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Exam 2 physics

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an artifact?

a)

Not real

b)

Not in the correct position

c)

Correct brightness

d)

Incorrect shape or size

2.

Which assumption is violated in a reverberation artifact?

a)

Sound travels in soft tissue at 1540 m/s

b)

Reflections only arise from structures within the beams axis

c)

Sound travels directly to a reflector and back

d)

The strength of a reflection is based on the reflectors angle

3.

Which artifact appears as a solid hyperechoic line extending downward?

a)

Mirror image

b)

Comet tail

c)

Shadowing

d)

Enhancement

4.

Which of the following is an assumption of imaging systems?

a)

All echoes are hypoechoic

b)

Sound reflects in curves

c)

Image plane is very thick

d)

Sound travels in a straight line

5.

Which artifact results from too much attenuation?

a)

Comet tail

b)

Enhancement

c)

Shadow

d)

Reverberation

6.

What is the cause of edge shadowing?

a)

Beam striking a flat surface

b)

Refraction and divergence at a curved edge

c)

High attenuation

d)

Gas bubbles

7.

Which artifact is the opposite of shadowing?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Enhancement

c)

Comet tail

d)

Slice thickness

8.

Which artifact mimics incorrect TGC

a)

Mirror image

b)

Enhancement

c)

Focal enhancement

d)

Refraction

9.

Mirror image artifact results from:

a)

grating lobes

b)

weak attenuation

c)

sound reflecting off a strong reflector

d)

oblique angle refraction

10.

Which artifact causes a structure to appear shallower than it actually is?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Enhancement

c)

Speed eror

d)

Range ambiguity

11.

What are lobes caused by a single crystal transducer called?

a)

Refractions

b)

Side lobes

c)

Grating lobes

d)

Shadowing

12.

Apodization is used to:

a)

increase depth

b)

improve frame rate

c)

reduce grating lobes

d)

correct mirror image artifacts

13.

What happens when the beam encounters different propagation speeds at an oblique angle?

a)

Enhancement

b)

Refraction

c)

Shadowing

d)

Axial resolution error

14.

Which artifact results from the thickness of the imaging plane being too large?

a)

Enhancement

b)

Reverberation

c)

Slice thickness

d)

Comet tail

15.

Which artifact results in two side-by-side structures appearing as one?

a)

Axial resolution

b)

Lateral resolution

c)

Shadow

d)

Range ambiguity

16.

Which artifact causes a structure in front of another to mask the second one due to long pulse length?

a)

Comet tail

b)

Axial resolution

c)

Enhancement

d)

Refraction

17.

What causes multipath artifact?

a)

Fast propagation

b)

Wide beam width

c)

Reflection path differs from the return path

d)

Large reflector

18.

Which artifact is worsened by low frame rates?

a)

Temporal resolution

b)

Axial resolution

c)

Spatial resolution

d)

Refraction

19.

Which artifact results from low line density?

a)

Mirror image

b)

reverberation

c)

spatial resolution

d)

comet tail

20.

What is a form of noise caused by interface of a small wavelets?

a)

Speckle

b)

Shadow

c)

Refraction

d)

Lateral resolution

21.

Which artifact is caused by signals from outside the main beam?

a)

Comet tail

b)

Shadow

c)

Refraction

d)

Lateral resolution

22.

What does harmonic imaging primarily help reduce?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Lobe artifact

c)

Mirror images

d)

Noise

23.

Describes tissue that appears brighter than surrounding tissue

(a)  

24.

Describes tissue that has no internal echoes

(a)  

25.

Describes structure with equal echo brightness

(a)  

26.

This artifact causes a second copy of a structure deeper than the original

(a)  

27.

With this artifact, reflectors appear too shallow when sound travels faster than 1,540 m/s

(a)  

28.

In this artifact, reflectors appear too deep when sound travels slower than 1,540 m/s

(a)  

29.

The process of breaking PZT elements into smaller ones to reduce lobes is called:

(a)  

30.

In this artifact, a hollow structure like a cyst may appear falsely filled in

(a)  

31.

This artifact occurs when the system misinterprets a late echo as a shallow structure

(a)  

32.

The presence of false echo signals from outside the main sound beam

(a)  

33.

Artifact that occurs when two side-by- side reflectors are displayed as one

(a)  

34.

The ability to precisely position moving reflectors is known as _ resolution

(a)  

35.

Noise resembling grainy tissue texture in an image is called

(a)  

36.

(a)   artifact appears as a bright horizontal band at the focal zone

37.

Sound travels at exactly what speed in soft tissue?

(a)  

38.

_ resolution improves with thinner imaging planes

(a)  

39.

The effect of a long pulse length that prevents two reflectors from being resolved is called (a)   artifact

40.

(a)   occurs when the echo does not return before the next pulse is sent out

41.

