estimate is more accurate than cubic rate estimate.
Reason (R): Cubic rate considers height of building while plinth area does not.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
21.
Find the number of bricks required for 10 m³ brickwork. Size: 200mm × 100mm × 75mm.
a)
6666
b)
6800
c)
6900
d)
7000
22.
Determine plastering cost for walls of a 6m × 5m × 3m room (all sides), rate ₹150/m².
a)
₹9900
b)
₹9600
c)
₹10000
d)
₹9400
23.
Which estimate is required before technical sanction can be given?
a)
Revised Estimate
b)
Plinth Area Estimate
c)
Preliminary Estimate
d)
Detailed Estimate
24.
Which of the following does NOT form part of a detailed estimate?
a)
Schedule of rates
b)
Specifications
c)
Design calculations
d)
Construction photographs
25.
What is the plinth area of a building with outer dimensions 12 m × 10 m and wall thickness of 0.3 m?
a)
120 m²
b)
108 m²
c)
100 m²
d)
96 m²
26.
What is a lump sum item in an estimate?
a)
Work measured exactly
b)
Work not measured individually
c)
Work with uncertain quantity
d)
Unapproved extra item
27.
Which type of estimate is prepared for budget approval?
a)
Revised Estimate
b)
Preliminary Estimate
c)
Supplementary Estimate
d)
Detailed Estimate
28.
What is the value of a property with annual net income of ₹60,000 if the Years Purchase (YP) is 12?
a)
₹7,00,000
b)
₹7,20,000
c)
₹7,40,000
d)
₹7,50,000
29.
Which instrument is used to draw large circles in technical drawing?
a)
Small bow compass
b)
Divider
c)
Large size compass
d)
Lengthening bar
30.
What is the representation rule in 1st angle projection system regarding left side view?
a)
Left view kept on left of elevation
b)
Left view kept below elevation
c)
Left view kept on right of elevation
d)
Left view is not shown
31.
If a line is inclined to VP and parallel to HP, which trace does it have?
a)
It has HT only
b)
It has VT only
c)
It has both HT and VT
d)
It has no trace
32.
Which type of projection has projectors perpendicular to the principal planes and parallel to each other?
a)
Perspective projection
b)
Isometric projection
c)
Oblique projection
d)
Orthographic projection
33.
Which solid is formed by the revolution of a right-angled triangle?
a)
Cylinder
b)
Sphere
c)
Cone
d)
Cube
34.
What is the approximate percentage of isometric length compared to true length?
a)
75%
b)
85%
c)
82%
d)
90%
35.
In oblique projection, what is the scale used for receding lines in cabinet projection?
a)
Drawn in full scale
b)
Drawn in quarter scale
c)
Drawn in half scale
d)
Not drawn to scale
36.
Which plane in perspective projection is the vertical plane on which image is formed?
a)
Ground plane
b)
Horizon plane
c)
Picture plane
d)
Auxiliary ground plane
37.
Which curve is formed when a section plane cuts all generators of a right circular cone?
a)
Hyperbola
b)
Parabola
c)
Ellipse
d)
Circle
38.
Assertion (A): An ellipse is defined as the locus of a point moving such that the sum of its distances from two fixed points is constant.
Reason (R): For an ellipse, the eccentricity e = 1.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
39.
According to IS 712-1984, which class of lime shows compressive strength of 2.8 N/mm² after 28 days and is available only in hydrated form?
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class F
40.
Which impurity in limestone is considered highly undesirable as it leads to formation of pyrites that weakens the lime quality?
a)
Clay
b)
Magnesium carbonate
c)
Pyrites
d)
Sulphates
41.
Which test distinguishes between Class A, B, and C lime based on gel consistency and behavior when treated with dilute HCl?
a)
Heat Test
b)
Ball Test
c)
Acid Test
d)
Soundness Test
42.
In building materials, what is the difference between thermal resistivity and thermal resistance?
a)
Both are inversely proportional
b)
Thermal resistivity = 1 / Thermal resistance
c)
Thermal resistance = Thermal resistivity × thickness
d)
Thermal resistivity × Specific heat = Thermal resistance
43.
