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Materials Science Quiz

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ability of a material to resist deformation under stress is called

a)

Ductility

b)

Elasticity

c)

Strength

d)

Toughness

2.

Which of the following is a common method for determining the crystal structure of a material?

a)

Atomic force microscopy

b)

X-ray diffraction

c)

Scanning electron microscopy

d)

Transmission electron microscopy

3.

Which one of the following is true about semiconductors?

a)

In semiconductors, mobility of electrons under high electric fields decreases due to lattice collisions.

b)

In intrinsic semiconductors, the Fermi level is exactly at the centre of the forbidden gap.

c)

Under low doping concentration, diffusion current is insignificant as compared to drift current.

d)

A p-type silicon sample has higher conductivity than an n-type having the same dopant concentration.

4.

Of the following, which one is not correct about thermal equilibrium?

a)

Objects at thermal equilibrium with each other are at the same temperature.

b)

The kinetic energy of two systems at thermal equilibrium is equal and constant.

c)

The internal heat of a system in thermal equilibrium is distributed evenly throughout the system.

d)

If two objects are at thermal equilibrium, then energy will not flow between them.

5.

Which material was primarily used for tools in the Paleolithic era was?

a)

Copper

b)

Bronze

c)

Stone

d)

Iron

6.

The smallest repeating unit of a crystal lattice is called

a)

Primitive cell

b)

Unit cell

c)

Bravais lattice

d)

Crystal system

7.

The elastic properties of a non-cubic single crystal are

a)

Independent of crystal structure.

b)

Identical in all directions.

c)

Dependent on direction.

d)

Only dependent on temperature.

8.

With increasing temperature, the conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor

a)

Decreases exponentially.

b)

Increases exponentially.

c)

Remains constant.

d)

Increases linearly.

9.

Which of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?

a)

Work

b)

Internal energy

c)

Enthalpy

d)

Entropy

10.

A system undergoes a process where its internal energy increases by 100 J when 50 J of work is done on the system. What is the heat change of the system?

a)

+50 J

b)

-50 J

c)

+150 J

d)

-150 J

11.

The primary purpose of adding impurities to semiconductors is

a)

To increase their melting point

b)

To modify their electrical conductivity

c)

To enhance optical transparency

d)

To reduce production costs

12.

Determine the Miller indices for a plane when the intercepts along the axes are 2a, 3b and 2c.

a)

(3,2,3)

b)

(2,3,2)

c)

(3,2,2)

d)

(1,1,1)

13.

A Zener diode is primarily used for

a)

Switching at high frequencies

b)

Optical detection

c)

Amplifying signals

d)

Voltage regulation

14.

The key difference in operation between a light-emitting diode (LED) and a solar cell is

a)

LED requires doping; solar cell does not.

b)

LED is an electroluminescent device; solar cell is a photovoltaic device.

c)

LED uses AC current; solar cell uses DC current.

d)

LED absorbs photons; solar cell emits photons.

15.

Which forming method is used for the production of hollow glasses?

a)

Blowing

b)

Pressing

c)

Drawing

d)

Casting

16.

The temperature at which a non-crystalline material transforms from a supercooled liquid to rigid glass is __________

a)

Melting point

b)

Glass transition temperature

c)

Boiling point

d)

Crystalline temperature

17.

The primary difference between a ceramic and glass is based on its ___________ .

a)

solubility

b)

crystallinity

c)

conductivity

d)

permeability

18.

Which of the following is NOT a method of glass strengthening?

a)

Tempering

b)

Annealing

c)

Lamination

d)

Galvanizing

19.

What is the purpose of adding soda ash (Na₂CO₃) in glass production?

a)

To increase hardness

b)

To lower the melting point of silica

c)

To improve thermal shock resistance

d)

To enhance optical clarity

20.

Which of the following is a key step in the float glass process?

a)

Blowing molten glass into molds

b)

Pouring molten glass onto molten tin

c)

Extruding glass through rollers

d)

Pressing glass between graphite plates

21.

What is annealing in glass production?

a)

Rapid cooling to increase strength

b)

Slow cooling to relieve internal stresses

c)

Adding chemicals to improve durability

d)

Coating the glass surface for protection

22.

