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Psychological Assessment Exam

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the first step in the process of test development?

a)

Test Tryout

b)

Test Construction

c)

Test Revision

d)

Test Conceptualization

2.

What does "test conceptualization" primarily involve?

a)

Writing test items

b)

Brainstorming ideas about the kind of test to develop

c)

Scoring rules

d)

Item analysis

3.

What is a pilot study in test development?

a)

Final administration of the test

b)

Preliminary research to create a prototype

c)

Scoring the test

d)

Publishing the test

4.

Which step in test development involves writing and revising test items?

a)

Test Construction

b)

Test Tryout

c)

Item Analysis

d)

Test Revision

5.

What is "scaling" in the context of test construction?

a)

Writing essay questions

b)

Setting rules for assigning numbers in measurement

c)

Analyzing item difficulty

d)

Revising test items

6.

Which scale transforms all raw test scores into a range from 1 to 9?

a)

Likert Scale

b)

Stanine Scale

c)

Guttman Scale

d)

Thurstone Scale

7.

A test that measures only one underlying dimension is called:

a)

Multidimensional

b)

Unidimensional

c)

Comparative

d)

Categorical

8.

What type of scale involves summing ratings across all items for a final score?

a)

Summative Scale

b)

Thurstone Scale

c)

Guttman Scale

d)

Paired Comparisons

9.

Which scale is known for ranking statements by an expert panel?

a)

Likert Scale

b)

Thurstone Scale

c)

Guttman Scale

d)

Stanine Scale

10.

The method of paired comparisons produces which type of data?

a)

Interval

b)

Ordinal

c)

Ratio

d)

Nominal

11.

What is an item bank?

a)

A list of correct answers

b)

A large, accessible collection of test questions

c)

A scoring guide

d)

A group of test-takers

12.

What is the difference between an item bank and an item pool?

a)

Item pool is a subset of item bank

b)

Item pool is the reservoir of items for the final test

c)

Item bank is used only for scoring

d)

Item pool contains only incorrect items

13.

Which of the following is a selected-response format?

a)

Essay items

b)

Completion items

c)

Multiple-choice items

d)

Short-answer items

14.

What are the three elements of a multiple-choice format?

a)

Stem, correct option, distractors

b)

Premises, responses, scoring

c)

Question, answer, feedback

d)

Directions, questions, answers

15.

Matching items typically consist of:

a)

Multiple stims and one response

b)

Two columns: premises and responses

c)

One question and four answers

d)

True or false statements

16.

Which item format requires test-takers to indicate whether a statement is a fact?

a)

Matching

b)

Multiple-choice

c)

Binary choice (True-False)

d)

Completion

17.

What is a constructed-response format?

a)

Selecting from given options

b)

Supplying or creating the correct answer

c)

Matching items

d)

True-False items

18.

Completion items require the examinee to:

a)

Select an answer

b)

Write an essay

c)

Provide a word or phrase to complete a sentence

d)

Match premises and responses

19.

The rule of thumb for test tryout is:

a)

1 subject per item

b)

2-3 subjects per item

c)

5-10 subjects per item

d)

20 subjects per item

20.

What is item analysis?

a)

Writing new test items

b)

Statistical procedure to analyze item performance

c)

Scoring essays

d)

Formatting the test

21.

Item difficulty is defined by:

a)

Number of people who find the item hard

b)

Number of people who get the item correct

c)

Number of distractors

d)

Number of test items

22.

The optimal average item difficulty for achievement testing is:

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

80%

23.

Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT) is characterized by:

a)

Same test for all test-takers

b)

Items presented based on previous performance

c)

Only essay items

d)

No scoring

24.

CAT reduces the number of test items by:

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

25.

What is a floor effect?

a)

Many high scores

b)

Many low scores near the lower limit

c)

No scores at all

d)

Scores are evenly distributed

26.

What is a ceiling effect?

a)

Many low scores

b)

Many high scores near the upper limit

c)

Random scores

d)

No scores above average

27.