Which sawing technique produces timber pieces suitable for decorative use due to distinct medullary rays alignment?
a)
Quarter sawing
b)
Ordinary sawing
c)
Tangential sawing
d)
Radial sawing
44.
Which of the following preservatives penetrates deeply, is water-based, and is safe for post-decoration applications on timber?
a)
Creosote oil
b)
ASCU treatment
c)
Coal tar
d)
Oil paints
45.
Assertion (A): Polished terracotta is used in industrial applications due to its superior finish.
Reason (R): Polished terracotta is porous and weak compared to porous terracotta.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
46.
Which of the following materials is best suited for high-voltage insulator applications due to its mechanical and thermal resistance?
a)
Lead-glazed earthenware
b)
Salt-glazed porcelain
c)
Zircon porcelain
d)
Terracotta
47.
Which of the following glass types is specifically used to prevent harmful radiation in welding operations due to its composition?
a)
Soluble Glass
b)
Shield Glass
c)
Structural Glass
d)
Obscured Glass
48.
Which varnish uses methylated spirit as the solvent and is commonly used in furniture applications like French polishing?
a)
Oil Varnish
b)
Water Varnish
c)
Spirit Varnish
d)
Turpentine Varnish
49.
Match the following types of specialty glass with their applications:
A. Float Glass B. Shield Glass C. Fiber Glass D. Photochromatic Glass
1. Reinforced plastics and thermal insulation 2. Temporary darkening under sunlight 3. Prevents welding radiation 4. Used in furniture and solar panels
a)
A-1,B-3, C-2,D-4
b)
A-4,B-3, C-1,D-2
c)
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d)
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
50.
Which type of paint is most suitable for environments where the surface is exposed to acidic gases and high humidity conditions?
a)
Anti-corrosive Paint
b)
Silicate Paint
c)
Bituminous Paint
d)
Asbestos Paint
51.
Which type of pig iron is unsuitable for superior casting due to its high sulphur content and low burn temperature?
a)
Grey pig
b)
White pig
c)
Bessemer pig
d)
Mottled pig
52.
Which alloy of aluminium has a thin coating to resist corrosion and is ideal for marine environments?
a)
Duralumin
b)
Aldural / Alclad
c)
Y-Alloy
d)
Aluminium bronze
53.
Match the following metals with their key ores:
A. Lead B. Copper C. Zinc D. Tin
1. Galena 2. Cassiterite 3. Zinc blende 4. Cuprite
a)
A-4, B-1,C-2,D-3
b)
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
d)
A-1,B-4,C-3,D-2
54.
Which type of canal alignment requires the least number of cross drainage works?
a)
Contour canal
b)
Side slope canal
c)
Ridge canal
d)
Flood canal
55.
Match the following types of canal sections with their features:
A. Full Cutting
B. Full Filling
C. Partial Cutting & Filling
1. Most economical
2. Canal bed below ground level
3. High embankment cost
a)
A-2, B-3, C-1
b)
A-3, B-2, C-1
c)
A-1, B-2, C-3
d)
A-2, B-1, C-3
56.
What is the function of an under sluice (scouring sluice) in a diversion headwork?
a)
Raise the pond level
b)
Separate river and canal water
c)
Remove silt near canal head regulator
d)
Divert fish safely to downstream
57.
Which dam is most suited for earthquake-prone areas due to its flexibility?
a)
Gravity dam
b)
Rockfill dam
c)
Arch dam
d)
Buttress dam
58.
In a diversion headwork, what is the purpose of a divide wall?
a)
Regulates water into canal
b)
Acts as silt ejector
c)
Creates less turbulent flow near head regulator
d)
Serves as foundation for sluice gates
59.
Which of the following statements is true about permanent wilting point (PWP)?
a)
Plants regain their strength after wilting at this point
b)
SMT is zero at this point
c)
Plants cannot extract enough moisture and begin to wilt
d)
Occurs only in sandy soils
60.