What is cullet in glass manufacturing?

a)

A type of fluxing agent

b)

Broken or recycled glass used in production

c)

A refractory material for furnaces

d)

A coloring additive

23.

What is the primary advantage of using fused-cast AZS (Alumina-Zirconia-Silica) refractories in the glass contact zones of furnaces?

a)

Lowest thermal conductivity

b)

Highest resistance to glass corrosion

c)

Best thermal shock resistance

d)

Easiest installation process

24.

Which type of glass is specifically engineered for smartphone screens due to its unique combination of high strength, scratch resistance, and damage tolerance?

a)

Soda-lime glass

b)

Borosilicate glass

c)

Aluminosilicate glass

d)

Fused silica glass

25.

Which one of the following is odd about Quasi-Static process?

a)

It occurs infinite slowly

b)

Every of its step in the system tends to remain in equilibrium

c)

It is a reversible process

d)

It is an irreversible process

26.

Which of the following occurs without a change in the internal energy?

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Isenthalpic process

c)

Steady-state process

d)

Isentropic process

27.

What is the value of the absolute thermodynamic temperature scale?

a)

3k

b)

0k

c)

1k

d)

4k

28.

Which of the following follows the Carnot theorem?

a)

Heat engines

b)

Gas turbines engine

c)

Gas compressors

d)

All of the mentioned

29.

A type of motion that does follow shaft to work is________________.

a)

Vertical motion

b)

Horizontal motion

c)

Rotational motion

d)

None

30.

Heat flow into a system is ____________ and heat flow out of the system is_______________.

a)

positive, negative

b)

negative, positive

c)

positive, positive

d)

negative, negative

31.

In which of the following system does mass transfer occur across the system boundary?

a)

Isolated system

b)

Closed system

c)

Open system

d)

None

32.

Which of the following causes irreversibility?

a)

Electrical resistance

b)

Friction

c)

In elasticity

d)

All

33.

Which of the following is known as the inequality of Clausius?

a)

Cyclic integral of dW/T<=0

b)

Cyclic integral of dW/T>=0

c)

Cyclic integral of dQ/T>=0

d)

Cyclic integral of dQ/T<=0

34.

Choose the correct pair of properties that describe entropy?

a)

Point function, intensive property

b)

Point function, extensive property

c)

Path function, extensive property

d)

Path function, intensive property

35.

The entropy of an isolated system can never __________________________.

a)

Decrease

b)

Be zero

c)

Increase

d)

None

36.

Choose the correct statement from the given alternatives?

a)

Q for reversible process < Q for irreversible process and work for reversible < work for irreversible

b)

Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible < work for irreversible

c)

Q for reversible < Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible

d)

Q for reversible > Q for irreversible and work for reversible > work for irreversible

37.

A pure substance which exists in a single phase has ____________ independent properties?

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Three

38.

Maxwell's equations consist of _______________________equations.

a)

Four

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Five

39.

Which of the following is not a Maxwell equation?

a)

(∂T/∂V) = -(∂P/∂S)

b)

(∂T/∂P) = -(∂V/∂S)

c)

(∂P/∂T) = (∂S/∂V)

d)

(∂V/∂T) = -(∂S/∂P)

40.

For an ideal gas, _____________________________________________.

a)

Volume expansivity = T and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 0

b)

Volume expansivity

c)
d)
41.

For an ideal gas, _____________________________________________.

a)

Volume expansivity = T and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 0

b)

Volume expansivity = (1/T) and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 1

c)

Volume expansivity = (1/T) and Joule-kelvin coefficient = 0

d)

Volume expansivity = T and Joue-kelvin coefficient = 1

42.

The properties of water are arranged in the steam tables as functions of ___________.

a)

Pressure only

b)

Temperature only

c)

Both temperature and pressure

d)

None

43.

Which of the following definitions best describe the concept of work?

a)

The flow of energy from one object or substance to another due to a difference in temperature

b)

The flow of energy from one body to another through uniform molecular motion

c)

The force associated with molecular motion

d)

The random motion of molecules in a gas at low pressure

44.

An isolated system is best described by which one of the following statements?

a)

Neither matter nor heat can pass into or out of the system

b)

The system has a boundary which allows heat to be transferred but does not allow material to pass into or out of the system

c)

The system has a boundary which allows both matter and heat

d)

None of the mentioned

45.

