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WorksheetsSATURDAY WEEKLY EXAM - 1 st Gr. Level (31/05/25)
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 3hrs 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Assertion (A): The shear stress distribution in a rectangular beam is parabolic in nature.
Reason (R): Maximum shear stress occurs at the extreme fibres of the beam.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
2.
A simply supported beam of span 4 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m. Calculate the maximum bending stress if the beam has a rectangular cross-section of width 100 mm and depth 200 mm. (E = not needed)
a)
15 MPa
b)
30.0 MPa
c)
25.0 MPa
d)
40.0 MPa
3.
A steel bar 2 m long and 500 mm² in area is subjected to a tensile force of 100 kN. Calculate the strain energy stored in the bar. (E = 200 GPa)
a)
0.1 kJ
b)
0.25 kJ
c)
0.05 kJ
d)
0.2 kJ
4.
Match the following Strength of Materials concepts:
A. Young’s modulus 1. Shear stress/Shear strain
B. Poisson’s ratio 2. Lateral strain/Longitudinal strain
C. Shear modulus 3. Axial stress/Axial strain
D. Bulk modulus 4. Volumetric stress/Volumetric strain
a)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b)
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c)
A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
d)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
5.
Which type of stress acts tangentially to the surface of the material?
a)
Compressive stress
b)
Tensile stress
c)
Shear stress
d)
Thermal stress
6.
What is the factor of safety if the ultimate tensile strength is 600 MPa and allowable stress is 150 MPa?
a)
4
b)
2.5
c)
5
d)
6
7.
In a cantilever beam subjected to a point load at the free end, maximum bending moment occurs at:
a)
Fixed end
b)
Free end
c)
Mid-span
d)
Load point
8.
Which of the following statements is TRUE for a ductile material under tensile loading?
a)
Fracture occurs immediately after elastic limit
b)
Material fails without yielding
c)
Material undergoes significant plastic deformation before fracture
d)
Material shows brittle behavior
9.
Which of the following errors in chaining increases proportionally with the length of the line and cannot be eliminated by repeating the process?
a)
Sag error
b)
Incorrect tension
c)
Error due to slope
d)
Incorrect alignment of the chain
10.
Which instrument is best suited for locating a point on a line when the end stations are not intervisible due to large buildings or obstructions?
a)
Open cross staff
b)
Line ranger
c)
Optical square
d)
Reciprocal ranging with intermediate rods
11.
Which of the following lines in chain surveying connects two fixed points and helps to locate other points using offsets?
a)
Tie line
b)
Check line
c)
Base line
d)
Random line
12.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the reason for choosing whole circle bearing (WCB) system over reduced bearing (RB) in compass surveying?
a)
WCB is more precise for angular measurements
b)
WCB gives only clockwise angles which simplifies computation
c)
RB allows clearer quadrant identification in the field
d)
RB is the only format recognized by surveyor’s compass
13.
What is the angle of dip of the magnetic needle near the magnetic poles of Earth?
a)
0 degrees
b)
45 degrees
c)
90 degrees
d)
180 degrees
14.
Which of the following types of meridian is most suitable for accurate astronomical observations?
a)
True Meridian
b)
Magnetic Meridian
c)
Assumed Meridian
d)
Arbitrary Meridian
15.
The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse with 'n' sides is given by:
a)
(n - 2) × 180°
b)
(2n + 4) × 90°
c)
(2n - 4) × 90°
d)
2n × 90°
16.
In prismatic compass, the zero of the graduated ring is marked at:
a)
0° (North)
b)
180° (South)
c)
90° (West)
d)
270° (East)
17.
Which of the following items is NOT included in a detailed estimate?
a)
Quantity of each item
b)
Unit of measurement
c)
Rate analysis of items
d)
Architect's biography
18.
Which of the following methods is commonly used for calculating earthwork in roads and canals?
a)
Center Line Method
b)
Cross-section Method
c)
Plinth Area Method
d)
Bay Method
19.
Assertion (A): Contingencies are added in estimation to meet unforeseen expenses.
Reason (R): Contingencies are included to pay the contractor's bonus.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
20.
Calculate the area between the stations spaced at 30 m with offsets 2.2 m, 2.8 m, 3.5 m, and 4.0 m using Simpson’s rule.
a)
244.0 m²
b)
250.0 m²
c)
260.0 m²
d)
240.0 m²
21.