Which crop season in India typically requires 2 to 3 times more water than the other?
a)
Rabi season
b)
Zaid season
c)
Kharif season
d)
Perennial crops
61.
Which instrument includes a breaking pin to reduce oscillations of its needle?
a)
Surveyor’s Compass
b)
Theodolite
c)
Prismatic Compass
d)
Level
62.
Which bearing system expresses the direction as an acute angle measured from the north or south toward the east or west?
a)
Whole Circle Bearing System
b)
Magnetic Bearing
c)
Reduced or Quadrantal Bearing System
d)
Azimuthal Bearing System
63.
Which type of error occurs due to imperfect centering of the plane table during survey?
a)
Instrumental error
b)
Plotting error
c)
Manipulation error
d)
Ground error
64.
Which condition must be satisfied for intersection method in plane table surveying?
a)
Only the plane table needs to be centered
b)
The angle between sights should be less than 90°
c)
The plotted lines must intersect at the correct scale
d)
The instrument station must lie on the ground line
65.
Which component of the theodolite ensures the horizontal axis is truly horizontal during vertical angle measurement?
a)
Plate bubble
b)
Altitude bubble
c)
Trunnion axis
d)
Vertical circle
66.
Assertion (A): Closing error in a theodolite traverse can be adjusted using Bowditch’s rule.
Reason (R): Bowditch’s rule is based on proportional distribution of errors according to length of traverse sides.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
67.
Which pattern of contour lines indicates a steep valley?
a)
Contour lines form V with higher values upstream
b)
Contour lines are concentric circles
c)
Contour lines are widely spaced
d)
Contour lines are V-shaped with lower values downstream
68.
Which of the following instruments is a combination of an electronic theodolite and EDM?
a)
Distomat
b)
Total Station
c)
Photogrammetry Camera
d)
Tellurometer
69.
Which segment of GPS is responsible for health monitoring and orbit observations?
a)
User Segment
b)
Satellite Segment
c)
Control Segment
d)
Data Segment
70.
In GIS, which of the following data types gives better resolution by separating data using lines and points?
a)
Raster Data
b)
Vector Data
c)
Pixel Data
d)
Grid Data
71.
Assertion (A): Remote sensing can be used for disaster monitoring like floods and earthquakes.
Reason (R): Remote sensing only works in visible spectrum during daytime.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c)
A is true but R is false.
d)
A is false but R is true.
72.
Match the following advanced AutoCAD commands with their specialized applications:
a)
A. XLINE - Creates construction lines,
B. SOLVIEW - Prepares orthographic projections
C. ATTDEF - Defines block attributes,
D. RENDER - Produces photorealistic views
b)
A. XLINE - Plots layout
B. SOLVIEW - Sets units,
C. ATTDEF - Edits text,
D. RENDER - Changes UCS
c)
A. XLINE - Trims curves
B. SOLVIEW - Measures angles
C. ATTDEF - Sets limits
D. RENDER - Adds layout blocks
d)
A. XLINE - Adjusts viewport
B. SOLVIEW - Deletes attributes
C. ATTDEF - Creates dimension style,
D. RENDER - Edits hatch
73.
Which command in AutoCAD is used to display all graphics within the largest possible area of the drawing window?
a)
ZOOM
b)
REGEN
c)
PAN
d)
ZOOM EXTENT
74.
Which AutoCAD command is used to combine two solids into one?
a)
INTERSECT
b)
UNION
c)
SUBTRACT
d)
JOIN
75.
Which command is used to measure the diameter of a circle in AutoCAD?
a)
DIM RADIUS
b)
DIM LINEAR
c)
DIM DIAMETER
d)
DIM ANGULAR
76.
Which command helps rotate a text object for best readability in AutoCAD?
a)
QLEADER
b)
TORIENT
c)
CHPROP
d)
DIM
77.
Which of the following commands is used to shade surfaces of 3D objects in AutoCAD?
a)
HATCH
b)
RAY
c)
REGION
d)
EXTRUDE
78.