Which one of the following statements describes a path function?

a)

A property of a system that depends only on the current state of the system, not on the path of the system took to reach the state

b)

A property of a system that depends on the path taken between the initial and the final state

c)

The sum of kinetic and potential energy contained in a substance

d)

The heat energy absorbed by a system at constant pressure

46.

Which of the following best defines a phase diagram?

a)

A graphical representation of the thermal conductivity of metals

b)

A chart showing the relationship between temperature, composition, and phases present

c)

A mechanical property testing chart

d)

A diagram showing the corrosion resistance of materials

47.

Which of the following correctly defines a eutectoid transformation?

a)

Liquid → Solid + Solid

b)

Solid → Liquid + Solid

c)

Solid → Solid + Solid

d)

Liquid → Liquid + Solid

48.

Which of the following explains the reason for different mechanical properties in FCC and BCC metals?

a)

Type of alloying elements

b)

Density of the metals

c)

Difference in slip systems

d)

Melting point differences

49.

In a binary phase diagram, the eutectic point is characterized by:

a)

A temperature at which only one phase exists

b)

The maximum solubility of one component in another

c)

A composition that solidifies at a single temperature

d)

A phase boundary with no significance

50.

Which solidification route is most likely to yield a refined microstructure in a cast metal?

a)

Slow cooling in air

b)

Controlled directional solidification

c)

Quenching in water

d)

Furnace cooling

51.

A 0.76 wt% C steel is cooled slowly from the austenite region. What microstructure is expected at room temperature?

a)

Martensite

b)

Pearlite

c)

Bainite

d)

Ferrite + Cementite

52.

Comparing interstitial and substitutional diffusion mechanisms, which factor most affects their diffusion rate differences?

a)

Magnetic properties

b)

Atomic mass

c)

Atomic size and lattice distortion

d)

Chemical bonding

53.

Two alloys show different fracture behaviors at low temperatures. One is BCC and the other FCC. Which conclusion is correct?

a)

FCC metals fracture more easily

b)

BCC metals have higher ductility

c)

BCC metals exhibit a ductile-brittle transition

d)

FCC metals show brittle behavior

54.

You are tasked with choosing between steel and aluminum for a structural component in a cryogenic application. Which factor is most critical in your evaluation?

a)

Density

b)

Crystal structure and ductile-brittle transition temperature

c)

Surface finish

d)

Machinability

55.

Which processing route would you recommend for a high-performance turbine blade and why?

a)

Equilibrium solidification due to cost

b)

Non-equilibrium solidification for fine microstructure

c)

Cold working for dimensional stability

d)

Forging for grain refinement

56.

Design a simple alloy using iron and carbon that could be used in a high-temperature application. Which composition range would you consider and why?

a)

0.1-0.3% C for improved ductility

b)

0.4-0.6% C for toughness

c)

0.8-1.0% C for hardness and strength

d)

1.2-2.0% C for cost efficiency

57.

In electrometallurgy, electricity is primarily used to:

a)

Heat the furnace

b)

Dissolve ore in solution

c)

Drive redox reactions

d)

Filter impurities

58.

An example of a heterogeneous reaction in extractive metallurgy is:

a)

Aqueous ion exchange

b)

Gas-solid reduction

c)

Complexation in solution

d)

Redox reactions in electrolytes

59.

You are given a sulfide ore. Which process would be most appropriate to use first?

a)

Electro-refining

b)

Roasting

c)

Leaching

d)

Gravity separation

60.

Which technique is used to improve metal purity after extraction?

a)

Sintering

b)

Electro-refining

c)

Roasting

d)

Crushing

61.

When analyzing thermodynamic feasibility of a reduction reaction, which parameter is most critical?

a)

Gibbs free energy change

b)

Heat capacity

c)

Enthalpy of fusion

d)

Atomic number

62.

Which property distinguishes froth flotation from other beneficiation processes?

a)

Thermal decomposition

b)

Solubility differences

c)

Surface wettability

d)

Magnetic susceptibility

63.

Which metal extraction process is most environmentally friendly?

a)

Pyro metallurgy

b)

Electrometallurgy

c)

Hydrometallurgy

d)

Amalgamation

64.