Describe the portion of tissue by the arrows

a)

Hypoechoic

b)

Anechoic

c)

Isoechoic

d)

Hyperechoic

42.

Describe the tissue in the image by the arrow

a)

Hyperechoic

b)

Anechoic

c)

Hypoechoic

d)

Isoechoic

43.

Describe the tissue in the image

a)

Anechoic

b)

Hypoechoic

c)

Hyperechoic

d)

Isoechoic

44.

Describe the tissue in the image

a)

Anechoic

b)

Isoechoic

c)

Hyperechoic

d)

Hypoechoic

45.

How would this tissue be described?

a)

Homogenous

b)

Heterogenous

46.

How would this tissue be described?

a)

Homogenous

b)

Heterogenous

47.

Multiple, equally spaced reflections that appear on the display.

a)

Mirror Image

b)

Shadow

c)

Comet Tail

d)

Reverberation

48.

What is reverberation caused by?

a)

Resonance of small structures such as gas bubbles after they have been bombarded by a sound pulse

b)

Bouncing of the sound wave between 2 strong reflectors positioned parallel to the beam

c)

Too much attenuation

d)

Increased intensity at the focus

49.

Which are not a characteristic of reverberation?

a)

Appear in multiples

b)

Appear unequally spaced

c)

Appear equally spaced

d)

Are located perpendicular to the sound beams main axis

e)

Are located at ever-increasing depths

50.

Artifact that is created when closely spaced reverberations merge together

a)

Reverberation

b)

Comet Tail

c)

Shadow

d)

Speed Error

51.

Which is not a characteristic of Comet Tail artifact

a)

Located parallel to the sound beams main axis

b)

Located in a medium with a very low propagation speed

c)

Appears as multiple long hyperechoic echoes

d)

Can arise from resonance of small structures like a gas bubble

e)

Located in a medium with a very high propagation speed

52.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Comet Tail

c)

Shadowing

d)

Speed Error

53.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Shadow

b)

Reverberation

c)

Comet Tail

d)

Mirror

54.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Refraction

b)

Shadow

c)

Reverberation

d)

Comet Tail

55.

Which are characteristics of Shadow artifact?

a)

Hypo- or anechoic background

b)

The result of too little attenuation

c)

Located above the structure with abnormal attenuation

d)

Prevents visualization of true anatomy

e)

The result of too much attenuation

56.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Edge shadow

b)

Refraction

c)

Noise

d)

Shadow

57.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Shadow

b)

Edge shadow

c)

Range error

d)

Lobes

58.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Speed Error

b)

Reverberation

c)

Lobes

d)

Enhancement

59.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Edge shadow

b)

Focal Enhancement

c)

Speed Error

d)

Refraction

60.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Reverberation

b)

Speed Error

c)

Mirror

d)

Lobes

61.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Shadow

b)

Mirror

c)

Lobe

d)

Refraction

62.

Which artifact is present in this image?

a)

Slice Thickness

b)

Lobes

c)

Mirror

d)

Refraction

63.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic reflectors absent on image

a)

Shadowing

b)

Comet Tail

c)

Shadowing by refraction

d)

Lateral and Axial Resolution

e)

Grating lobe

64.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic reflector appears multiple times on image; artifact positioned deeper than the true anatomy.

a)

Shadowing

b)

Comet tail

c)

Ring down

d)

Reverberations

e)

Mirror image

65.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic reflector appear multiple times on image; artifact displaced to the side of the true anatomy

a)

Refraction

b)

Shadowing

c)

Axial and Lateral Resolution

d)

Side lobe

e)

Grating lobe

66.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic reflectors appear with abnormal brightness

a)

Banding

b)

Enhancement

c)

Lobes

d)

Shadowing

e)

Reverberations

67.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic structures appear at incorrect depth

a)

Range Ambiguity

b)

Mirror image

c)

Reverberations

d)

Shadowing

e)

Speed Error

68.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic structures appear in the incorrect imaging plane

a)

Reverberation

b)

Shadowing

c)

Slice or section thickness

d)

Speed errors

69.

Select the causes of:

Anatomic structures do not correspond to echoes on the image

a)

Lobes

b)

Acoustic Speckle

c)

Multipath

d)

Shadowing

70.

Which imaging mode typically uses the lowest transducer output?

a)

Pulsed doppler

b)

Color doppler

c)

Gray scale

d)

Power doppler

71.

Which instrument measures acoustic pressure at specific locations in a sound beam?

a)

Calorimeter

b)

Hydrophone

c)

Thermocouple

72.

Which method allows the visualization of the sound beam shape using sound-light interaction?

a)

Calorimetry

b)

Acousto-optics

c)

Radiation force

d)

Empirical approach

73.