Item branching in CAT allows the computer to:

a)

Randomize questions

b)

Tailor content and order based on responses

c)

Score automatically

d)

Provide feedback

28.

Cumulative scoring means:

a)

Each answer is independent

b)

Higher scores indicate higher ability

c)

Scores are not related to ability

d)

Scores are averaged

29.

Ipsative scoring involves:

a)

Comparing a test-taker’s score to others

b)

Comparing scores within the same test

c)

Comparing scores over time

d)

Comparing scores to a standard

30.

Cross-validation is:

a)

Validating with the same sample

b)

Revalidating with a new sample

c)

Scoring essays

d)

Writing new items

31.

Validity shrinkage refers to:

a)

Increase in validity after cross-validation

b)

Reduction in validity after cross-validation

c)

No change in validity

d)

Increase in reliability

32.

Co-validation involves:

a)

Revising norms and testing with multiple groups

b)

Scoring by multiple raters

c)

Writing new items

d)

Testing only one group

33.

Who proposed the Two-Factor Theory of intelligence?

a)

L.L. Thurstone

b)

Charles Spearman

c)

J.P. Guilford

d)

Howard Gardner

34.

According to Spearman, what is the "g" factor?

a)

Group factor

b)

General knowledge/intelligence

c)

Specific ability

d)

Genetic factor

35.

Which test is designed to measure "g"?

a)

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

b)

Raven’s Progressive Matrices

c)

Stanford-Binet

d)

MMPI

36.

L.L. Thurstone is known for which theory?

a)

Two-Factor Theory

b)

Multiple-Factor Theory

c)

Triarchic Theory

d)

Hierarchical Model

37.

How many primary mental abilities did Thurstone propose?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

38.

Which of the following is NOT one of Thurstone's primary mental abilities?

a)

Verbal Comprehension

b)

Logical Reasoning

c)

Word Fluency

d)

Perceptual Speed

39.

J.P. Guilford’s Structure-of-Intellect model classifies intellectual traits along how many dimensions?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

40.

The Structure-of-Intellect model includes how many categories of intellectual tasks?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

150

d)

180

41.

Which is NOT a dimension in Guilford’s model?

a)

Operations

b)

Contents

c)

Products

d)

Factors

42.

Which is an example of "contents" in Guilford’s model?

a)

Cognition

b)

Visual

c)

Units

d)

Evaluation

43.

Philip Vernon’s model is best described as:

a)

Circular

b)

Hierarchical

c)

Linear

d)

Modular

44.

In Vernon’s model, which is NOT a major group factor?

a)

Verbal-educational

b)

Practical-mechanical-spatial

c)

Emotional

d)

Psychomotor

45.

Raymond Cattell distinguished between:

a)

Verbal and nonverbal intelligence

b)

Fluid and crystallized intelligence

c)

General and specific intelligence

d)

Practical and social intelligence

46.

Fluid intelligence is:

a)

Acquired skills and knowledge

b)

More biologically determined and culture-free

c)

Highly influenced by education

d)

Stable throughout life

47.

Crystallized intelligence:

a)

Peaks at age 14-15

b)

Is more affected by brain injury

c)

Develops from application of fluid intelligence

d)

Is unrelated to formal education

48.

Which task would most likely require fluid intelligence?

a)

Remembering vocabulary

b)

Solving a new puzzle

c)

Taking an exam

d)

Following a recipe

49.

Which task would most likely require crystallized intelligence?

a)

Solving a new puzzle

b)

Devising a strategy for chess

c)

Memorizing facts

d)

Assessing a new situation

50.

Who proposed the Triarchic Model of Intelligence?

a)

Howard Gardner

b)

Robert Sternberg

c)

Charles Spearman

d)

L.L. Thurstone

51.

The componential element of Sternberg’s model involves:

a)

Adapting to the environment

b)

Information-processing components

c)

Formulating new ideas

d)

Social intelligence

52.

Metacomponents in Sternberg’s model are used to:

a)

Plan, monitor, and evaluate problem-solving strategies

b)

Implement tasks

c)

Acquire new knowledge

d)

Adapt to new environments

53.