What makes thermodynamic diagrams (Ellingham) valuable in extractive metallurgy?

a)

They predict chemical composition

b)

They indicate mechanical strength

c)

They determine melting points

d)

They predict reduction feasibility

65.

Design a two-step process to extract copper from chalcopyrite.

a)

Roasting → Electrolysis

b)

Roasting → Leaching

c)

Leaching → Smelting

d)

Crushing → Magnetic separation

66.

To extract lithium from brine, propose a suitable separation method:

a)

Magnetic separation

b)

Carbon reduction

c)

Solvent extraction

d)

Precipitation with lime

67.

Which of the following reflects professional responsibility in extractive metallurgy?

a)

Minimizing cost at all costs

b)

Using toxic materials without disclosure

c)

Prioritizing environmental safety

d)

Disposing waste in rivers

68.

In a metallurgical lab, which safety practice must be followed during high-temperature operations?

a)

No gloves needed

b)

Avoid safety goggles

c)

Use of PPE and tongs

d)

Work with bare hands

69.

Which crystal structure does sodium chloride (NaCl) possess?

a)

Hexagonal close-packed

b)

Body-centered cubic

c)

Face-centered cubic

70.

Which crystal structure does sodium chloride (NaCl) possess?

a)

Hexagonal close-packed

b)

Body-centered cubic

c)

Face-centered cubic

d)

Rock salt

71.

A phonon refers to:

a)

Free electron

b)

A particle of heat

c)

A quantum of lattice vibration

d)

A crystal defect

72.

The energy band gap of a semiconductor lies:

a)

Above the conduction band

b)

Between the conduction and valence band

c)

Below the valence band

d)

Within the core energy level

73.

Which of the following best describes a dielectric material?

a)

Good electrical conductor

b)

Stores electrical energy in the form of an electric field

c)

Becomes magnetic under voltage

d)

Contains free protons

74.

A p-n junction diode allows current to flow when:

a)

Reverse biased

b)

Forward biased

c)

Biased with AC only

d)

Unbiased

75.

The dielectric constant of a material affects:

a)

Its magnetic field

b)

Its optical reflectivity

c)

The capacitance of a capacitor

d)

The strength of the electric current

76.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of intrinsic semiconductors?

a)

Pure crystalline structure

b)

Equal number of electrons and holes

c)

Doping by external atoms

d)

High resistivity at 0 K

77.

Analyze why metals reflect light well:

a)

They are transparent

b)

Their electrons oscillate and re-emit light

c)

They have wide band gaps

d)

They lack conduction electrons

78.

Evaluate the best use for a ferromagnetic material:

a)

Optical lens

b)

Capacitor dielectric

c)

Transformer core

d)

Semiconductor junction

79.

A high refractive index indicates:

a)

Greater optical density

b)

Weak dielectric behavior

c)

Magnetic property

d)

Crystal dislocation

80.

Design a method to reduce resistivity in a semiconductor:

a)

Add more intrinsic atoms

b)

Increase lattice spacing

c)

Introduce controlled doping

d)

Remove free carriers

81.

To improve dielectric strength in capacitors, you would:

a)

Use ferromagnetic materials

b)

Use materials with high permittivity

c)

Increase electron mobility

d)

Decrease melting point

82.

As an engineer, your responsibility when selecting materials for devices should include:

a)

Choosing the cheapest option

b)

Ignoring environmental effects

c)

Considering performance, sustainability, and safety

d)

Focusing only on aesthetics

83.

Which of the following is a typical property of ceramic materials?

a)

High ductility

b)

Good electrical conductivity

c)

High compressive strength

d)

Low melting point

84.

Ceramic materials are primarily composed of:

a)

Metallic bonds

b)

Covalent bonds only

c)

Ionic and covalent bonds

d)

Van der Waals forces

85.

The high hardness and brittleness of ceramics is due to:

a)

Dislocations

b)

Free electrons

c)

Strong ionic/covalent bonds

d)

Phase transformation

86.

Which property is generally poor in ceramics?

a)

Electrical insulation

b)

Thermal resistance

c)

Toughness

d)

Chemical stability

87.