Which of the following is most accurate method of estimation?
a)
Plinth Area Method
b)
Cubic Content Method
c)
Approximate Quantity Method
d)
Detailed Estimate Method
22.
Which statement is correct regarding abstract of estimate?
a)
It lists only material costs
b)
It includes a summary of all item costs and total project cost
c)
It includes only labor costs
d)
It is prepared before the detailed estimate
23.
Which method of irrigation involves water being applied directly to the root zone of plants through a network of valves and pipes?
a)
Sprinkler Irrigation
b)
Furrow Irrigation
c)
Drip Irrigation
d)
Flood Irrigation
24.
The field capacity of a soil is 30%, permanent wilting point is 12%, and the root zone depth is 1.2 m. Compute the available moisture.
a)
216 mm
b)
180 mm
c)
144 mm
d)
108 mm
25.
The consumptive use of water for a particular crop is 5 mm/day. If irrigation is given at an interval of 12 days, and the water application efficiency is 60%, calculate the depth of water required to be applied.
a)
100 mm
b)
90 mm
c)
120 mm
d)
110 mm
26.
Which of the following describes the moisture held tightly in micropores and unavailable to plants?
a)
Gravitational water
b)
Capillary water
c)
Hygroscopic water
d)
Field capacity water
27.
Which irrigation method is suitable for widely spaced row crops like sugarcane and maize?
a)
Drip irrigation
b)
Check basin irrigation
c)
Furrow irrigation
d)
Sprinkler irrigation
28.
The depth of root zone is 0.8 m, field capacity is 28%, and permanent wilting point is 14%. Calculate the total available water (in mm).
a)
112 mm
b)
98 mm
c)
120 mm
d)
140 mm
29.
Earthen dams are more suitable in regions where:
a)
Rock foundations are available
b)
Very narrow valleys exist
c)
Broad valleys with impervious foundations exist
d)
Very deep water is to be stored
30.
Which of the following spillways is best suited for gravity dams and is located on the dam body itself?
a)
Shaft spillway
b)
Side channel spillway
c)
Ogee spillway
d)
Chute spillway
31.
Assertion (A): Spillways are essential components in dam construction.
Reason (R): Spillways prevent overtopping by safely disposing excess water from reservoirs.
a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true, R is false
d)
A is false, R is true
32.
Which type of canal outlet is most efficient in maintaining a constant discharge regardless of water level fluctuations?
a)
Non-modular outlet
b)
Semi-modular outlet
c)
Modular outlet
d)
Pipe outlet
33.
What is the purpose of a canal fall in a distribution system?
a)
To regulate flow
b)
To divert water into a canal
c)
To dissipate surplus water
d)
To lower water level in sloping terrain
34.
Diversion headworks are usually constructed on which type of rivers?
a)
Perennial rivers
b)
Ephemeral rivers
c)
Tidal rivers
d)
Frozen rivers
35.
Match the following:
A. Barrage
B. Canal fall
C. Head regulator
D. Escape
a)
A-Regulates flow, B-Reduces energy, C-Controls entry to canal, D-Discharges surplus
b)
A-Reduces energy, B-Controls entry, C-Regulates flow, D-Discharges surplus
c)
A-Controls entry, B-Regulates flow, C-Reduces energy, D-Discharges surplus
d)
A-Discharges surplus, B-Regulates flow, C-Controls entry, D-Reduces energy
36.
Which component of a highway cross section is primarily provided for the safety of vehicles moving off the carriageway?
a)
Shoulder
b)
Median
c)
Camber
d)
Kerb
37.
Which of the following surveys is essential before designing the geometric features of a road?
a)
Soil survey
b)
Topographic survey
c)
Hydrological survey
d)
Traffic volume study
38.
In flexible pavement design, the layer that distributes load to the subgrade is called:
a)
Wearing course
b)
Base course
c)
Binder course
d)
Tack coat
39.
Which type of rail joint provides better load distribution and reduces impact at the joint?
a)
Suspended joint
b)
Supported joint
c)
Bridge joint
d)
Welded joint
40.
Which of the following is used to fix the rail to the sleeper in a railway track system?
a)
Fish plate
b)
Bearing plate
c)
Dog spike
d)
Hook bolt
41.