Which among the following is a scalar quantity?
a)
Force
b)
Acceleration
c)
Momentum
d)
Work
79.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a)
Moment - N/s
b)
Impulse - Ns
c)
Pressure - N
d)
Velocity - m²/s
80.
Which system of units uses dyne as a unit of force?
a)
SI System
b)
FPS System
c)
CGS System
d)
MKS System
81.
Which shape has two radii and a curved edge forming a portion of a circle?
a)
Segment
b)
Sector
c)
Chord
d)
Arc
82.
What is the dimensional formula for Pressure?
a)
ML⁻¹T⁻²
b)
MLT⁻²
c)
ML²T⁻²
d)
ML⁻³T²
83.
Which of the following units is used to measure a solid angle?
a)
Radian
b)
Steradian
c)
Degree
d)
Cycle
84.
A body starts slipping on an inclined plane when the angle of inclination is 30°. What is the coefficient of static friction?
a)
√3
b)
0.577
c)
0.5
d)
0.866
85.
Which of the following conditions is true for a reversible machine?
a)
Efficiency = 100%
b)
MA > VR
c)
η < 50%
d)
η ≥ 50%
86.
If a spring with stiffness 500 N/m undergoes a static deflection of 0.2 m, what is the mass suspended on it?
a)
10 kg
b)
20 kg
c)
25 kg
d)
100 kg
87.
Assertion (A): Limiting friction is the maximum static friction before motion starts.
Reason (R): Beyond this limit, the body starts moving and friction changes to kinetic type.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
88.
Which type of road construction uses varying thickness of foundation to provide a definite cross slope?
a)
Tresaguet Construction
b)
Telford Construction
c)
Macadam Construction
d)
Metcalf Construction
89.
Which of the following is not a requirement of ideal highway alignment?
a)
Short
b)
Safe
c)
Expensive
d)
Easy
90.
What is the correct sequence of highway surveys?
a)
Map study → Reconnaissance → Preliminary → Detailed
b)
Reconnaissance → Map study → Preliminary → Detailed
c)
Map study → Preliminary → Reconnaissance → Detailed
d)
Preliminary → Map study → Reconnaissance → Detailed
91.
Which type of transition curve is most preferred in highway design due to its gradual rate of curvature?
a)
Bernoulli’s Lemniscate
b)
Cubic Parabola
c)
Spiral or Clothoid
d)
Parabola
92.
The camber is primarily provided in a road for what purpose?
a)
To avoid skidding
b)
To drain off rainwater
c)
To increase vehicle speed
d)
To reduce super elevation
93.
Calculate the superelevation (e) required for a highway curve of radius 200 m carrying traffic at 100 kmph. Assume f = 0.15.
a)
0.07
b)
0.05
c)
0.09
d)
0.11
94.
Which type of kerb is used to prevent vehicle climbing and is commonly seen in urban roads and hill areas?
a)
Mountable Kerb
b)
Semi-barrier Kerb
c)
Barrier Kerb
d)
Submerged Kerb
95.
What is the primary purpose of providing an air gap in plumbing systems?
a)
To increase water pressure
b)
To reduce flow resistance
c)
To prevent backflow contamination
d)
To filter suspended solids
96.
What is the most significant disadvantage of excess chlorination in water?
a)
Corrosion of pipes
b)
Increased hardness
c)
Elevated TDS
d)
Color formation
97.
Which chemical is preferred for removing temporary hardness before disinfection?
a)
Chlorine
b)
Alum
c)
Lime
d)
Bleaching powder
98.
What type of contaminant is best removed by slow sand filters?
a)
Iron and manganese
b)
Microbial pathogens
c)
Turbidity from clay
d)
Chlorides and nitrates
99.
Which of the following best describes the role of residual chlorine in water supply systems?
a)
Maintains taste of water
b)
Detects pipe leaks
c)
Ensures disinfection continues during distribution
d)
Prevents hard water scaling
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