The porcelain used in electrical insulators is an example of:

a)

Metallic ceramic

b)

Structural ceramic

c)

Electrical ceramic

d)

Magnetic ceramic

88.

Advanced ceramics are primarily used in:

a)

Pottery and bricks

b)

Biomedical implants and aerospace

c)

Plumbing fixtures

d)

Concrete and cement

89.

Crystal defects in ceramics affect:

a)

Only their color

b)

Electrical conductivity and strength

c)

Only melting point

d)

Their specific gravity

90.

The diffusion in ceramics is:

a)

Faster than in metals

b)

Lower due to tightly packed atoms

c)

Not possible

d)

Only seen in amorphous ceramics

91.

Which of the following binary ceramic compounds is used in armor applications?

a)

SiO₂

b)

TiO₂

c)

B₄C

d)

NaCl

92.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about ceramics?

a)

They are good electrical conductors

b)

They deform plastically before failure

c)

They are generally resistant to corrosion

d)

They are ductile at high temperature

93.

Powder preparation is essential in ceramic processing because it

a)

Improves color

b)

Enhances plasticity

c)

Ensures homogeneity and sintering quality

d)

Reduces noise

94.

Slip casting is a method commonly used for:

a)

Dense metals

b)

Porous ceramics

c)

Thin films

d)

Plastic composites

95.

Sintering in ceramic processing is used to:

a)

Cool the material

b)

Remove oxygen

c)

Bond particles via diffusion

d)

Increase porosity

96.

Which forming method is best for complex-shaped ceramic parts?

a)

Hot pressing

b)

Extrusion

c)

Injection molding

d)

Dry pressing

97.

One of the key parameters monitored during sintering is:

a)

Pressure

b)

Temperature profile

c)

Color change

d)

Magnetic field

98.

The green body in ceramics refers to:

a)

Sintered product

b)

Melted ceramic

c)

Shaped but unfired ceramic

d)

Recycled ceramic

99.

Ceramic microstructure is influenced MOST by:

a)

Firing time and temperature

b)

Colorant addition

c)

External coatings

d)

UV exposure

100.

Which process is NOT a ceramic forming method?

a)

Extrusion

b)

Injection molding

c)

Thermoforming

d)

Slip casting

101.

One of the main challenges in ceramic processing is:

a)

Melting point is low

b)

Poor dimensional control

c)

Shrinkage during sintering

d)

Poor corrosion resistance

102.

Particle size distribution in ceramic powders affects:

a)

Only color

b)

Mechanical strength after sintering

c)

Optical transparency only

d)

Surface tension

103.

The number of atoms per unit cell in a BCC structure is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

104.

s per unit cell in a BCC structure is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

105.

Miller indices (1 0 0) represent:

a)

A plane parallel to x-axis

b)

A plane perpendicular to x-axis

c)

A diagonal plane

d)

A plane cutting x-axis at 1

106.

Which of the following has the highest atomic packing factor (APF)?

a)

BCC

b)

FCC

c)

Simple cubic

d)

HCP

107.

A unit cell is:

a)

The largest repeating unit of a crystal

b)

A random volume in a solid

c)

The smallest repeating unit in a crystal

d)

Always cubic

108.

Which of the following is a close-packed direction in FCC?

a)

[100]

b)

[110]

c)

[111]

d)

[001]

109.

Which of the following crystal defects affects mechanical properties the most?

a)

Vacancy

b)

Dislocation

c)

Substitutional atom

d)

Frenkel defect

110.

Which of the following imperfections is a point defect?

a)

Edge dislocation

b)

Vacancy

c)

Grain boundary

d)

Twin boundary

111.

The Bravais lattice that is most densely packed is:

a)

Simple cubic

b)

BCC

c)

FCC

d)

Hexagonal

112.

The ratio of atomic radius to lattice parameter in a simple cubic crystal is:

a)

1

b)

0.25

c)

0.5

d)

0.707

113.

Pure semiconductors are known as________________.

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Compound

c)

Extrinsic

d)

Doped

114.

When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor it becomes____________.

a)

P-type

b)

n-type

c)

Insulator

d)

Conductor

115.

What type of crystal structure do silicon and germanium have?

a)

Face-centered cubic

b)

Body-centered cubic

c)

Hexagonal close-packed

d)

Diamond cubic

116.