Which type of pier is used when longitudinal beams or girders of the bridge superstructure are closely spaced?
a)
Pile bent
b)
Dump bell pier
c)
Column bent
d)
Cylinder pier
42.
Which of the following types of bridges utilizes wire ropes and suspenders to support the roadway?
a)
Arch bridge
b)
Bow string girder
c)
Suspension bridge
d)
Truss bridge
43.
When the centerline of a bridge is not perpendicular to the axis of the river, it is called:
a)
Deck bridge
b)
Under bridge
c)
Skew bridge
d)
Through bridge
44.
Which is the temporary pier constructed in a river bed for supporting construction works?
a)
Cribs
b)
Piers
c)
Kerb
d)
Abutment
45.
Match the following bridge components with their functions:
A. Cut Water
B. Revetment
C. Wing Wall
D. Bearing
a)
A-Reduces current pressure, B-Erosion control, C-Retains embankment, D-Allows movement
b)
A-Erosion control, B-Retains embankment, C-Reduces current pressure, D-Allows movement
c)
A-Retains embankment, B-Reduces current pressure, C-Erosion control, D-Allows movement
d)
A-Allows movement, B-Retains embankment, C-Erosion control, D-Reduces current pressure
46.
Which type of plumbing system uses a single pipe to carry both waste and ventilating air?
a)
Single stack system
b)
One-pipe system
c)
Two-pipe system
d)
Partially ventilated system
47.
Which of the following sanitary fittings is installed at the bottom of a wash basin to allow drainage?
a)
Trap
b)
Waste Coupling
c)
Soil Pipe
d)
Vent Pipe
48.
Which one of the following is NOT a sanitary fitting?
a)
Urinal
b)
Water Closet
c)
Kitchen Sink
d)
Ball Valve
49.
In a sewerage system passing through hilly terrain, which feature ensures smooth flow despite steep drops in gradient?
a)
Grit chamber
b)
Drop manhole with vertical shaft
c)
Septic tank
d)
Flushing tank
50.
Which sewer appurtenance allows flow reversal and is used where siphonic action is essential to overcome elevation?
a)
Manhole
b)
Flushing chamber
c)
Inverted siphon
d)
Catch basin
51.
Which of the following errors during septic tank construction will most severely affect anaerobic digestion?
a)
Incorrect invert level of outlet pipe
b)
No provision for baffle wall
c)
Oversized vent pipe
d)
Concrete plastering on outer wall only
52.
Which property of concrete is significantly enhanced by the addition of silica fume in RCC?
a)
Tensile strength
b)
Workability
c)
Durability against sulphates
d)
Compressive strength
53.
In reinforced concrete design, which of the following conditions leads to the most economical section?
a)
Under-reinforced section
b)
Over-reinforced section
c)
Balanced section
d)
Doubly reinforced section
54.
Which chemical compound in cement is primarily responsible for the initial setting time of concrete?
a)
Tricalcium silicate (C3S)
b)
Dicalcium silicate (C2S)
c)
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
d)
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite (C4AF)
55.
Which type of structural failure is most critical in over-reinforced RCC beams?
a)
Tensile cracking
b)
Shear failure
c)
Compression failure of concrete
d)
Bond failure
56.
Match the following special concretes with their properties:
a)
A. High strength - i. >60 MPa
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. Crack resistance
C. Self-compacting - iii. High flowability
b)
A. Fibre-reinforced - i. Crack resistance
B. High strength - ii. High flowability
C. Self-compacting - iii. >60 MPa
c)
A. High strength - i. High flowability
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. Crack resistance
C. Self-compacting - iii. >60 MPa
d)
A. High strength - i. Crack resistance
B. Fibre-reinforced - ii. >60 MPa
C. Self-compacting - iii. High flowability
57.
What is the minimum effective depth (D) for a beam subjected to medium load if the span (L) is known?
a)
D ≥ L/20
b)
D ≥ L/18
c)
D ≥ L/15
d)
D ≥ L/12
58.
Which of the following is true regarding side face reinforcement in RCC beams?
a)
Required when web depth exceeds 500 mm
b)
Minimum 0.05% of web area
c)
Provided on one face of beam only
d)
Spacing not more than 300 mm or web thickness
59.
