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Common Small Ruminant Diseases Part1

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name a gastrointestinal disease of small ruminants that involves intestinal parasites.

a)

Intestinal Parasitism

b)

Foot Rot

c)

Mastitis

d)

Blue Tongue

2.

What is the gastrointestinal disease of small ruminants also known as 'yo-knees'?

a)

Johne’s Disease

b)

Foot and Mouth Disease

c)

Blue Tongue

d)

Enterotoxemia

3.

Name the gastrointestinal disease of small ruminants caused by protozoa and often affects young animals.

a)

Coccidiosis

b)

Foot rot

c)

Mastitis

d)

Enterotoxemia

4.

Which gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants is also called 'watery mouth disease'?

a)

E.coli

b)

Salmonellosis

c)

Coccidiosis

d)

Johne's disease

5.

Name the gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants caused by a common foodborne bacterium.

a)

Salmonella

b)

Foot and Mouth Disease

c)

Scrapie

d)

Blue Tongue

6.

What gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants is associated with overeating and requires identification of the pathogen?

a)

Overeating Disease

b)

Johne's Disease

c)

Bluetongue

d)

Foot and Mouth Disease

7.

Which gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants is caused by a virus and often leads to diarrhea?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

Salmonellosis

d)

Clostridial enterotoxemia

8.

Name the gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants caused by a protozoan parasite that can lead to diarrhea.

a)

Cryptosporidium

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

Salmonellosis

d)

Johne's disease

9.

What is the term for the gastrointestinal condition in small ruminants where the rectum protrudes outside the body?

a)

Rectal Prolapse

b)

Intussusception

c)

Bloat

d)

Gastric Ulcer

10.

Name the gastrointestinal disease in small ruminants characterized by excessive gas accumulation in the stomach.

a)

Bloat

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Johne's disease

d)

Foot rot

11.

What is the common name of Haemonchus contortus? What does it cause in sheep?

a)

Barber's pole worm; it causes anemia in sheep.

b)

Liver fluke; it causes liver damage in sheep.

c)

Lungworm; it causes respiratory issues in sheep.

d)

Tapeworm; it causes digestive problems in sheep.

12.

The simple test done to assess anemia and is performed by examining the color of the animal’s lower eyelid (conjunctiva) is called:

a)

Capillary refill time

b)

Packed cell volume test

c)

FAMACHA test

d)

Blood smear examination

13.

What is submandibular subcutaneous edema also known as?

a)

Bottle Jaw

b)

Blue Tongue

c)

Foot Rot

d)

Pink Eye

14.

What is usually the result of protein loss due to anemia in sheep, goats, or calves?

a)

Bottle Jaw

b)

Scours

c)

Foot Rot

d)

Pink Eye

15.

What condition occurs primarily due to the infestation of barber pole worms or other blood feeding parasites in sheep, goats, or calves?

a)

Bottle Jaw

b)

Foot Rot

c)

Mastitis

d)

Bloat

16.

How can we correct or treat bottle jaw in sheep, goats, or calves?

a)

By providing vitamin supplements

b)

By deworming and improving nutrition

c)

By increasing water intake only

d)

By isolating the affected animal

17.

Bloat in small ruminants is defined as failure of what process?

a)

Eructation

b)

Mastication

c)

Rumination

d)

Defecation

18.

Which of the following are types of bloat in small ruminants?

a)

Frothy bloat

b)

Free-gas bloat

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

19.

Bloat in small ruminants is life-threatening if not treated.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Bloat in small ruminants causes death by ________.

a)

asphyxiation

b)

dehydration

c)

starvation

d)

infection

21.

Classical sign of bloat in small ruminants is abdominal distension on which side?

a)

left side

b)

right side

c)

both sides

d)

dorsal side

22.

Bloat in small ruminants is an emergency and pressure must be relieved immediately.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What disease is also known as 'Overeating Disease' in small ruminants?

a)

Enterotoxemia

b)

Foot and Mouth Disease

c)

Mastitis

d)

Blue Tongue

24.

What is the causative agent of 'Overeating Disease' in small ruminants?

a)

C. perfringens type C and D

b)

E. coli

c)

Salmonella typhimurium

d)

Pasteurella multocida

25.

'Overeating Disease' in small ruminants is also known as:

a)

Pulpy Kidney

b)

Blackleg

c)

Foot rot

d)

Mastitis

26.

What does 'Overeating Disease' cause damage to in small ruminants?

a)

Intestinal wall

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Kidneys

27.

What symptom can be seen as a result of diarrhea in 'Overeating Disease'?

a)

Edema

b)

Fever

c)

Cough

d)

Rash

28.

Sheep are more prone to sudden death from 'Overeating Disease.'

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Is there a common vaccine for 'Overeating Disease' in small ruminants?

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Bacterial pneumonia in small ruminants is caused by which of the following organisms?

a)

Mycoplasma mycoides

b)

Pasteurella multocida or Mannheimia haemolytica

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

31.