Which device measures temperature rise at a particular location?

a)

Liquid crystal

b)

Hydrophone

c)

Thermocouple

74.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding diagnostic ultrasound?

a)

It has caused confirmed tissue damage at normal intensities

b)

It is banned during fetal exams

c)

It has no known harmful effects at low intensities

d)

It always causes thermal heating

75.

Who regulates ultrasound system output?

a)

AIUM

b)

WHO

c)

FDA

d)

CDC

76.

The organization responsible for compiling scientific ultrasound bioeffects data is:

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

FDA

d)

AIUM

77.

Which of the following is an "in vitro" study?

a)

Animal study in a lab

b)

Observing effects in a fetus

c)

Patient-based hospital study

d)

Cell cultures in a dish

78.

Which intensity limit is correct for focused beams?

a)

1 mW/cm²

b)

10 mW/cm²

c)

100 mW/cm²

d)

1000 mW/cm²

79.

Which approach analyzes cause-and-effect to predict potential bioeffects?

a)

Retrospective

b)

Empirical

c)

Mechanistic

d)

Epidemiologic

80.

Which approach reviews data from actual patient or animal exposure?

a)

Mechanistic

b)

Empirical

c)

Thermal

d)

Theoretical

81.

Which mechanism results from tissue heating?

a)

Cavitation

b)

Acoustic streaming

c)

Thermal

d)

Refraction

82.

Which tissue absorbs the most acoustic energy and leads to the greatest heating?

a)

Muscle

b)

Liver

c)

Blood

d)

Bone

83.

Which form of Thermal Index assumes the sound beam travels through soft tissue?

a)

TIC

b)

TIB

c)

TIS

d)

TIQ

84.

What does a TI (Thermal Index) of 2 suggest?

a)

Exposure exceeds safe limits

b)

A temperature rise of 2 degrees C may occur

c)

No heating is possible

d)

The patient is at risk for shock

85.

Which mechanism involves microbubble activity?

a)

Thermal

b)

Cavitation

c)

Apodization

d)

Rarefraction

86.

What kind of cavitation involves bubble oscillation without bursting?

a)

Inertial

b)

Transient

c)

Harmonic

d)

Stable

87.

Which type of cavitation results in shock waves and very high temperatures?

a)

Stable

b)

Pulsatile

c)

Transient

d)

Static

88.

The Mechanical Index (MI) increases with:

a)

Lower peak rarefaction pressure

b)

Lower frequency and higher negative pressure

c)

Higher frequency and low pressure

d)

High peak rarefaction pressure

89.

Which term describes the study of disease prevalence and population impact?

a)

Dosimetry

b)

Thermometry

c)

Epidemiology

d)

Radiography

90.

Which study type is ideal for assessing ultrasound risk?

a)

Randomized and retrospective

b)

Prospective and randomized

c)

Retrospective and observational

d)

Randomized and observational

91.

The most common risk in electrical safety from ultrasound is:

a)

Power overload

b)

Radiation leak

c)

Cracker transducer housing

d)

Noise pollution

92.

What principle guides minimizing ultrasound exposure while maximizing benefit?

a)

ALARA

b)

FDA

c)

MI Index

d)

TI Standard

93.

A (a)   measures acoustic pressure at a specific location in the beam

94.

(a)   is the science of identifying and measuring the characteristics of an ultrasound beam relevant to biological effects

95.

This approach is based on theoretical predictions of ultrasound bioeffects

(a)  

96.

This approach is based on actual observations in patients or animals

(a)  

97.

The 2 major mechanisms of bioeffects are:

(a)  

98.

The _ is used to estimate potential temperature rise in tissue

(a)  

99.

_ involves gas bubble expansion and collapse

(a)  

100.

The _ index estimates the likelihood of cavitation bioeffects

(a)  

101.

How is total power of the ultrasound beam calculated?

a)

total heat gain + pressure / time

b)

total heat gain - time it took to obtain the heat

c)

total heat gain + time it took to obtain the heat

d)

total heat gain / time

102.

True or false:

A thermocouple measures the power of the entire beam

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Results indicate very high intensities can cause genetic damage and cell death

a)

In vitro

b)

In vivo

104.

What is the bioeffects intensity limits of a focused and unfocused beam

a)

100 mW/cm2 focused

b)

100 mW/cm2 unfocused

c)

1000 mW/cm2 focused

d)

1000 mW/cm2 unfocused

e)

1 W/cm2 focused

105.

Searches for a relationship between cause and effect

a)

Empirical Approach

b)

Mechanistic approach

106.

Searches for a relationship between exposure and response

a)

Mechanistic approach

b)

Empirical approach

107.

Select the characteristics associated with a lower MI:

a)

Less cavitation

b)

More pressure

c)

Less pressure

d)

Lower frequency

e)

Higher frequency

108.

Select the characteristics associated with a Higher MI:

a)

Less cavitation

b)

More cavitation

c)

More pressure

d)

Lower frequency

e)

Less pressure

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