The maximum reinforcement in tension zone of RCC beam is limited to:
a)
0.03 bd
b)
0.02 bd
c)
0.05 bd
d)
0.04 bd
60.
A rectangular RCC beam has b = 300 mm and d = 500 mm. What is the maximum tensile reinforcement allowed?
(Given: Max reinforcement = 0.04 × b × d)
a)
500 mm²
b)
3000 mm²
c)
6000 mm²
d)
4000 mm²
61.
In RCC columns, what is the maximum percentage of longitudinal reinforcement allowed with respect to gross area (Ag)?
a)
4%
b)
5%
c)
6%
d)
8%
62.
The permissible load Pu for a short axially loaded RCC column is calculated using which formula?
(Given: fck = characteristic compressive strength, fy = yield strength, Ac = concrete area, Asc = area of steel)
a)
Pu = 0.45 fck Ac + 0.75 fy Asc
b)
Pu = 0.35 fck Ac + 0.87 fy Asc
c)
Pu = 0.4 fck Ac + 0.67 fy Asc
d)
Pu = 0.5 fck Ac + 0.5 fy Asc
63.
Calculate the design tensile strength of a steel plate 200 mm wide and 10 mm thick using yielding criteria.
Given: fy = 250 MPa, γm0 = 1.10
a)
409.0 kN
b)
454.5 kN
c)
500.0 kN
d)
318.2 kN
64.
A fillet weld of 6 mm is used on both sides of a plate with a length of 120 mm. Calculate the design strength. Assume: fu = 410 MPa, γmw = 1.25
a)
123.2 kN
b)
103.3 kN
c)
190.86kN
d)
115.5 kN
65.
Which of the following statements about steel design under IS 800:2007 is TRUE?
a)
Compression members are governed only by yield strength
b)
Slenderness ratio has no effect on axial strength
c)
Design of members is based on limit state method
d)
Design strength is independent of partial safety factors
66.
Which factor affects the buckling strength of a compression steel member the most?
a)
Length of member
b)
Cross-sectional area
c)
Slenderness ratio
d)
Grade of steel
67.
Which among the following scales is best suited for comparing distances in two different systems of units?
a)
Plain Scale
b)
Vernier Scale
c)
Comparative Scale
d)
Diagonal Scale
68.
In the 1st angle projection system, where is the plan view placed with respect to the elevation?
a)
Above the elevation
b)
Below the elevation
c)
To the left of the elevation
d)
To the right of the elevation
69.
Which AutoCAD command is used to create round corners between two intersecting lines?
a)
Chamfer
b)
Fillet
c)
Offset
d)
Mirror
70.
ASSERTION: In orthographic projection, projectors are perpendicular to the plane of projection.
REASON: Orthographic projection uses converging projectors from the object to the plane.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
71.
What shape does a circular lamina appear as in elevation when inclined to VP and perpendicular to HP?
a)
Circle
b)
Rhombus
c)
Ellipse
d)
Parabola
72.
Which IS code is commonly referred to for architectural and building drawings in Basic Engineering Drawing?
a)
IS 456:2000
b)
IS 800:1984
c)
IS 962:1989
d)
IS 875:1978
73.
Which of the following is NOT considered a primary view in orthographic projection?
a)
Front view
b)
Top view
c)
Left side view
d)
Auxiliary view
74.
Which drawing sheet size is most appropriate for detailed civil drawings in engineering as per BIS?
a)
A0
b)
A1
c)
A2
d)
A4
75.
ASSERTION: Freehand technical sketching is used to quickly convey ideas and object shapes.
REASON: It requires the use of drawing instruments and precise scales.
a)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation.
b)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation.
c)
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d)
Assertion is false but Reason is true.
76.
Which of the following symbols is used in building drawings to represent brick masonry?
a)
Diagonal hatching
b)
Cross-hatching
c)
Zig-zag horizontal pattern
d)
Wavy lines
77.
Which factor is most critical in preventing overturning of a shallow foundation under lateral loads?
a)
Depth of footing
b)
Width of foundation
c)
Self-weight of superstructure
d)
Moment of resistance of footing
78.
In deep foundations, which of the following is a major cause of negative skin friction?
a)
High groundwater table
b)
Loose fill over consolidated soil
c)
Very dry granular soils
d)
Cohesive soils with high bearing capacity
79.