Pasteurella multocida and Mannheimia haemolytica are often found in the upper respiratory tract of healthy sheep and goats.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is the leading cause of respiratory infections and death in small ruminants?

a)

Bacterial pneumonia caused by Pasteurella multocida or Mannheimia haemolytica

b)

Viral enteritis caused by Rotavirus

c)

Parasitic infestation by Haemonchus contortus

d)

Nutritional deficiency of selenium

33.

Mycoplasma pneumonia is unique in which animal?

a)

Sheep

b)

Goats

c)

Cattle

d)

Horses

34.

Which subspecies of Mycoplasma can cause meningitis, arthritis, and septicemia in goats?

a)

Mycoplasma bovis

b)

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides

c)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

d)

Mycoplasma capricolum

35.

Higher infection rate of Mycoplasma pneumonia in goats correlates with the presence of which parasite?

a)

Ear mites (Psoroptes spp.)

b)

Liver flukes (Fasciola hepatica)

c)

Roundworms (Haemonchus contortus)

d)

Coccidia (Eimeria spp.)

36.

Reproductive Disease: Which animals have the same reproductive disease impacts as small ruminants?

a)

Only cattle

b)

Only swine

c)

Cattle, swine, and equines

d)

Only equines

37.

List the common pathogens that cause reproductive impacts in small ruminants.

a)

Chlamydiosis, listeriosis, toxoplasmosis, neosporosis, Q-Fever

b)

Pasteurella, E. coli, Salmonella, Streptococcus, Clostridium

c)

Brucellosis, tuberculosis, anthrax, leptospirosis, tetanus

d)

Foot-and-mouth disease, bluetongue, rabies, scrapie, orf

38.

What is important to know about all of the listed pathogens (Chlamydiosis, listeriosis, toxoplasmosis, neosporosis, Q-Fever)?

a)

Zoonotic!

b)

They are all viruses.

c)

They only affect plants.

d)

They are not harmful to humans.

39.

Pregnancy Toxemia (Ketosis) is very common in which type of animals?

a)

Small ruminants

b)

Large ruminants

c)

Poultry

d)

Equines

40.

What is ketosis in the context of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants?

a)

Conversion of fat for energy when not enough carbohydrates are present

b)

High blood glucose

c)

Excessive protein intake

d)

Increased carbohydrate storage

41.

Fill in the blank: Hypoglycemia is defined as ________ blood glucose.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

normal

d)

elevated

42.

What is another term for pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants?

a)

Lambing Paralysis

b)

Milk Fever

c)

Grass Tetany

d)

Bloat

43.

Ewes expecting multiple lambs are at higher risk for pregnancy toxemia.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants?

a)

Head drooping

b)

Lethargy

c)

Teeth grinding

d)

Increased appetite

45.

Fill in the blank: Severe or untreated pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants can lead to ______ and then death.

a)

coma

b)

seizures

c)

paralysis

d)

fever

46.

Which of the following is a method used to diagnose pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants?

a)

Urine ketone strips

b)

X-ray

c)

Fecal flotation

d)

Skin scraping

47.

List any two clinical signs of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants.

a)

Depression and recumbency

b)

Coughing and sneezing

c)

Lameness and swelling of joints

d)

Diarrhea and vomiting

48.

Ataxia is a clinical sign of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Based on the image of the sheep shown, this animal might be displaying which clinical sign of pregnancy toxemia?

a)

Recumbency

b)

Aggression

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Excessive vocalization

50.

Diagnosis of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants can be based off clinical signs and ______.

a)

timing

b)

breed

c)

weight

d)

age

51.

What are some substances used to correct hypoglycemia in small ruminants with pregnancy toxemia?

a)

Karo

b)

Molasses

c)

Propylene glycol

d)

Water

52.

Fill in the blank: One of the treatments for pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants is providing ________ to correct dehydration and imbalances.

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Vitamins

d)

Sedatives

53.

Fill in the blank: ________ correction is important in the treatment and prevention of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants.

a)

Nutritional

b)

Surgical

c)

Physical

d)

Genetic

54.

Fill in the blank: To help prevent pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants, it is important to minimize ________.

a)

stress

b)

exercise

c)

sunlight

d)

water intake

55.

Fill in the blank: Maintaining proper ________ score is a key prevention strategy for pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants.

a)

body condition

b)

respiratory

c)

heart rate

d)

urine protein

56.

What is the causative agent of Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL)?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Mycobacterium bovis

57.

Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL) is primarily seen in which animals?

a)

Cattle and horses

b)

Sheep and goats

c)

Dogs and cats

d)

Pigs and chickens

58.

What is a key symptom of Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL)?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Lymph node enlargement and abscessation

c)

Hair loss

d)

Lameness

59.

Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL) is a ______ infection.

a)

chronic

b)

acute

c)

viral

d)

fungal

60.

Is Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL) is caused by a Gram-positive or Gram-negative, intracellular bacterium?

a)

Gram-Nagative

b)

Gram-Positive

61.

Which cells are primarily involved in the infection of Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL)?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes and macrophages

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platelets

62.

The agent of Caseous Lymphadenitis (CL) can survive on contaminated objects, bedding, and feces for several months.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What are the palpable, external lymph nodes in sheep and goats?

a)

The palpable, external lymph nodes in sheep and goats include the submandibular, parotid, prescapular, prefemoral, and popliteal lymph nodes.

b)

The palpable, external lymph nodes in sheep and goats include only the mesenteric and mediastinal lymph nodes.

c)

The palpable, external lymph nodes in sheep and goats include the inguinal, axillary, and cervical lymph nodes only.

d)

The palpable, external lymph nodes in sheep and goats include only the retropharyngeal and iliac lymph nodes.

64.

Caseous Lymphadenitis has two distinct manifestations: 2. Internal = “Thin Ewe Syndrome” - Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Thin Ewe Syndrome?

a)

A) Weight loss

b)

B) Increased productivity

c)

C) Decreased fertility

d)

D) Chronic cough

65.

Caseous Lymphadenitis has two distinct manifestations: 2. Internal = “Thin Ewe Syndrome” - The symptoms of Thin Ewe Syndrome depend on the location of what?

a)

The symptoms depend on the location of internal abscessation.

b)

The symptoms depend on the breed of the sheep.

c)

The symptoms depend on the age of the animal.

d)

The symptoms depend on the type of feed provided.

66.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located under the jaw?

a)

Submandibular

b)

Prescapular

c)

Retropharyngeal

d)

Popliteal

67.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located in front of the shoulder?

a)

Submandibular

b)

Prescapular

c)

Femoral

d)

Prefemoral

68.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located behind the throat?

a)

Retropharyngeal

b)

Submandibular

c)

Popliteal

d)

Femoral

69.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located in front of the hind leg?

a)

Prefemoral

b)

Femoral

c)

Prescapular

d)

Submandibular

70.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located on the inner thigh?

a)

Femoral

b)

Popliteal

c)

Retropharyngeal

d)

Prescapular

71.

Look at the diagram of the goat. Which lymph node is located behind the knee?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Femoral

c)

Submandibular

d)

Prefemoral

72.

Observe the image showing a cross-section of tissue with multiple round, pale nodules. What pathological condition is likely being depicted in this image?

a)

Metastatic carcinoma

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Sarcoidosis

d)

Fatty liver

73.

Look at the image of a sheep's head with visible swelling or growths under the jaw. What is the likely cause of this swelling?

a)

Bottle jaw (due to internal parasites)

b)

Sheep pox

c)

Foot rot

d)

Bluetongue

74.

A sheep with a thin or emaciated appearance could be suffering from which of the following conditions?

a)

Overfeeding

b)

Parasitic infection

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

High milk production

75.

How is Caseous Lymphadenitis commonly transmitted?

a)

Through contaminated water

b)

Through abraded skin during shearing

c)

Through the air

d)

Through direct contact with feces

76.

Which of the following is NOT a method used for the diagnosis of Caseous Lymphadenitis?

a)

A) Clinical signs

b)

B) Aspirate and culture

c)

C) Blood pressure measurement

d)

D) None of the above

77.

Fill in the blank: One way to diagnose Caseous Lymphadenitis is by observing _________

a)

clinical signs

b)

blood pressure

c)

urine color

d)

heart rate

78.

Which of the following is a treatment or prevention method for Caseous Lymphadenitis?

a)

Isolate from the others

b)

Provide more water

c)

Increase exercise

d)

Reduce sunlight exposure

79.

Systemic antibiotics have limited effectiveness and must be given long term for Caseous Lymphadenitis.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Fill in the blank: Vaccination can reduce the severity of infection and should be given _______ shearing.

a)

before

b)

after

c)

during

d)

instead of

81.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a treatment or prevention method for Caseous Lymphadenitis?

a)

Lance abscess and flush

b)

Surgical removal of encapsulated abscess

c)

Increase protein intake

d)

Good hygiene practices

82.

What is another name for Contagious Ecthyma (Orf)?

a)

Sore Mouth

b)

Foot Rot

c)

Blue Tongue

d)

Ringworm

83.

Is Contagious Ecthyma (Orf) zoonotic?

a)

True

b)

False

84.

What type of virus causes Contagious Ecthyma (Orf)?

a)

Parapoxvirus

b)

Herpesvirus

c)

Retrovirus

d)

Adenovirus

85.

Contagious Ecthyma (Orf) is highly contagious.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Where do the painful skin lesions of Contagious Ecthyma (Orf) typically occur?

a)

On the mouth and muzzle

b)

On the hooves

c)

On the tail

d)

On the ears