The experiential element in Sternberg’s model refers to:

a)

Adapting to the environment

b)

Formulating new ideas by combining unrelated facts

c)

Monitoring performance

d)

Acquiring language

54.

Howard Gardner’s theory suggests intelligence is:

a)

A single general ability

b)

A collection of multiple intelligences

c)

A fixed trait

d)

An innate quality

55.

Howard Gardner’s theory suggests intelligence is:

a)

A single general ability

b)

Composed of separate systems for different skills

c)

Only measurable by IQ

d)

Unrelated to culture

56.

Which is NOT one of Gardner’s multiple intelligences?

a)

Linguistic

b)

Logical-mathematical

c)

Emotional

d)

Musical

57.

Gardner defined intelligence as:

a)

Ability to solve problems or create products valued in one or more cultural settings

b)

Ability to memorize facts

c)

Ability to adapt to new environments

d)

Ability to reason abstractly

58.

Alfred Binet believed intelligence is:

a)

A fixed trait

b)

Manifested by performance on various tasks

c)

Only measurable by IQ

d)

Unrelated to behavior

59.

Binet’s tests were criticized for being:

a)

Too easy

b)

Too hard

c)

Heavily loaded with school-type tasks

d)

Too short

60.

Lewis Terman defined intelligence as:

a)

Ability to do abstract thinking

b)

Ability to memorize facts

c)

Ability to adapt to environment

d)

Ability to solve practical problems

61.

Sternberg emphasized intelligence as:

a)

Ability to adapt and motivate oneself in a changing world

b)

Ability to memorize facts

c)

Ability to reason abstractly

d)

Ability to perform well on tests

62.

David Wechsler defined intelligence as:

a)

Ability to memorize facts

b)

Aggregate or global capacity to act purposefully, think rationally, and deal effectively with environment

c)

Ability to do abstract thinking

d)

Ability to adapt to new environments

63.

Thorndike’s concept of intelligence included:

a)

Only verbal skills

b)

Abstract, practical, and social intelligence

c)

Only practical intelligence

d)

Only social intelligence

64.

Which is NOT one of Thorndike’s types of intelligence?

a)

Abstract

b)

Practical

c)

Emotional

d)

Social

65.

The Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is best described as:

a)

A fixed score

b)

A shorthand for overall mental ability

c)

A measure of only verbal skills

d)

A measure of only nonverbal skills

66.

IQ is:

a)

An explanatory concept

b)

A descriptive concept

c)

A fixed trait

d)

Unrelated to age norms

67.

IQ is both a reflection of prior achievement and a predictor of:

a)

Personality

b)

Subsequent educational performance

c)

Physical health

d)

Emotional intelligence

68.

General intelligence tests typically measure:

a)

Only verbal ability

b)

Only nonverbal ability

c)

A combination of several cognitive abilities

d)

Only memory

69.

Cross-sectional studies compare:

a)

Same groups over time

b)

People or groups from different environments

c)

Only children

d)

Only adults

70.

Longitudinal studies compare:

a)

Different groups at one time

b)

Same groups at different ages

c)

Only children

d)

Only adults

71.

Which cognitive skill tends to remain stable with age?

a)

Vocabulary

b)

Logic problems

c)

New learning ability

d)

Memory retention

72.

What is the "terminal drop"?

a)

Sudden increase in intelligence

b)

Deterioration in cognitive functioning before death

c)

Increase in memory

d)

Improvement in vocabulary

73.

Family size is related to intellectual ability in that:

a)

Ability increases as family size increases

b)

Ability declines as family size increases

c)

No relation

d)

Ability is highest in middle children

74.

The process of setting rules for assigning numbers in measurement is called:

a)

Scaling

b)

Scoring

c)

Pooling

d)

Formatting

75.

A test with more than one underlying dimension is:

a)

Unidimensional

b)

Multidimensional

c)

Summative

d)

Categorical

76.

The Likert scale is commonly used to measure:

a)

Intelligence

b)

Attitudes

c)

Memory

d)

Vocabulary

77.