Which type of foundation is preferred for a multi-storey building constructed on expansive clay soil?
a)
Isolated footing
b)
Combined footing
c)
Mat (raft) foundation
d)
Grillage foundation
80.
Which type of scaffolding is most appropriate for stone masonry work involving heavy loads and irregular walls?
a)
Steel scaffolding
b)
Needle scaffolding
c)
Double scaffolding
d)
Suspended scaffolding
81.
What is the key advantage of cantilever scaffolding in urban construction?
a)
Used for high-rise buildings
b)
Allows work without ground obstruction
c)
Easier to dismantle
d)
Provides better load capacity
82.
Which shoring method is most suitable when adjacent walls of a building are showing signs of bulging outwards?
a)
Raking shore
b)
Flying shore
c)
Dead shore
d)
Piling shore
83.
Why is bituminous coating considered effective in damp-proofing substructures?
a)
It's eco-friendly and reusable
b)
It forms a rigid and brittle layer
c)
It is economical and forms a continuous waterproof membrane
d)
It reacts chemically with water
84.
Which chemical treatment is most effective for anti-termite protection during pre-construction stage?
a)
Chlorpyrifos emulsion spray
b)
Zinc phosphate coating
c)
Calcium chloride soaking
d)
Lime slurry coating
85.
Which temporary support is used when removing or altering load-bearing walls during renovation?
a)
Dead shore
b)
Needle beam
c)
Flying shore
d)
Inclined raker
86.
Which damp-proofing method combines both physical and chemical resistance to moisture?
a)
Cavity wall construction
b)
Bituminous felt
c)
Integral waterproofing compound
d)
Pressure grouting
87.
In RCC lintels, why are stirrups provided along the span?
a)
To reduce deflection
b)
To hold longitudinal bars in place and resist shear
c)
To act as compression reinforcement
d)
To avoid crack propagation in bottom fibers
88.
Match the following types of arches with their features:
A. Semicircular arch B. Relieving arch C. Florentine arch D. Flat arch
1.strong thrust 2.three centered 3.weak in strength 4.support flat arches
a)
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
b)
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
c)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d)
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
89.
Which of the following is a defect in timber caused by fungi?
a)
Wane
b)
Torn grain
c)
White rot
d)
Chip mark
90.
What is the permissible water absorption limit for a first-class brick?
a)
Less than 25%
b)
Not more than 22%
c)
Not more than 20%
d)
Exactly 15%
91.
In which method of seasoning is timber placed in an airtight chamber with temperatures of 35°C to 38°C?
a)
Water seasoning
b)
Kiln seasoning
c)
Electrical seasoning
d)
Salt seasoning
92.
Which pigment base is most suitable for wood surfaces but not for iron surfaces?
a)
White lead
b)
Red lead
c)
Zinc white
d)
Titanium white
93.
In blasting operations, which explosive has the highest underwater effectiveness and does not produce smoke?
a)
Dynamite
b)
Cordite
c)
Gun cotton
d)
Blasting gelatine
94.
Which defect in painting results from vertical or inclined surfaces being painted too thickly?
a)
Bloom
b)
Flashing
c)
Sagging
d)
Wrinkling
95.
In rocks, what is the structure called when crystals of one or more minerals are large and predominant?
a)
Granular structure
b)
Porphyritic structure
c)
Vesicular structure
d)
Foliated structure
96.
Which type of paint forms a transparent layer and is suitable for marine structures like oil tanks and radiators?
a)
Graphite paint
b)
Enamel paint
c)
Aluminium paint
d)
Bituminous paint
97.
Which explosive is typically stored in moist condition and is strong as dynamite?
a)
Blasting powder
b)
Gun cotton
c)
Cordite
d)
Gelignite
98.
In the power-driven method of lime mortar preparation, what is the typical diameter range of the revolving pan?
a)
1.0 to 1.5 m
b)
1.8 to 2.4 m
c)
2.5 to 3.0 m
d)
3.5 to 4.5 m
99.
Which of the following compounds contributes the least to the heat of hydration in cement?
a)
C3A
b)
C3S
c)
C2S
d)
C4AF
100.
Which mortar type is unsuitable for plastering work due to risk of disintegration?
a)
Cement mortar
b)
Lime mortar
c)
Surkhi mortar
d)
Gypsum mortar
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