Which of the following statements best describes a black body?

a)

A perfectly reflecting surface.

b)

A surface that absorbs all electromagnetic radiation incident upon it.

c)

A surface that reflects all electromagnetic radiation incident upon it.

d)

A surface that emits no radiation.

117.

What is the name of the phenomenon where a semiconductor can convert light into electricity?

a)

Magnetic effect

b)

Thermal effect

c)

Photovoltaic effect

d)

Piezoelectric effect

118.

Which one of the following is an example of an optoelectronic device?

a)

Transistor

b)

Light Emitting Diode

c)

Resistor

d)

Capacitor

119.

If the current flowing through a wire is 100 Amperes and the cross-sectional area of the wire is 0.2 square meters, what is the current density?

a)

500 A/m²

b)

200 A/m²

c)

0.2 A/m²

d)

50 A/m²

120.

Which one of the following indicates recombination process in semiconductors?

a)

Ionization of impurity of holes and electrons

b)

Breaking of pair-bond

c)

Thermionic emission of holes and electrons

d)

Annihilation of holes and electrons

121.

The crystal structure of indium phosphide (InP) is most similar to:

a)

Diamond

b)

Cubic

c)

Hexagonal

d)

Zincblende

122.

Which of the following best describes the wave-particle duality in quantum mechanics?

a)

All particles exhibit both wave and particle-like behavior.

b)

Particles exhibit only wave-like behavior, while waves exhibit only particle-like behavior.

c)

Particles exhibit only particle-like behavior, while waves exhibit only wave-like behavior.

d)

Particles and waves are completely separate concepts in quantum mechanics.

123.

The process by which an electron-hole pair is created in a semiconductor is known as:

a)

Recombination

b)

Generation

c)

Drift

d)

Diffusion

124.

The primary function of the base region in a bipolar junction transistor is to:

a)

Control the flow of current between the emitter and collector.

b)

Provide a high resistance path between the emitter and collector.

c)

Amplify the input signal applied to the base.

d)

Provide a low resistance path between the emitter and collector.

125.

Which of the following is a key application of Schrödinger's wave equation?

a)

Predicting the behavior of macroscopic objects.

b)

Describing the motion of planets in the solar system.

c)

Modeling the energy levels and wave functions of atomic and subatomic particles.

d)

Calculating the trajectory of a thrown baseball.

126.

The key difference between a diode and a transistor is that:

a)

Diodes have two terminals, while transistors have three terminals.

b)

Diodes can only conduct current in one direction, while transistors can conduct in both directions.

c)

Diodes are made of silicon, while transistors are made of germanium.

d)

Diodes can amplify signals, while transistors cannot.

127.

Which of the following statements best describes the key difference between the operating principles of an LED and a solar cell?

a)

LEDs are made of silicon, while solar cells are made of gallium arsenide.

b)

LEDs are reverse-biased, while solar cells are forward-biased.

c)

LEDs convert electrical energy to light energy, while solar cells convert light energy to electrical energy.

d)

LEDs have two terminals, while solar cells have three terminals.

128.

Which of the following is a key factor that determines the ability of a material to form a glass?

a)

Slow cooling rate

b)

High melting point

c)

Ability to crystallize easily

d)

Rapid cooling rate

129.

Which polymer processing method involves pouring liquid polymer into a mold and allowing it to solidify?

a)

Extrusion

b)

Injection molding

c)

Polymer casting

d)

Film blowing

130.

Which polymer processing method uses a combination of heat and pressure to shape a polymer between two mold halves?

a)

Compression molding

b)

Transfer molding

c)

Injection molding

d)

Calendering

131.

What is the primary purpose of film blowing?

a)

Producing plastic bottles

b)

Creating fibers and filaments

c)

Manufacturing plastic films and sheets

d)

Shaping thermoplastic sheets into three-dimensional objects

132.

Which polymer processing method is commonly used to produce rubber products?

a)

Extrusion

b)

Blow molding

c)

Injection molding

d)

Reaction injection molding

133.

What is the primary advantage of extrusion?

a)

Ability to create complex shapes

b)

High production speed

c)

Precise control of part dimensions

d)

Low cost of equipment