The Guttman scale yields which level of measurement?

a)

Nominal

b)

Ordinal

c)

Interval

d)

Ratio

78.

In test tryout, conditions should be:

a)

As different as possible from actual testing

b)

As identical as possible to actual testing

c)

Uncontrolled

d)

Randomized

79.

The proportion of test-takers who answer an item correctly is called:

a)

Item discrimination index

b)

Item difficulty index

c)

Item pool

d)

Item format

80.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Computerized Adaptive Testing?

a)

Reduces number of items needed

b)

Reduces measurement error

c)

Increases floor and ceiling effects

d)

Tailors items to test-taker

81.

Class scoring involves:

a)

Comparing scores to a standard

b)

Placing test-takers in a group with similar response patterns

c)

Scoring essays

d)

Averaging scores

82.

As test revision proceeds, why is a large item pool advantageous?

a)

It allows for more scoring options

b)

Removed items can be replaced by others from the pool

c)

It reduces scoring time

d)

It increases test length

83.

Administering the revised test to a second sample is part of:

a)

Test construction

b)

Test revision

c)

Item analysis

d)

Test conceptualization

84.

The process of revalidating a test with a new sample is:

a)

Co-norming

b)

Cross-validation

c)

Item analysis

d)

Scaling

85.

Validity shrinkage is most likely to occur after:

a)

Test construction

b)

Cross-validation

c)

Item analysis

d)

Scaling

86.

Which of the following is a group factor in Thurstone’s theory?

a)

General intelligence

b)

Verbal comprehension

c)

Practical intelligence

d)

Emotional intelligence

87.

The Structure of Intellect Learning Abilities Test is based on whose model?

a)

Spearman

b)

Thurstone

c)

Guilford

d)

Gardner

88.

Which of the following is a product in Guilford’s model?

a)

Memory retention

b)

Visual

c)

Units

d)

Symbolic

89.

Which intelligence in Gardner’s model is related to understanding oneself?

a)

Interpersonal

b)

Intra-personal

c)

Naturalistic

d)

Existentialist

90.

Which intelligence in Gardner’s model relates to nature?

a)

Linguistic

b)

Naturalistic

c)

Musical

d)

Logical-mathematical

91.

Which theorist emphasized the importance of practical problem-solving and motivation in intelligence?

a)

Binet

b)

Sternberg

c)

Terman

d)

Wechsler

92.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory?

a)

Componential

b)

Experiential

c)

Contextual

d)

Emotional

93.

Which of the following is NOT a primary mental ability in Thurstone’s theory?

a)

Number

b)

Space

c)

Musical

d)

Word Fluency

94.

Which type of intelligence is most affected by brain injuries, according to Cattell?

a)

Crystallized

b)

Fluid

c)

Verbal

d)

Social

95.

Which of the following is an example of using crystallized intelligence?

a)

Solving a new math problem

b)

Learning a new language

c)

Remembering historical facts

d)

Devising a new strategy

96.

Which type of scoring compares a test-taker’s responses to others in a similar class?

a)

Cumulative

b)

Class/category scoring

c)

Ipsative

d)

Norm-referenced

97.

The process of placing stimuli into categories that differ quantitatively is called:

a)

Comparative scaling

b)

Categorical scaling

c)

Summative scaling

d)

Likert scaling

98.

Which theorist suggested intelligence is an attribute of behavior, not a person?

a)

Wechsler

b)

Binet

c)

Terman

d)

Sternberg

99.

Which of the following is a criticism of Binet’s intelligence test?

a)

Too focused on practical skills

b)

Too focused on school-type tasks

c)

Too short

d)

Too difficult

100.

The ability to act purposefully, think rationally, and deal effectively with the environment is whose definition of intelligence?

a)

Terman

b)

Wechsler

c)

Sternberg

d)

Gardner

101.

The decline in cognitive abilities during the last months or years of life is called:

a)

Fluid intelligence

b)

Terminal drop

c)

Ceiling effect

d)

Cross-validation